Pharm Exam 1 Review
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following vaccines is classified as a live vaccine?

  • Hepatitis A vaccine
  • Influenza vaccine
  • Measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine (MMR) (correct)
  • Diphtheria vaccine
  • What is a characteristic of inactivated vaccines compared to live vaccines?

  • They stimulate a stronger immune response.
  • They can replicate in the host.
  • They generally require booster shots. (correct)
  • They contain weakened pathogens.
  • Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine?

  • Rotavirus vaccine
  • Inactivated poliovirus vaccine (correct)
  • Varicella virus vaccine
  • Oral poliovirus vaccine
  • Which vaccine is classified as inactivated?

    <p>Hepatitis B virus vaccine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The herpes zoster vaccine is an example of which type of vaccine?

    <p>Live attenuated vaccine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine is specifically indicated for tuberculosis prevention?

    <p>Bacillus Calmette-Guérin vaccine (BCG) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following vaccines protects against serious bacterial infections caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

    <p>Pneumococcal vaccine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of vaccine is the rabies vaccine?

    <p>Inactivated (killed) vaccine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine is designed to protect against viral encephalitis?

    <p>Japanese encephalitis virus vaccine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine would be recommended to prevent disease from Neisseria meningitidis?

    <p>Meningococcal polysaccharide vaccine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the RSV vaccine protect against?

    <p>Respiratory syncytial virus infections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is bioavailability in the context of oral medications?

    <p>The percentage of a drug that reaches systemic circulation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following vaccines is NOT indicated for bacterial infection prevention?

    <p>RSV vaccine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors does NOT affect drug absorption?

    <p>Volume of distribution (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When considering patient elements that affect prescribing, which factor is most critical?

    <p>Patient's history of medication adherence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccination would be considered for protecting travelers from typhoid fever?

    <p>Typhoid vaccine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do CYP-450 enzymes play in pharmacology?

    <p>They catalyze the metabolism of drugs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the first-pass effect?

    <p>It describes the metabolism of drugs after oral administration before reaching systemic circulation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In terms of therapeutics, which aspect of pharmacogenomics is crucial for prescribers?

    <p>The influence of genetics on drug metabolism and response. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes agonists from antagonists in pharmacology?

    <p>Agonists activate receptors, antagonists block them. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine is specifically designed to prevent pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

    <p>Pneumococcal Vaccine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine is an inactivated vaccine aimed at preventing hepatitis B?

    <p>Hepatitis B Virus Vaccine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of the Human Papillomavirus Vaccine (HPV)?

    <p>To reduce the risk of cervical cancer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine targets a virus that can lead to serious complications in young children, especially in respiratory illnesses?

    <p>Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) Vaccine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine is commonly administered to provide immunization against tetanus, diphtheria, and whooping cough?

    <p>Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Acellular Pertussis Vaccine (DTaP) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of vaccination is primarily used for preventing measles, mumps, and rubella?

    <p>Live attenuated vaccine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common adverse reaction associated with the MMR vaccine?

    <p>Soreness at the injection site (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following vaccinations is contraindicated in individuals with a history of severe allergic reactions to neomycin?

    <p>Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of the Herpes Zoster vaccine?

    <p>To prevent shingles in older adults (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following vaccines is not a live attenuated vaccine?

    <p>MCV4 (Meningococcal Conjugate Vaccine) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age is it recommended to receive the MMR vaccine for the first time?

    <p>12 months (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the RotaTeq vaccine administered?

    <p>Oral administration (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccines are combined in the MMRV vaccine?

    <p>Measles, Mumps, Rubella, and Varicella (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Overall Exam Information

    • Pharm Exam 1 material covered.
    • Important concepts from previous classes.
    • Knowledge of mechanisms of action, contraindications, and maximum dosages for various treatments.
    • Understanding of how to monitor treatment effectiveness.
    • Knowledge of vaccine schedules and special circumstances.
    • Yearly vaccines and relevant details for each.

    Bioavailability

    • Extent of a drug reaching its site of action.
    • Oral administration is affected by food, gastric motility.
    • First absorbed by GI tract, then the liver before systemic circulation.
    • First pass effect: liver may significantly reduce bioavailability.
    • IV administration bypasses the liver, thus leading to complete bioavailability.

    Prescribing by APRNs

    • Assessing patient history and allergies.
    • Understanding dietary intake and pregnancy/lactation status.
    • Identifying all current medications and supplements.
    • Considering national and local prescribing guidelines.
    • Determining appropriate prescriptions based on the specific patient.
    • Knowledge of the role of the APRN in prescribing process.

    Regulations and Regulators

    • Oklahoma NPs can prescribe schedule III-V controlled substances.
    • Schedule II controlled substances cannot be prescribed by NPs.
    • Prescriptions are limited to one month for schedule III-V and cannot be refilled by the NP. 
    • Schedule III-V controlled substances can be called in similar to other prescriptions.
    • Prescriptions must be issued for legitimate medical purpose and written in ink.
    • DEA number must be included in prescriptions.
    • No prescribing for oneself or family members.

    Factors affecting absorption

    • Distribution, concentration of drugs.
    • Rates of distribution vary in the body.
    • Half-life of a drug in the body. 
    • Factors modifying drug actions, co-administration of other drugs. 
    • Age impacts pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. 
    • Elderly may respond differently to medications.

    Gut Microbiome

    • Gut microbiota – the community of microbes in the gut.
    • Microbiome can impact drug metabolism.
    • Plays a role in drug therapy – examples include treatment with fecal transplants or probiotics.
    • Drug effects on microbiome – examples include antibiotics, PPIs, metformin.

    Patient Elements affecting Prescribing

    • Drug Excretion
    • Routes of excretion (biliary, fecal, sweat etc).
    • Renal drug excretion and effects on neonates and adults.
    • Renal function impacts drug elimination
    • Drug excretion is affected by drug properties and patient characteristics.

    Drug Interactions

    • CYP-450 enzymes are important in drug metabolism.
    • Drugs can either inhibit or enhance CYP activity.
    • Understanding CYP interactions can be crucial in avoiding negative drug interactions.
    • Many drug reactions can have varied severity, based on individual differences and drug properties.

    Storage Reservoirs

    • Many drugs bind to proteins (albumin, glycoprotein).
    • Low protein or changes in protein levels can alter drug effect and risk of adverse reactions.
    • Tissues, fat, or bone can act as reservoirs and release drugs gradually.
    • The effect of the storage reservoir.

    Additional Topics (Vaccines, Medications, etc.)

    • Detailed notes on various types of vaccines, including live attenuated and inactivated types
    • Contraindications and important considerations related to vaccine administration in relation to pregnancy, allergies, and other conditions.
    • Details on medications, including mechanisms of action, dosages, and potential adverse effects.
    • Relevant concepts and information regarding opioid use disorder treatment, treatment of substance use disorder, and alcohol use disorder.
    • Expanded information on specific medications for substance use disorders and treatment.
    • Detailed information on marijuana effects, therapeutic uses, and other details.

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    Pharm Exam 1 PDF

    Description

    This quiz covers essential topics from Pharm Exam 1, including drug mechanisms, contraindications, and maximum dosages. Test your knowledge on treatment monitoring and vaccine schedules, as well as special circumstances. It's an essential review for all aspiring APRNs.

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