Podcast
Questions and Answers
A client taking a Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI) should be educated to avoid which of the following foods to prevent a hypertensive crisis?
A client taking a Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI) should be educated to avoid which of the following foods to prevent a hypertensive crisis?
Which of the following assessment findings would indicate lithium toxicity in a client prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder?
Which of the following assessment findings would indicate lithium toxicity in a client prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder?
A client is prescribed lamotrigine. What serious adverse effect should the nurse immediately educate the client about?
A client is prescribed lamotrigine. What serious adverse effect should the nurse immediately educate the client about?
When initiating a client on clozapine therapy, which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?
When initiating a client on clozapine therapy, which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?
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A client is prescribed buspirone for anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the client's education?
A client is prescribed buspirone for anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the client's education?
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Which route of administration bypasses the first-pass effect?
Which route of administration bypasses the first-pass effect?
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A drug with a high therapeutic index indicates what?
A drug with a high therapeutic index indicates what?
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What physiological change would most significantly affect drug distribution?
What physiological change would most significantly affect drug distribution?
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Which of the following would indicate impaired drug excretion?
Which of the following would indicate impaired drug excretion?
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What is most likely to occur in an elderly patient with reduced kidney function?
What is most likely to occur in an elderly patient with reduced kidney function?
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What is the primary difference between an agonist and an antagonist?
What is the primary difference between an agonist and an antagonist?
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A medication order written as 'Morphine 2mg IV q4h PRN pain' is what type of order?
A medication order written as 'Morphine 2mg IV q4h PRN pain' is what type of order?
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Which of the following is the most reliable method to verify the right client before administering medication?
Which of the following is the most reliable method to verify the right client before administering medication?
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Which medication carries the highest risk of bacterial infection during administration?
Which medication carries the highest risk of bacterial infection during administration?
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A patient receiving ketamine reports experiencing vivid hallucinations post-procedure. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A patient receiving ketamine reports experiencing vivid hallucinations post-procedure. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
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Why should Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) not be stopped abruptly?
Why should Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) not be stopped abruptly?
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A patient taking sertraline reports experiencing persistent nausea and diarrhea since starting the medication. What is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention?
A patient taking sertraline reports experiencing persistent nausea and diarrhea since starting the medication. What is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention?
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What potentially life-threatening adverse effect should the nurse closely monitor for in a patient taking an SSRI?
What potentially life-threatening adverse effect should the nurse closely monitor for in a patient taking an SSRI?
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A client is prescribed fluoxetine for depression. What critical information should the nurse include in the patient education?
A client is prescribed fluoxetine for depression. What critical information should the nurse include in the patient education?
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A patient is prescribed lorazepam as an IV non-opioid anesthetic. What vitals are most important for the nurse to continually monitor during the procedure?
A patient is prescribed lorazepam as an IV non-opioid anesthetic. What vitals are most important for the nurse to continually monitor during the procedure?
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Which combination of medications requires careful monitoring due to the increased risk of serotonin syndrome?
Which combination of medications requires careful monitoring due to the increased risk of serotonin syndrome?
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Following an uneventful surgery, a patient who received midazolam intravenously is now awake but confused and disoriented. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
Following an uneventful surgery, a patient who received midazolam intravenously is now awake but confused and disoriented. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
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Which of the uses listed is NOT an indicated use for SSRIs?
Which of the uses listed is NOT an indicated use for SSRIs?
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When is medication reconciliation performed to ensure patient safety?
When is medication reconciliation performed to ensure patient safety?
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Which of the following incidents requires immediate documentation after medication administration?
Which of the following incidents requires immediate documentation after medication administration?
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A patient refuses to take their scheduled medication after the nurse provides education about its purpose and effects. What is the priority action for the nurse?
A patient refuses to take their scheduled medication after the nurse provides education about its purpose and effects. What is the priority action for the nurse?
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What is the appropriate time frame to administer a scheduled medication to adhere to the principle of 'right time'?
What is the appropriate time frame to administer a scheduled medication to adhere to the principle of 'right time'?
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A nurse notes swelling, pallor, and coolness at the IV insertion site. Which IV complication is most likely occurring?
A nurse notes swelling, pallor, and coolness at the IV insertion site. Which IV complication is most likely occurring?
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What is the primary mechanism of action for benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders?
What is the primary mechanism of action for benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders?
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Which of the following medications is classified as a nonbenzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic?
Which of the following medications is classified as a nonbenzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic?
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Which of the following intravenous administration methods involves the rapid injection of a medication?
Which of the following intravenous administration methods involves the rapid injection of a medication?
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Which of the following medications requires extra caution and a triple-check of the label before administration?
Which of the following medications requires extra caution and a triple-check of the label before administration?
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Which of the following assessment findings indicates phlebitis at an intravenous (IV) site?
Which of the following assessment findings indicates phlebitis at an intravenous (IV) site?
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What is a common use for Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs)?
What is a common use for Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs)?
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Which side effect is more commonly associated with SNRIs than with SSRIs?
Which side effect is more commonly associated with SNRIs than with SSRIs?
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What symptom is NOT part of the 'Tri-Cs' mnemonic for Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)?
What symptom is NOT part of the 'Tri-Cs' mnemonic for Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)?
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What is the recommended action when discontinuing Tricyclic Antidepressants?
What is the recommended action when discontinuing Tricyclic Antidepressants?
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Which medication is a commonly prescribed Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor?
Which medication is a commonly prescribed Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor?
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What serious risk is associated with SNRIs when combined with certain medications?
What serious risk is associated with SNRIs when combined with certain medications?
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What is a potential effect of Tricyclic Antidepressants on the heart?
What is a potential effect of Tricyclic Antidepressants on the heart?
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Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Tricyclic Antidepressants?
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Tricyclic Antidepressants?
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Which statement about the onset of action for Tricyclic Antidepressants is true?
Which statement about the onset of action for Tricyclic Antidepressants is true?
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What is an important nursing consideration when administering SNRIs?
What is an important nursing consideration when administering SNRIs?
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Which of the following interventions is MOST critical when a patient on tranylcypromine (Parnate) reports experiencing a severe headache?
Which of the following interventions is MOST critical when a patient on tranylcypromine (Parnate) reports experiencing a severe headache?
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A patient taking lithium presents with new-onset hand tremors, nausea, and mild confusion. Their current lithium level is 1.4 mEq/L. Which of the following factors would MOST likely contribute to these findings?
A patient taking lithium presents with new-onset hand tremors, nausea, and mild confusion. Their current lithium level is 1.4 mEq/L. Which of the following factors would MOST likely contribute to these findings?
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A patient stabilized on valproate (Depakote) for bipolar disorder is planning to start a family. What is the MOST critical counseling point to emphasize?
A patient stabilized on valproate (Depakote) for bipolar disorder is planning to start a family. What is the MOST critical counseling point to emphasize?
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A patient is being transitioned from fluoxetine to phenelzine for treatment-resistant depression. Following the recommended washout period, which assessment finding necessitates IMMEDIATE intervention?
A patient is being transitioned from fluoxetine to phenelzine for treatment-resistant depression. Following the recommended washout period, which assessment finding necessitates IMMEDIATE intervention?
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A client on clozapine complains of a sore throat and presents with a fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C). The nurse's immediate action should be to?
A client on clozapine complains of a sore throat and presents with a fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C). The nurse's immediate action should be to?
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Which of the following non-opioid anesthetics carries the highest risk of bacterial infection?
Which of the following non-opioid anesthetics carries the highest risk of bacterial infection?
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A patient is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse recognizes that this medication works by:
A patient is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse recognizes that this medication works by:
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A patient taking fluoxetine reports experiencing hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and tachycardia. The nurse should suspect:
A patient taking fluoxetine reports experiencing hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and tachycardia. The nurse should suspect:
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Which instruction is most important for a nurse to provide to a patient who is starting sertraline for depression?
Which instruction is most important for a nurse to provide to a patient who is starting sertraline for depression?
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Which of the following combinations is most likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome?
Which of the following combinations is most likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome?
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A young adult patient is prescribed fluvoxamine for OCD. What is the most important consideration for the nurse regarding a black box warning for this medication?
A young adult patient is prescribed fluvoxamine for OCD. What is the most important consideration for the nurse regarding a black box warning for this medication?
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Besides depression, which of the following conditions is an appropriate use for paroxetine?
Besides depression, which of the following conditions is an appropriate use for paroxetine?
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Which of the following may occur if a patient abruptly stops taking citalopram?
Which of the following may occur if a patient abruptly stops taking citalopram?
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A patient receiving ketamine as a non-opioid anesthetic is undergoing a procedure. Which potential side effect requires the closest monitoring during recovery?
A patient receiving ketamine as a non-opioid anesthetic is undergoing a procedure. Which potential side effect requires the closest monitoring during recovery?
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The healthcare provider prescribed an SSRI to a patient with Bulimia Nervosa. Which medication is indicated for this patient?
The healthcare provider prescribed an SSRI to a patient with Bulimia Nervosa. Which medication is indicated for this patient?
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Which factor would most significantly impede drug distribution to a specific tissue?
Which factor would most significantly impede drug distribution to a specific tissue?
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In a patient with hepatic impairment, which pharmacokinetic process is most likely to be affected, potentially leading to altered drug responses?
In a patient with hepatic impairment, which pharmacokinetic process is most likely to be affected, potentially leading to altered drug responses?
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A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires careful monitoring because:
A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires careful monitoring because:
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A medication order reads: 'Administer 50 mg of Drug X intravenously immediately.' This type of order is best described as:
A medication order reads: 'Administer 50 mg of Drug X intravenously immediately.' This type of order is best described as:
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Which of the following routes of administration would be most suitable for a medication that is significantly affected by the first-pass effect?
Which of the following routes of administration would be most suitable for a medication that is significantly affected by the first-pass effect?
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How does compromised kidney function alter drug excretion?
How does compromised kidney function alter drug excretion?
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Which method of drug administration is characterized by having the most variable absorption rate due to factors such as gastric pH, food presence, and motility?
Which method of drug administration is characterized by having the most variable absorption rate due to factors such as gastric pH, food presence, and motility?
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What is the primary role of plasma proteins, such as albumin, in drug distribution throughout the body?
What is the primary role of plasma proteins, such as albumin, in drug distribution throughout the body?
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Which of the following best explains why blood pressure should be monitored in patients taking Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs)?
Which of the following best explains why blood pressure should be monitored in patients taking Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs)?
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A patient taking a Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA) is also prescribed an SSRI by a covering physician without realizing the patient is on a TCA. Which potential consequence is of greatest concern?
A patient taking a Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA) is also prescribed an SSRI by a covering physician without realizing the patient is on a TCA. Which potential consequence is of greatest concern?
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Which of the following instructions should be prioritized when educating a patient who is starting on amitriptyline?
Which of the following instructions should be prioritized when educating a patient who is starting on amitriptyline?
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Why are patients advised to gradually taper off SNRIs instead of abruptly stopping the medication?
Why are patients advised to gradually taper off SNRIs instead of abruptly stopping the medication?
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A 68-year-old patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for most closely?
A 68-year-old patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for most closely?
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A patient taking venlafaxine reports experiencing increased sweating and dizziness since starting the medication. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
A patient taking venlafaxine reports experiencing increased sweating and dizziness since starting the medication. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
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A patient who has been taking imipramine for depression tells the nurse, “I accidentally took two doses this morning. I feel fine, but should I be concerned?” What is the nurse's best response?
A patient who has been taking imipramine for depression tells the nurse, “I accidentally took two doses this morning. I feel fine, but should I be concerned?” What is the nurse's best response?
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A patient is prescribed desvenlafaxine for major depressive disorder. Which of the following pre-existing conditions would warrant extra caution when initiating this medication?
A patient is prescribed desvenlafaxine for major depressive disorder. Which of the following pre-existing conditions would warrant extra caution when initiating this medication?
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A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking clomipramine for obsessive-compulsive disorder. The patient reports experiencing frequent constipation. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to recommend?
A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking clomipramine for obsessive-compulsive disorder. The patient reports experiencing frequent constipation. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to recommend?
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A patient is taking duloxetine and reports experiencing sexual dysfunction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A patient is taking duloxetine and reports experiencing sexual dysfunction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
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A patient receiving IV fluids exhibits edema, crackles in the lungs, and elevated blood pressure. Which complication is most likely indicated by these findings?
A patient receiving IV fluids exhibits edema, crackles in the lungs, and elevated blood pressure. Which complication is most likely indicated by these findings?
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When administering medications via IV bolus, what critical action is most important for the nurse to perform to ensure patient safety?
When administering medications via IV bolus, what critical action is most important for the nurse to perform to ensure patient safety?
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A patient is prescribed both buspirone and bupropion. What action should the nurse take to ensure patient safety?
A patient is prescribed both buspirone and bupropion. What action should the nurse take to ensure patient safety?
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A nurse is preparing to administer clonazepam to a patient but accidentally selects clonidine from the medication drawer. After realizing the error prior to administering the medication, what is the nurse's most appropriate action?
A nurse is preparing to administer clonazepam to a patient but accidentally selects clonidine from the medication drawer. After realizing the error prior to administering the medication, what is the nurse's most appropriate action?
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A patient is receiving lorazepam for anxiety. Which assessment finding would warrant immediate intervention by the nurse?
A patient is receiving lorazepam for anxiety. Which assessment finding would warrant immediate intervention by the nurse?
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A patient is newly prescribed paroxetine for generalized anxiety disorder. What education should the nurse include regarding the expected time frame for therapeutic effects?
A patient is newly prescribed paroxetine for generalized anxiety disorder. What education should the nurse include regarding the expected time frame for therapeutic effects?
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A patient who is prescribed warfarin is also prescribed an IV medication. Which of the following 'rights' of medication administration is most critical to verify in this scenario?
A patient who is prescribed warfarin is also prescribed an IV medication. Which of the following 'rights' of medication administration is most critical to verify in this scenario?
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A patient is prescribed alprazolam for panic disorder. What instruction should the nurse prioritize when educating the patient about this medication?
A patient is prescribed alprazolam for panic disorder. What instruction should the nurse prioritize when educating the patient about this medication?
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The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient. Which action exemplifies the 'right documentation' of medication administration?
The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient. Which action exemplifies the 'right documentation' of medication administration?
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A patient with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted and prescribed chlordiazepoxide. What is the primary purpose of this medication in this context?
A patient with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted and prescribed chlordiazepoxide. What is the primary purpose of this medication in this context?
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Flashcards
Absorption
Absorption
Movement of drugs from the site of administration into the bloodstream.
Intravenous (IV) Absorption
Intravenous (IV) Absorption
Route with no barriers and immediate effect.
Distribution
Distribution
Transport of drugs to target tissues via the bloodstream.
Metabolism
Metabolism
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Excretion
Excretion
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Therapeutic Index (TI)
Therapeutic Index (TI)
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Agonists
Agonists
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The 'Rights' of Medication Administration
The 'Rights' of Medication Administration
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Right Medication
Right Medication
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Right Dose
Right Dose
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Right Time
Right Time
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Right Route
Right Route
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High-Alert Medications
High-Alert Medications
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Confused Medications
Confused Medications
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Medication Reconciliation
Medication Reconciliation
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Sedative Hypnotic Anxiolytics
Sedative Hypnotic Anxiolytics
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SSRIs for Anxiety Disorders
SSRIs for Anxiety Disorders
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IV Medication Administration
IV Medication Administration
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Methohexital Sodium
Methohexital Sodium
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Midazolam
Midazolam
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Respiratory Depression
Respiratory Depression
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Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)
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Common MAOIs
Common MAOIs
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Cardiovascular Depression
Cardiovascular Depression
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Major Side Effect of MAOIs
Major Side Effect of MAOIs
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Propofol Risks
Propofol Risks
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Ketamine Risks
Ketamine Risks
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Lithium Toxicity Signs
Lithium Toxicity Signs
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Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
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2nd Generation Antipsychotics
2nd Generation Antipsychotics
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Black Box Warning
Black Box Warning
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Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin Syndrome
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Nursing Considerations for SSRIs
Nursing Considerations for SSRIs
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SNRIs
SNRIs
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Common SNRIs
Common SNRIs
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Mechanism of SNRIs
Mechanism of SNRIs
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Uses of SNRIs
Uses of SNRIs
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SNRIs Side Effects
SNRIs Side Effects
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Serotonin Syndrome Risk
Serotonin Syndrome Risk
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TCAs
TCAs
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Common TCAs
Common TCAs
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TCAs Side Effects
TCAs Side Effects
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Withdrawal Symptoms
Withdrawal Symptoms
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Factors Affecting Absorption
Factors Affecting Absorption
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First-Pass Effect
First-Pass Effect
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Blood-Brain Barrier
Blood-Brain Barrier
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Half-Life (t½)
Half-Life (t½)
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Agonists vs Antagonists
Agonists vs Antagonists
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Plasma Protein Binding
Plasma Protein Binding
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PRN Orders
PRN Orders
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Right Client Verification
Right Client Verification
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Right Documentation
Right Documentation
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Peripheral IV
Peripheral IV
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GABA
GABA
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Nonbenzodiazepines
Nonbenzodiazepines
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Administration Methods
Administration Methods
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Barbiturates
Barbiturates
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Benzodiazepines
Benzodiazepines
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Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
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Continuous Monitoring
Continuous Monitoring
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MAOIs
MAOIs
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Hypertensive Crisis
Hypertensive Crisis
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Steven-Johnson Syndrome
Steven-Johnson Syndrome
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Study Notes
Pharmacokinetics & Routes of Administration
- Absorption: Movement of drugs from administration site to bloodstream
- Factors affecting absorption:
- Route of administration (IV fastest, oral slowest)
- Drug solubility (lipid-soluble better)
- Gastric pH and motility
- Blood flow at administration site
- Absorption by route:
- Oral (PO): Variable absorption rate due to gastric pH, food, and motility
- Intramuscular/Subcutaneous: Rapid absorption if water-soluble, slow if poorly soluble
- Intravenous (IV): Immediate effect
- Factors affecting absorption:
Distribution
- Distribution: Transport of drugs to target tissues via bloodstream.
- Factors affecting distribution:
- Blood flow/perfusion
- Plasma protein binding (albumin)
- Blood-brain barrier and placenta permeability
- Factors affecting distribution:
Metabolism
- Metabolism: Drug breakdown, mainly in the liver.
- Factors affecting metabolism:
- First-pass effect: Liver inactivates oral drugs
- Age: Infants and elderly have slower metabolism
- Hepatic enzyme induction/inhibition
- Factors affecting metabolism:
Excretion
- Excretion: Elimination of drugs, mainly via kidneys (urine).
- Monitoring: Assess BUN and creatinine for kidney function
Key Pharmacokinetic Concepts
- Therapeutic Index (TI): High TI = Safe, less monitoring required; Low TI = Risky, requires blood level monitoring.
- Half-Life (t½): Short t½ = Frequent dosing; Long t½ = Higher risk of toxicity
Safe Medication Administration & Error Reduction
- Medication Orders: Routine (standing), Single (one-time), Stat, PRN (as needed)
- Rights of Medication Administration:
- Right Client
- Right Medication
- Right Dose
- Right Time
- Right Route
- Right Documentation
- Right Education
- Right to Refuse
High-Alert & Confused Medications
- High-Alert Medications: Insulin, Heparin, Opioids, Warfarin
- Confused Medications (Look-Alike/Sound-Alike): Buspirone vs. Bupropion, Clonidine vs. Clonazepam, Prednisone vs. Prednisolone
Medication Reconciliation
- Occurs at admission, transfer, and discharge
- Compare current meds with new prescriptions
- Resolve discrepancies before administering
Intravenous (IV) Therapy
- IV Medication Administration: Peripheral IV (short-term), Central IV (long-term), Continuous Infusion, IV Bolus, Piggyback
- Safe IV Medication Administration: Monitor for complications (infiltration, extravasation, phlebitis, fluid overload)
Anxiety & Trauma-Related Medications
- Sedative-Hypnotic Anxiolytics (Benzodiazepines): Prototype: Alprazolam, Other: Diazepam, Lorazepam, Clonazepam, Chlordiazepoxide, Clorazepate, Oxazepam
- Purpose: Enhances GABA inhibitory effects
- Uses: GAD, Panic Disorder, Seizures, Insomnia, Alcohol Withdrawal
- Nonbenzodiazepines (Zolpidem, Eszopiclone): Purpose: Enhances GABA, Short-term use for insomnia
- SSRIs for Anxiety Disorders: Prototype: Paroxetine, Other: Sertraline, Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine
Sedative-Hypnotics & Intravenous Anesthetics
- IV Non-Opioid Anesthetics: Barbiturates (Methohexital Sodium), Benzodiazepines (Midazolam, Diazepam, Lorazepam), Other (Propofol, Ketamine)
- Complications: Respiratory and cardiovascular depression, Propofol: High risk for bacterial infection, Ketamine: Risk of hallucinations, mental confusion
Nursing Considerations
- Continuous monitoring of vitals during procedures
- Maintain mechanical ventilation if needed
Medications
- Psychotropic & CNS Drug Study Guide: Mechanism of action, uses, side effects, nursing considerations
- Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs): Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Citalopram, Fluvoxamine
- Mechanism of Action: Inhibits serotonin reuptake
- Uses: Depression, Anxiety disorders, Bulimia Nervosa, Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD)
- Side Effects/S/S: Serotonin Syndrome, Sexual dysfunction, weight gain, etc
- Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs): Duloxetine, Venlafaxine, Desvenlafaxine
- Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs): Amitriptyline, Nortriptyline, Imipramine, Doxepin
- Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs): Nardil, Parnate, Marplan, Selegiline
- Mechanism of Action: Inhibits monoamine oxidase, increasing serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine
- Uses: Treatment-resistant Depression, Atypical Depression, Panic Disorder
- Side Effects (S/S): HYPERTENSIVE CRISIS, Serotonin Syndrome
- Mood Stabilizers: Lithium, Valproate, Carbamazepine, Lamotrigine
- Lithium: Therapeutic range: 0.6-1.2 mEq/L; Toxicity S/S: N/V, Ataxia, Coarse Tremors, Confusion, Seizures
- Valproate (Depakote): Black Box Warning: Hepatotoxicity, Pancreatitis, Teratogenic Risk
- Carbamazepine: Risk for Agranulocytosis (monitor CBC), Steven-Johnson Syndrome
- Lamotrigine: STOP if Rash Develops (Steven-Johnson Syndrome)
Antipsychotics
- First Generation (Typical Antipsychotics): Haloperidol, Chlorpromazine, Side Effects: EPS (Tardive Dyskinesia, Parkinsonism, Akathisia, Dystonia, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome)
- Second Generation (Atypical Antipsychotics): Clozapine, Risperidone, Olanzapine, Quetiapine, Less EPS, but more metabolic effects (weight gain, diabetes, hyperlipidemia)
Anxiolytics
- Benzodiazepines: Alprazolam, Lorazepam, Clonazepam, Diazepam (short term)
- Buspirone: Non-sedating, slow onset (2-4 weeks), NOT for PRN use
- Non-benzos (Z-drugs): Zolpidem, Eszopiclone (less addictive, short term)
CNS Stimulants
- Methylphenidate, Amphetamine (Adderall)
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Description
Test your understanding of pharmacokinetics and the routes of drug administration. This quiz covers key concepts including absorption, distribution, and metabolism of drugs. Determine how various factors influence these processes and their implications in medication administration.
