People and Risk Management

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of the role 'key individuals' play within an authorised user's business?

  • They are central to ensuring that the risks that the business of an authorised user is subjected to are mitigated. (correct)
  • They primarily handle financial audits and reporting to maintain fiscal transparency.
  • They ensure adherence to marketing strategies, focusing on client acquisition and market penetration.
  • They ensure the business is subjected to the lowest possible risks.

According to the requirements across exchanges, which of the following groups MUST meet the fit and proper requirements?

  • All employees of the exchange, regardless of their position or responsibility.
  • Natural shareholders with a minority interest, Assistant Directors, and Junior Traders.
  • Natural shareholders who have a controlling interest, Directors, Compliance Officers, Settlement Officers and Traders. (correct)
  • Only the CEO, CFO, and Board of Directors are required to meet these standards.

Which of the following factors would MOST likely prevent a candidate from complying with the criteria of good character and high business integrity?

  • A history of volunteering in community service and holding a position of trust.
  • Having strong personal relationships with key stakeholders in the industry.
  • A conviction for a criminal offense involving fraud, dishonesty, or market abuse. (correct)
  • Holding multiple professional certifications related to finance and compliance.

Under what circumstances might an authorised user be required to obtain consent before employing an individual, even if that person meets basic qualifications?

<p>When employing someone who was an officer of a member expelled from the exchange. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What PRIMARY role does a Compliance Officer fulfill beyond assisting in adherence to the Act, Exchange Rules and Directives?

<p>Ensuring exchange communication is communicated to relevant staff. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the JSE Rules, what key action MUST a Compliance Officer undertake, supported by the board of directors, to ensure compliance within the member's organization?

<p>Implement resources, systems, and procedures to promote and monitor compliance. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN function of a Settlement Officer in the context of exchange dealings?

<p>Point of contact for exchange in dealing with settlement queries. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An employee who is exercising discretion in managing JSE authorised investments on behalf of clients MUST possess which qualification?

<p>A qualification prescribed in the directives. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who MUST control the primary place of business of a member, according to JSE regulations?

<p>A stockbroker who must be an executive director of the member. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to JSE rules, how quickly MUST a member fill a vacancy for a stockbroker or compliance officer?

<p>Within two months of it having become vacant. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Beyond required resources, what PRIMARY method is used by Authorized Users to comply with risk management requirements?

<p>Implementing and maintaining procedures and technological systems, and systems of internal controls. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the principles and procedures of risk management, records of a member MUST accomplish which of the following?

<p>Allow for prompt disclosure of financial and business information. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST critical aspect of internal control concerning the recording of transactions in equity securities and financial commitments?

<p>They are recorded and are within the scope of authority of the member or the employee acting on behalf of the member. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which measure is MOST essential for minimizing risk to a member or its clients from irregularities, fraud, or error?

<p>Measures that, so far as are reasonably practicable, minimize the risk of loss to the member or its clients. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the AIM of integrating sound risk management principles and procedures into a business's activities?

<p>To align risk management with the company's strategic objectives and operations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Consider a scenario where an authorised user identifies internal control deficiencies that could lead to potential market abuse. What IMMEDIATE action should be prioritised?

<p>Implementing remedial actions to promptly correct the control weaknesses and prevent market abuse. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An exchange identifies that a compliance officer is not adequately enforcing the firm's policies related to AML (Anti-Money Laundering). Which of the following steps BEST reflects the exchange's responsibility in addressing this issue?

<p>Collaborating with the firm to enhance the compliance officer's skills and knowledge, ensuring effective enforcement and understanding of AML policies. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following represents the MOST effective strategy for addressing systemic risk within an authorised user?

<p>Implementing enterprise-wide stress testing to evaluate the impact of adverse scenarios, informing proactive risk mitigation and compliance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What course of action should senior management take if they discover that a Settlement Officer changed settlement dates to improve personal performance metrics?

<p>Implement a code of conduct with strict requirements for ethical behavior, disciplinary actions, and regular training sessions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To what extent does the obligation for ensuring the settlement of transactions in equity securities persist when a member appoints a CSP (controlled clients) or a settlement agent?

<p>The member retains the responsibility for ensuring that the settlement of transactions in equity securities takes place. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST defensible approach for an authorised user to manage the risk of regulatory penalties related to breaches in compliance procedures?

<p>Regularly assessing and enhancing compliance to address evolving regulations and best practices in risk mitigation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Suppose an executive at an authorised user is found to have manipulated financial data to secure a larger bonus. What should be the priority response?

<p>Conducting a thorough investigation into the executive’s actions, reporting the findings to regulatory bodies, and implementing appropriate disciplinary measures. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST effective approach to monitoring and preventing insider trading within a member organisation?

<p>Restricting access to sensitive information on a need-to-know basis and actively monitoring employee trades for suspicious activities. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should a member firm manage the risk of cyberattacks and data breaches that expose sensitive client information?

<p>Investing in advanced cybersecurity measures and regularly testing systems for vulnerabilities. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can an organisation BEST maintain a culture of compliance and ethical behavior over time?

<p>Making ethical behavior a cornerstone of its operations, which includes ongoing training, robust monitoring, and consistent enforcement of its code of conduct. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An organisation outsources a critical business function to a third-party vendor. How should ongoing risk be MOST effectively managed?

<p>Regularly assessing and monitoring the vendor's performance including their adherence to compliance and security standards. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A member firm's compliance system detects unusually large transactions conducted by an employee shortly before major news announcements. What should be the MOST appropriate NEXT response?

<p>Conducting an immediate investigation into the transactions to detect potential insider trading. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the BEST way for a firm to ensure that it adapts effectively to changes in regulations and compliance requirements?

<p>Proactively monitoring regulation changes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What long-term strategy would BEST support an Authorized User in addressing increasing complexity and volume of regulatory data reporting?

<p>Investing in automated reporting tools and processes to streamline data collection, validation, and submission. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is the BEST response to a high stress employee who is threatening to act against compliance standards?

<p>Offering personal time off and a supportive discussion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY reason that businesses must disclose conflicts of interest?

<p>For transparency with the business and its clients. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the BEST approach to prevent data breaches?

<p>Securing systems with high-grade encryption. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY importance of documenting risk assessments?

<p>They serve as a record of all risks and make tracking mitigation progress easier. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How would an Authorized User BEST respond when an employee reports a potential problem?

<p>By immediately taking action to address the concern or problem. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between a compliance department and the internal audit department?

<p>A compliance department makes policies where an internal audit department finds problems. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Purpose of 'People and Risk Management'

Ensuring individuals in management positions, officers, or those who control an authorised user meet specific criteria.

Fit and Proper Requirements

Requirement across exchanges for natural shareholders, directors, compliance officers to meet standards of integrity and capability.

Qualities for Key Positions

Having full legal capacity, not being insolvent, and meeting criteria for good character and high business integrity.

Determining Good Character

Assessing whether a candidate has been involved in criminal activities, dishonesty, or market abuse.

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Compliance Officer's Function

Assisting the authorised user ensuring compliance with the Act, exchange rules, and directives.

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Compliance Officer's Role

Implementing resources, systems, and procedures to promote and monitor compliance within a member organization.

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Settlement Officer’s Function

Point of contact for exchange when dealing with settlement queries.

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Securing Settlement

Ensuring settlement procedures are followed and necessary actions are taken to secure settlement.

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Settlement Responsibility

Member retains responsibility for ensuring settlement despite appointing a CSP.

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JSE Rule 4.50 Investment

No employee may manage investments or provide advice without proper qualifications.

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Control of Primary Business

Primary place of business must be controlled by an executive director who is a stockbroker.

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Control of a Branch Office

Branch office must be under control of a stockbroker in full-time employment.

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Control of an Agency Office

Agency can be controlled by a stockbroker or a qualified compliance officer.

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Risk Management

Authorised users must comply with risk management requirements for effective business.

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Efficient Business

Business carried on in an orderly and efficient manner.

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Reliable Information

Financial information used in an entity must be reliable.

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Equity Securities

equity securities must be recorded and within scope of authority.

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Procedures to safeguard assets

Procedures should safeguard the assets of the member and to control liabilities.

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Risk of loss

Risk of loss to the member or the member's clients must be minimised.

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Appropriate cover level

Members must ensure they have appropriate levels of insurance cover which are commensurate with the members business model.

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Market Abuse

Risk of members or its client abusing the market must be managed and mitigated

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Risk management principles.

Apply sound risk management principles and procedures appropriate to business activities

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Records to be maintained.

Records of the member are maintained to allow financial and business information.

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Risk exposure

Identify, control and manage risk exposures of the member.

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Making decisions

Make timely and informed business decisions.

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Members assets

Monitor the members performance and aspects of the business.

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Study Notes

Purpose of People and Risk Management

  • Individuals in management positions or who control an authorised user must fulfill certain requirements as per the Act.
  • Proper roles of authorised user officers are explored.
  • Key individuals are essential for risk mitigation.
  • Internal controls should be implemented within an authorised user's business to mitigate risks.

Fit and Proper Requirements

  • Natural shareholders with controlling interest, directors, compliance officers, settlement officers, and traders must meet fit and proper requirements across exchanges.
  • Fit and proper requirements ensure individuals are beyond reproach through due diligence.
  • Individuals must have full legal capacity, not be un-rehabilitated insolvent, and fulfill criteria of good character and high business integrity to be employed.
  • Criteria taken into account to determine good character and business integrity include:
    • Conviction of criminal offenses involving fraud, theft, dishonesty, or market abuse.
    • Being held civilly or administratively liable for fraud, theft, dishonesty, or market abuse.
    • Contravention of legislation regarding market abuse, money laundering, or terrorist financing.
    • Disqualification from acting as a company director.
    • Subject of formal investigation by regulatory or government agency.
    • Expulsion from any exchange.
    • Association with an authorised user expelled from an exchange.
    • Declaration as a defaulter on the JSE or any other exchange.
    • Refusal of entry or expulsion from a profession, dismissal, or resignation request.
    • Refusal or involuntary withdrawal of approval by a regulatory authority.
  • Consent is required if an authorised user employs a person meeting specific criteria.
  • Consent may be limited and withdrawn with one calendar month's notice.
  • Criteria where consent is needed includes:
    • Being an officer of a member expelled from the exchange.
    • Refusal of admission to or expulsion from the Institute.
    • Refusal of approval to operate as a financial services provider or authorised representative under the FAIS Act.
    • Expulsion from any other exchange.
    • Being an un-rehabilitated insolvent, declared a defaulter, or convicted of dishonesty-related crimes.

Compliance Officers and Function

  • Compliance officers assist in ensuring compliance with the Act, Exchange Rules, and Directives.
  • They report breaches of the Act or Rules and communicate exchange information to staff.
  • Must be qualified by exams and maintain knowledge.
  • Compliance officers are required for admittance to the relevant Exchange.
  • In their absence, a senior employee fulfills the role for a limited time and must meet fit and proper requirements.
  • Compliance Officer must implement resources, systems, and procedures to promote compliance under JSE Rules (4.30.2).

Settlement Officers and Function (JSE)

  • Settlement Officers act as a point of contact for exchange settlement queries.
  • They ensure procedures are in place and action is taken to secure settlement.
  • Advise the exchange of any settlement issues and must be qualified by exams and maintain knowledge.
  • Settlement officers are admittance requirement for relevant Exchange.
  • In absence, a senior employee fills for a limited time and must meet fit and proper requirements.
  • Alternative Settlement Officers have the same requirements and responsibilities.
  • Members still have responsibility for equity security transactions even when appointing a CSP or settlement agent.

Qualifications

  • Employees cannot manage JSE authorized investments or advise on buying/selling without proper qualifications as stated in the directives per JSE Rule 4.50.

Control of offices as required by the JSE (4.60)

  • The primary place of business must be controlled by a stockbroker who is an executive director.
  • Branch offices need control by a full-time employed stockbroker.
  • Agency offices need a full-time employed stockbroker or a qualified compliance officer (Rule 4.30.1).
  • Primary places and branch offices of CSPs not authorized to provide trading services may be controlled by a qualified compliance officer.
  • Vacant stockbroker or compliance officer positions must be filled within two months, subject to Director Surveillance discretion (Rules 4.60.1 to 4.60.4).
  • The person in charge of a member's business place must reside in the area where that business is located.

Internal Control and Risk Management

  • Authorised users must meet risk management requirements for effective business operations.
  • This involves maintaining resources, procedures, technological systems, and internal controls.
  • The business should be carried out efficiently
  • Financial and other information should be reliable. All member transactions should be recorded.
  • Procedures to safeguard assets and to control liabilites
  • Appropriate levels of insurance cover.
  • Market abuse should be managed and procedures put in place for this.

Principles and Procedures of risk management

  • Records are maintained to allow disclosure of financial and business information and enable the member to monitor the quality of the member's assets.
  • Records assist to identify, quantify, control and manage the risk exposures of the member and enable them to make informed business decisions
  • Records allow for monitoring the capital to ensure compliance and assist in monitoring the performance and all aspects of the business of the member

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