Pediatrics Paper 2 - 2024 June
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Questions and Answers

Which condition is associated with the highest risk of adverse outcomes from infective endocarditis (IE)?

  • Prosthetic cardiac valve (correct)
  • Previous episodes of pneumonia
  • Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
  • Controlled hypertension
  • What is the most common causative organism of endocarditis linked to dental and oral procedures?

  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Enterococcus faecalis
  • Streptococcus viridans (correct)
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • What is the recommended standard prophylactic regimen for endocarditis?

  • Continuous intravenous line of vancomycin
  • A single dose of oral clindamycin
  • Two doses of oral azithromycin
  • A single dose of oral amoxicillin (correct)
  • Which of the following patients is NOT considered at high risk for developing infective endocarditis?

    <p>A patient with a prosthetic limb</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which congenital heart defect requires careful consideration in the context of endocarditis prophylaxis?

    <p>Unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of endocarditis, which device placement requires prophylaxis consideration during the first six months?

    <p>Left atrial appendage occlusion device</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is typically included in the pharmacological treatment for ventricular fibrillation when epinephrine is ineffective?

    <p>Amiodarone 300 mg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of antibiotic regimens for endocarditis prophylaxis?

    <p>To direct treatment toward Streptococcus viridans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary route of administration for adrenaline in a pediatric emergency setting?

    <p>Intravenous/ Intraosseous</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct initial dose of adrenaline for a child in an emergency situation?

    <p>10 mcg/kg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is recommended for rate control in a patient with atrial fibrillation after initial treatment?

    <p>Bisoprolol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a patient has a DVT with low hemoglobin and ferritin, which follow-up investigation is suggested next?

    <p>Colonoscopy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a patient presenting with erythematous and swollen leg lesions post insect bite, what is the best antibiotic choice?

    <p>Cefuroxime</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What antihyperglycemic medication should be added to a patient's regimen if they have a high HbA1C while on metformin and sitagliptin?

    <p>Empagliflozin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is associated with pyoderma gangrenosum?

    <p>Crohn's disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum single dose of adrenaline that can be administered to a pediatric patient?

    <p>1 mg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended prophylaxis for a man with a known bicuspid aortic valve and mitral valve regurgitation before a dental procedure?

    <p>No prophylaxis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions would require antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis before a dental procedure?

    <p>Previous history of infective endocarditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is true regarding antibiotic prophylaxis for dental procedures?

    <p>Patients with congenital heart conditions may require prophylaxis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about infective endocarditis prophylaxis is accurate?

    <p>Patients with implanted cardiac devices require prophylaxis based on risk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is there no prophylaxis necessary for the man with a bicuspid aortic valve and mitral regurgitation?

    <p>He is asymptomatic and no complications are present.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of heart valve condition typically requires antibiotic prophylaxis during dental procedures?

    <p>History of rheumatic fever with valve damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is considered when assessing the necessity for antibiotic prophylaxis before dental work?

    <p>Presence of congenital heart disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of antibiotic therapy is typically not indicated for prophylaxis in dental procedures?

    <p>Doxycycline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Pediatrics (Paper 2 - 2024 June)

    • Congenital rubella is a complication of mother having acute infection during pregnancy.
    • Major complications include intrauterine growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, cataracts, mental retardation, sensorineural hearing loss, heart abnormalities (PDA, pulmonary stenosis), and thrombocytopenic purpura.
    • Large for gestational age is not a complication of congenital rubella.
    • Right axis deviation is expected on an ECG for a secundum atrial septal defect (ASD).
    • ASD's types include: ostium secundum, sinus venosus, and ostium primum.
    • Kawasaki disease diagnostic criteria include fever for five days and four of five clinical features: changes in the oral cavity and lips, polymorhpous rash, bilateral conjunctivitis, changes in the extremities & cervical lymphadenopathy.
    • In Kawasaki disease, generalized lymphadenopathy is less than 2cm.
    • Proteinuria is important for determining long-term prognosis of HSP.
    • Clinical features of HSP include rash, joint pain (arthritis), abdominal pain, and kidney impairment.
    • Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) involves rash, palpable purpura, symmetric appearance, and, often, arthritis in 75% of cases.
    • Treatment for HSP includes NSAIDs and, in severe cases, steroids, dapsone, or colchicine, with IV immunoglobulins if needed, along with immunosuppressive medications.
    • A 8-year-old child with a generalized tonic-clonic seizure and an unarousable state following seizure and a chest/limb rash, suggests meningoencephalitis.
    • Simple febrile seizure lasts less than 15 minutes.
    • Complex febrile seizures last more than 15 minutes, occur more than once in 24 hours, and are often associated previously diagnosed seizure problems.
    • A 2 year old child with sores on the hands and feet most likely has scabies.
    • Scabies is an infestation caused by mites. Typical symptoms of scabies include sores, bumps, and scabs in the finger and wrist area.
    • Coxsackie A viral infection can cause a rash on hands and feet.

    Other topics (Paper 2 - 2024 June)

    • A 12-year-old boy exhibiting disruptive behavior in school, possibly due to lead poisoning, may present with altered mental status and syncope.
    • Elevated lead levels may be associated with distal motor neuropathy (wrist/foot drop).
    • Kawasaki disease is characterized by fever and rash, requiring treatment with high-dose IV immunoglobulin and aspirin.
    • A 14-year-old girl experiencing delayed puberty and short stature may have Turner syndrome.
    • Vomiting blood (coffee-ground emesis) in an infant, without other significant symptoms or complications, might be caused by swallowed blood from cracked nipples.
    • Symptoms of a Mallory-Weiss tear include profuse vomiting and forceful retching, often presenting with upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
    • Boerhaave syndrome, or esophageal rupture, is characterized by chest pain, vomiting, subcutemaneous emphysema.
    • Elevated serum ACEs and bilateral hilar adenopathy in a 2-year-old are likely suggestive of sarcoidosis.
    • A 1 week old baby with vomiting blood (coffee-ground emesis) and normal physical exam or blood tests. is likely caused by blood swallowed from cracked nipples.

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    Description

    This quiz covers various pediatric topics including congenital rubella, atrial septal defects, and Kawasaki disease. It focuses on the complications, diagnostic criteria, and clinical features associated with these conditions. Test your knowledge and understanding of key pediatric concepts relevant for the Paper 2 exam.

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