Pathology Quiz on Cell Injury and Necrosis
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Questions and Answers

Which organ is primarily composed of Permanent Parenchymal cells?

  • Bone Marrow
  • Liver (correct)
  • Renal Tubules
  • Small Intestinal Mucosa

    • What type of necrosis is primarily associated with Acute Pancreatitis?

  • Coagulation
  • Fat (correct)
  • Liquefaction
  • Gummatous

    • The transformation of Columnar Epithelium of the Bronchi into Mature Squamous Epithelium is termed:

  • Metaplasia (correct)
  • Hyperplasia
  • Dysplasia
  • Neoplasia

    • Which condition is characterized by an increase in calcium deposition as a result of hypercalcemia?

    <p>Metastatic calcification</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key feature indicating Irreversible Cell Injury?

    <p>Karyorrhexis of nuclei</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What breast process allows a mother to successfully breastfeed her infant?

    <p>Lobular hyperplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of necrosis is indicated by black discoloration of an amputated limb accompanied by yellowish exudates?

    <p>Gangrenous necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Focal fat necrosis with chalky tan-white material in the omentum is most commonly linked with:

    <p>Acute pancreatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process is most likely to correlate with lipofuscin deposition in cells?

    <p>Autophagocytosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cellular alteration is a definitive indicator of irreversible cell injury?

    <p>Nuclear pyknosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is best known for protecting against oxidative stress in cells?

    <p>Glutathione Peroxidase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Following an occlusion by a sterile thrombus of the left middle cerebral artery, what is the most probable pathological consequence?

    <p>Pale infarction with coagulative necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Putrefactive bacteria acting on necrotic tissue can lead to which of the following outcomes?

    <p>Gangrene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which form of necrosis is primarily related to ischaemic tissue damage?

    <p>Coagulation necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does calcium play in cellular injury mechanisms?

    <p>Activating phospholipases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A common manifestation of reversible cell injury in organs like the liver is predominantly characterized by:

    <p>Fatty change</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An area of keratinizing squamous epithelium in a bronchus exemplifies which pathological term?

    <p>Metaplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of necrosis is most closely associated with enzymatic fat necrosis?

    <p>Liquefaction necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Each of the following can be classified as hyperplasia except:

    <p>Atrophy of muscle tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Apoptosis can be characterized by which of the following features?

    <p>Programmed cell death</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following enzyme systems contributes to the inactivation of free radicals?

    <p>Both A and B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The primary event associated with early nuclear chromatin clumping is indicative of:

    <p>Acidosis and imminent cell death</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a harmful effect of acute inflammation?

    <p>Swelling of tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily contributes to the high protein content of inflammatory exudates?

    <p>Increased capillary permeability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cell is predominantly found in the sputum of an asthmatic child?

    <p>Eosinophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Phagocytosis is most effectively enhanced by which of the following?

    <p>Opsonins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cells are primarily involved in the organization phase of tissue repair?

    <p>Endothelial cells and fibroblasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the microcirculation is most affected by permeability changes during acute inflammation?

    <p>Capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chronic inflammation is primarily characterized by the presence of which cells?

    <p>Plasma cells and lymphocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about macrophages is incorrect?

    <p>They are primarily derived from tissue eosinophils.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is typically true of exudates?

    <p>Has a high protein content</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The most critical factor in the formation of acute inflammatory exudates is?

    <p>Increased Vascular Permeability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Increased vascular permeability during inflammation is primarily caused by which mechanism?

    <p>Both A &amp; B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Infertility and short stature in a woman with a 45x karyotype are typical of which condition?

    <p>Turner Syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which chromosomal abnormality is associated with Down Syndrome?

    <p>Trisomy 21</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Mutations in mitochondrial genes are primarily inherited from which parent?

    <p>Mother</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes the process of regeneration?

    <p>Involves healing through stromal element proliferation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT known to delay the healing of damaged tissue?

    <p>Adequate nutrition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which conditions require both regeneration and connective tissue repair?

    <p>Both A and B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes neurogenic, septic, and cardiogenic shock?

    <p>Peripheral vasodilation occurs at onset</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypovolemic shock?

    <p>Obstructive lung disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After prolonged hypotensive shock, which tissue is most likely to withstand ischemia?

    <p>Skeletal muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of shock is most commonly associated with severe burns?

    <p>Hypovolemic shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is NOT a characteristic of thrombi?

    <p>Always cause complete vascular occlusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor does NOT predispose a patient to thrombosis?

    <p>Thrombocytopenia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes fat emboli in medical conditions?

    <p>Fracture of the femur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    All of the following are associated with thrombosis except:

    <p>Hemophilia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true regarding venous thrombi?

    <p>Often occur due to stasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following does NOT promote fracture healing?

    <p>Steroid therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Paradoxical emboli are mainly caused by:

    <p>Interatrial or interventricular defects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is primarily responsible for gangrene of the lower extremities?

    <p>Diabetes Mellitus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered NOT a feature of reversible cell injury?

    <p>Pyknotic Nucleus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes the color change seen in gangrene?

    <p>Breakdown of hemoglobin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature is characteristic of collagen necrosis?

    <p>Complete loss of architecture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about apoptosis is incorrect?

    <p>It induces a severe inflammatory reaction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How might calcium contribute to cell injury?

    <p>By activating phospholipases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT considered an irreversible cellular change?

    <p>Hydropic Change</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which necrosis type is ghost outlines of cells commonly seen?

    <p>Coagulative Necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant characteristic of reperfusion injury?

    <p>Generation of reactive oxygen species</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process is primarily responsible for fatty change in liver cells?

    <p>Dystrophy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following substances is NOT associated with abnormal pigmentation?

    <p>Hyperlipidemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary feature of necrotic cell death regarding nuclear changes?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about dystrophic calcification is FALSE?

    <p>It is reversible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit squamous metaplasia?

    <p>Renal Pelvis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is most likely to occur following a stroke due to loss of blood supply to a lobe of the brain?

    <p>Pale infarction with coagulative necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition best demonstrates dystrophic calcification?

    <p>Granuloma in pulmonary tuberculosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cellular change is the strongest indicator of irreversible cellular injury?

    <p>Nuclear pyknosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The presence of differentiated columnar epithelium with goblet cells in the lower esophagus is indicative of which condition?

    <p>Metaplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hypertrophy can be observed in which of the following situations?

    <p>Uterine myometrium during pregnancy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is most likely to result in metaplasia?

    <p>Vitamin A deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is typically deposited in the myocardium with aging?

    <p>Lipochrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tissue is least likely to be affected by ischemia?

    <p>Skeletal muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Amputation of a diabetic foot is most likely to present with which type of necrosis?

    <p>Gangrenous necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of necrosis is characterized by amoeboid fragments and granular debris?

    <p>Liquefactive necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the loss of a cell through fragmentation of the nucleus?

    <p>Apoptosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of necrosis appears grossly opaque and 'chalk' white?

    <p>Caseous necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cellular process is associated with high workload leading to an increase in size?

    <p>Hypertrophy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which duration post-myocardial infarction is indicative of necrotic muscle and neutrophils on histology?

    <p>Two days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of infarction of the spleen?

    <p>Arterial Embolism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is most responsible for promoting healing in myocardial infarction?

    <p>VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of red infarcts?

    <p>Appear in the Intestine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which biomarker is most significant in the diagnosis of early acute myocardial infarction?

    <p>Troponin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors is NOT a major risk factor for atherosclerosis?

    <p>Frequent exercise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organs are less susceptible to infarction due to their dual blood supply?

    <p>Liver and Kidney</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cell type is primarily targeted by HIV?

    <p>CD4+ T cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Asthma is classified as which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

    <p>Type I hypersensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for acute graft rejection?

    <p>Type IV hypersensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is NOT true?

    <p>It predominantly affects males</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following indicates a neoplasm is likely malignant?

    <p>Invasion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which infectious agent can transform tissue macrophages into epitheloid cells?

    <p>Mycobacterium leprae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a scenario where a 76-year-old woman has a swollen leg followed by a femoral fracture, which complication is most likely?

    <p>Pulmonary Thromboembolism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What substance generated by inflammatory cells is crucial for clearing microorganisms in an inflammatory focus?

    <p>Hydrogen Peroxide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Acute Pulmonary Oedema due to heart failure primarily results from which of the following?

    <p>Increased Vascular Hydrostatic Pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is most closely associated with the development of noncaseating granulomas?

    <p>Sarcoidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common feature of benign tumors?

    <p>Infiltrate Adjacent Cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature is typically NOT associated with renal cell carcinoma?

    <p>Originating from the glomeruli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The presence of crescents in renal pathology is most associated with which condition?

    <p>Fibrin Leakage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Low serum complement levels are indicative of which conditions?

    <p>Both Systemic Lupus Nephritis and Acute Post-streptococcal nephritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT typically a predisposing factor for pyelonephritis?

    <p>Pulmonary Hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which chemical carcinogen is derived from a fungus and is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?

    <p>Aflatoxin B1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Papillary necrosis is most commonly associated with which condition?

    <p>Analgesic Abuse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature is NOT characteristic of amoebic liver abscess?

    <p>Always presence of jaundice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following does NOT cause hypokalaemia?

    <p>Addison's Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Dense deposits disease is most closely associated with which condition?

    <p>Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type II</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disease complication is NOT associated with Plasmodium falciparum malaria?

    <p>Severe Gastroenteritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which leukocyte is primarily responsible for significant phagocytosis during inflammation?

    <p>Neutrophil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Amyloid is NOT true?

    <p>Is of AA type in Multiple Myeloma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mediator is most closely associated with increasing vascular permeability in acute inflammation?

    <p>Histamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Granuloma formation is most commonly linked to which of the following triggers?

    <p>Persistent irritants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following cells is involved in the chronic inflammatory response and helps in tissue organization?

    <p>Fibroblasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of exudate is typically characterized by the presence of pus?

    <p>Purulent exudate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mediator of fever is released by macrophages during inflammation?

    <p>Interleukin-1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the predominant cell type found in a purulent exudate?

    <p>Neutrophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In chronic inflammation, which cells are primarily responsible for forming multinucleated giant cells?

    <p>Macrophages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which options represent common characteristics of granulation tissue?

    <p>High collagen matrix and new capillary formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme pathway is responsible for the formation of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid?

    <p>Cyclooxygenase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process primarily drives the accumulation of neutrophils in an inflammatory response?

    <p>Chemotaxis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cell type is typically involved in the resolution phase of inflammation?

    <p>Fibroblasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these characteristics is typically associated with acute inflammation?

    <p>Vascular changes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The tumor of inflammation is primarily attributed to which process?

    <p>Capillary Dilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is least likely to be associated with Cachexia?

    <p>Hypoplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a primary characteristic of Granuloma formation?

    <p>Cerebral Malaria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which disease would you expect to see Gummas most frequently?

    <p>Syphilis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is least associated with Acute effects of Ionizing Radiation?

    <p>Leukemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is essential in diagnosing Primary stage of Syphilis?

    <p>Dark ground illumination smear</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Bilharzial Portal Hypertension, what complication is NOT typically seen early on?

    <p>Hepatic Failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which histological feature is least likely to be found in a sarcoid lesion?

    <p>Caseous Necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the early bacteraemic phase of Typhoid Fever, which of the following is considered the most reliable diagnostic method?

    <p>Blood Culture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature is uncommon in Lepromatous Leprosy?

    <p>Spontaneous recovery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following features is NOT associated with visceral leishmaniasis?

    <p>Jaundice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which finding is NOT typical of pulmonary tuberculosis?

    <p>Always disseminates to the pleura</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which complication does NOT arise from Acute Renal Failure?

    <p>Hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of cancer, which of the following is least associated with tumor necrosis factor (TNF)?

    <p>Inhibition of immune response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature is not typically observed in amoebic liver abscess?

    <p>Constant presence of jaundice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition does not typically present with a granuloma?

    <p>Schistosomiasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mediates the formation of epithelioid cells?

    <p>Gamma Interferon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first inflammatory cell to arrive at the site of acute inflammation?

    <p>Neutrophil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about exudate is incorrect?

    <p>It has low protein content.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is recognized as the most powerful chemotactic agent?

    <p>Complement C5a</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would most likely NOT be revealed in a biopsy of acute inflammation?

    <p>Fibrous connective tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mediator is most significant in granulomatous inflammation?

    <p>Interferon gamma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The development of a tuberculous granuloma is primarily dependent on which cell?

    <p>Macrophages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is NOT a component of granulation tissue?

    <p>Hyaline cartilage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is primarily responsible for pain during acute inflammation?

    <p>Prostaglandin and Bradykinin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a foreign body reaction, which cell type is most characteristic?

    <p>Giant cell</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about phagocytosis is false?

    <p>Occurs only in vascular tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does opsonization have in the immune response?

    <p>Coating antigens with antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily causes tumor formation during inflammation?

    <p>Increased extracellular fluid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is NOT a cause of Iron Deficiency Anemia?

    <p>Intra-Vascular Hemolysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is commonly associated with Aplastic crisis in Sickle Cell Anemia?

    <p>Parvovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common causative agent of Osteomyelitis in individuals with Sickle Cell Anemia?

    <p>Salmonella</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Cold Agglutinin Hemolytic Anemia, which type of antibodies are primarily involved?

    <p>Ig M</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hypochromic microcytic red blood cells are primarily associated with which type of anemia?

    <p>Iron Deficiency Anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Lactating mothers are most likely to develop which type of deficiency?

    <p>Iron Deficiency Anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor does NOT stimulate Growth Hormone release?

    <p>Hyperglycemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition does NOT commonly result in Polyuria and Polydipsia?

    <p>Hypocalcemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Addison's Disease, which symptom is least likely to be present?

    <p>Hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature is primarily associated with post hepatic jaundice?

    <p>Elevated Serum Transaminases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic is specifically true about primary tuberculosis?

    <p>It typically affects young children.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which finding is indicative of excessive Growth Hormone in adults?

    <p>Acromegaly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When cercaria penetrate human skin, they transform into which form?

    <p>Schistomulum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic feature of Chagas Disease?

    <p>Dilated Cardiomyopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of amyloid is most commonly associated with long-term hemodialysis?

    <p>B2-Microglobulin amyloid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition does NOT present with an increase in blood sugar levels?

    <p>Addison's Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What hormone is primarily missing in a patient with Diabetes Insipidus?

    <p>Deficient ADH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding the etiology of human carcinogenesis is incorrect?

    <p>Only certain occupational exposures are risk factors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant neoplasms?

    <p>Expansile Growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a result of Aplastic Anemia?

    <p>Increased white blood cell count</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme system is most crucial for the metabolic activation of chemical carcinogens?

    <p>Cytochrome-P450-dependent Monooxygenases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of tumor invasiveness, which factor is unrelated to their capacity for cell invasion?

    <p>Mitotic Rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not recognized as a tumor marker?

    <p>Aflatoxin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of response is associated with tuberculoid leprosy?

    <p>Well developed cell-mediated immune response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a characterizing feature of secondary syphilis?

    <p>Primary Chancre</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is a common test for syphilis?

    <p>VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is true about the transmission of syphilis?

    <p>Can occur through sexual contact and pregnancy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a feature of lepromatous leprosy?

    <p>Production of antibodies to various antigens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is not true regarding Syphilitic Aortic Aneurysm?

    <p>It is primarily caused by bacterial infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is most commonly associated with Snail Track Ulcers?

    <p>Schistosomal Dermatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is commonly associated with which of the following conditions?

    <p>Sarcoidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Schistosomal Portal Hypertension is false?

    <p>It does not present with Caput Medusa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Eosinophilia in Schistosomiasis is primarily stimulated by which factor?

    <p>TH2 inducing IL-4 and IL-5 production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Late complications of urinary schistosomiasis most likely include which of the following?

    <p>Carcinoma of Urinary Bladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ionizing Radiation primarily affects which tissue type the most?

    <p>Bone Marrow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tissue is most commonly impacted by Sarcoidosis?

    <p>The Lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following features is typical of benign tumors?

    <p>They are encapsulated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flask-shaped ulcers are primarily associated with which infectious disease?

    <p>Amoebiasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary pathological finding in Immune-Complex Glomerulonephritis?

    <p>Presence of immune complexes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is linked with inflammation and ulceration of Peyer's patches?

    <p>Intestinal Tuberculosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with Sickle Cell Trait?

    <p>High incidence of sickle cell crises</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Deposition of Amyloid AL is associated with which of the following conditions?

    <p>Multiple Myeloma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of activation of a chemical procarcinogen?

    <p>Formation of a reactive metabolite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is a common complication of Typhoid Fever?

    <p>Intestinal perforation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immune complex disease is most recognized?

    <p>Rheumatoid Arthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fibrosis that follows Ionizing Radiation is primarily due to which mechanism?

    <p>All of the Above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic feature is associated with Sarcoidosis?

    <p>Asteroid bodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a known risk factor for developing squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

    <p>Skin type I</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What finding in the blood is associated with acute hemopoetic syndrome following ionizing radiation?

    <p>Lymphopenia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following surgical diseases is characterized by the presence of Asteroid bodies?

    <p>Sarcoidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following diagnostic tests is least likely to be effective in detecting Typhoid Fever?

    <p>Urine analysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tumor is most strongly associated with prolonged exposure to UV light?

    <p>Basal cell carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What abnormality is primarily linked to chronic Hepatotoxicity from chemical carcinogens?

    <p>Liver fibrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a feature of Chronic Granulomatous Disease?

    <p>Diabetes mellitus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which malignancy is often associated with chronic exposure to asbestos?

    <p>Mesothelioma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which property of Sickle Cells specifically protects individuals from contracting Malaria?

    <p>Faster clearance of cells by the spleen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cell is most commonly infected in the Central Nervous System by HIV?

    <p>Astrocyte</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not characteristic of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)?

    <p>Hypercalcemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Sandy patches can be observed in which of the following conditions?

    <p>Urinary Bladder Schistosomiasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which substance cannot be detected using a standard urine dip stick analysis?

    <p>Ova of Bilharzia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is incorrect?

    <p>Haptoglobin levels are elevated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is least likely to increase susceptibility to infection by Tubercle Bacilli?

    <p>Asthma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Amyloid deposits in the kidney are primarily associated with which condition?

    <p>Nephrotic Syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which finding is most indicative of Acromegaly?

    <p>High Plasma Levels of Somatomedins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a typical feature of Acute Diffuse Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis?

    <p>Antiglomerular Basement Membrane Deposits</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medium is specifically used for the laboratory growth of Mycobacterium leprae?

    <p>Lowenston-Johnson Medium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tumor is least likely to metastasize?

    <p>Skin Basal Cell Carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not typically associated with Cardiovascular Syphilis?

    <p>Pulmonary Hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is considered a specific test for Syphilis?

    <p>TPI Test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Bilateral Hilar Lymphadenopathy Lung involvement by Non-Caseating Granuloma is characteristically associated with which condition?

    <p>Sarcoidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the hallmarks of Syphilis?

    <p>Both A and C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A Psoas Cold Abscess is most likely to occur in which condition?

    <p>Tuberculosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following features is characteristic of Post Primary (Secondary) Tuberculosis?

    <p>Can occur due to reactivation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is a commonly recognized portal of entry for Lepra Bacilli?

    <p>Skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which syndrome is there defective conjugation of bilirubin?

    <p>Rotor Syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is NOT a cause of Secondary Immunodeficiency?

    <p>DiGeorge's Syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of amyloid is associated with chronic inflammation?

    <p>AA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does amyloid material appear under polarized light after staining with Congo Red?

    <p>Apple Green Birefringence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Sickle Cell Anemia follows which mode of inheritance?

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    What is a complication that may arise from Cardiogenic Shock?

    <p>Acute Tubular Necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tumor is most likely to develop due to the loss of a Tumor Suppressor Gene?

    <p>Retinoblastoma of the Eye</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a 30-year-old female with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), which feature is most likely to be present?

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    Which of the following is a recognized cause of Lymphopenia?

    <p>HIV Infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Ghon Focus is primarily associated with which condition?

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    The secretion of Parathyroid Hormone is primarily controlled by which factor?

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    Which condition is most likely to cause enlarged prominent Peyer's Patches?

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    Which statement regarding Post-Primary Pulmonary Tuberculosis is inaccurate?

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    Which of the following conditions is not associated with Schistosomiasis?

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    What is a common feature of Anemia resulting from Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid Deficiency?

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    Which condition is not typically associated with Type AA Amyloid deposition?

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    Which statement about Leprosy antibodies is inaccurate?

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    What feature is not characteristic of Secondary Syphilis?

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    Study Notes

    Pathology MCQs - Study Notes

    • Permanent Parenchymal Cells: Liver cells are an example of permanent parenchymal cells.

    • Acute Pancreatitis Necrosis: Fat necrosis is the type of necrosis seen in peripancreatic tissue during acute pancreatitis.

    • Bronchial Metaplasia: The change of columnar epithelium in bronchi to squamous epithelium is known as metaplasia.

    • Metastatic Calcification: This occurs in necrotic tissue due to hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, and is related to chronic inflammation, not malignancy.

    • Irreversible Cell Injury: Karyorrhexis (nuclear fragmentation) is a feature of irreversible cell injury, not the depletion of glycogen stores, increased cytoplasmic sodium, diminished intracellular pH, or formation of cell membrane blebs.

    • Breast Lactation: Stromal hypertrophy and lobular hyperplasia are processes in the breast that allow the mother to breastfeed.

    • Diabetic Gangrene: An amputated limb exhibiting black discoloration and yellowish exudates in a diabetic patient is characterized as gangrenous necrosis.

    • Focal Fat Necrosis: This finding, often with chalky tan-white material in the omentum, is most commonly associated with acute pancreatitis.

    • Gangrene of Toes: In a 60-year-old male, gangrene of the toes is most commonly associated with diabetes mellitus.

    • Lower Esophageal Metaplasia: The presence of columnar epithelium with goblet cells in the lower esophagus suggests metaplasia.

    • Tuberculous Lymph Node Calcification: Dystrophic calcification explains the calcium deposits in tuberculous lymph nodes.

    • Lipofuscin Deposition: This age-related pigment buildup in myocardial fibers is a result of autophagy.

    • Irreversible vs Reversible Cell Injury: Nuclear pyknosis (nuclear shrinkage) is an indicator of irreversible cell injury, not cytoplasmic fatty change, atrophy, or anaerobic glycolysis.

    • Antioxidant: Glutathione peroxidase and catalase are antioxidants.

    • Left Middle Cerebral Artery Occlusion: Cerebral softening from liquefactive necrosis is most likely.

    • Putrefactive Bacteria and Necrosis: The action of putrefactive bacteria on necrotic tissue results in gangrene, not coagulation, infarction, or embolism.

    • Ischemic Necrosis Type: Coagulative necrosis is most strongly linked to ischemic injury.

    • Free Radical Inactivation Enzymes: Superoxide dismutase and vitamin E both help inactivate free radicals.

    • Hepatocytes: These are stable cells.

    • Calcium in Cell Injury: Calcium plays a role in cell injury by causing ATP depletion and activating phospholipases.

    • Sublethal Cell Injury: Fatty change is a common manifestation of reversible cell injury in the heart and liver.

    • Bronchial Squamous Metaplasia: An area of keratinizing squamous epithelium lining a bronchus is characteristic of metaplasia.

    • Enzymes in Abscess Liquefaction: The enzymes responsible are predominantly from neutrophils.

    • Hyperplasia Exceptions: Skeletal muscle growth after weight training is not an example of hyperplasia.

    • Apoptosis Characteristics: Apoptosis is programmed cell death, occurs in single cells/small clusters, doesn't lead to a cheese-like appearance, and doesn't usually trigger an inflammatory response.

    • Cellular Injury Sensitive Systems: Aerobic respiration, maintenance of cell membrane integrity, protein synthesis, and the integrity of the genetic apparatus are all sensitive to cell injury.

    • Apoptosis and Cellular Targets: Cells infected with viruses, cells with DNA damage, and cells with elevated oxidants can all undergo apoptosis.

    • Definition of Apoptosis: Programmed cell death is a correct description of apoptosis.

    • Hyperplasia Characteristics: Hyperplasia is reversible and can occur because of excess hormone stimulation, but it isn't a precancerous condition.

    • Early Nuclear Change: Early clumping of nuclear chromatin is most associated with decreased DNA synthesis.

    • Enzymatic Fat Necrosis: The digestion of tissue with soap formation and calcification is seen in this type of necrosis.

    • Reversible Cell Injury, Exceptions: Renal tubular cell nuclear pyknosis represents irreversible cell injury, not reversible injury.

    • Cerebral Infarction Consequences: Cerebral softening due to liquefactive necrosis is likely in a stroke with blood vessel blockage.

    • Dystrophic Calcification Examples: A healing granuloma in a person with pulmonary tuberculosis is a good example of dystrophic calcification.

    • Irreversible Cell Injury Evidence: Nuclear pyknosis signifies irreversible cell injury, not epithelial dysplasia, cytoplasmic fatty change, atrophy, or anaerobic glycolysis.

    • Lower Esophageal Columnar Epithelium: The presence of columnar epithelium with goblet cells in the lower esophagus suggests metaplasia.

    • Hypertrophy Examples: The uterine myometrium during pregnancy is a good example of hypertrophy.

    • Metaplasia Causes: Vitamin A deficiency, not sunlight exposure or pregnancy/lactation, is a primary cause of metaplasia.

    • Myocardial Pigment in Aging: Lipofuscin deposition is a common age-related change in the myocardium.

    • Ischemic Tissue Susceptibility: The spleen, not skeletal muscle, small intestinal epithelium, or the retina, is more susceptible to ischemia.

    • Amputated Diabetic Foot: Gangrenous necrosis is the most likely finding.

    • Dystrophic Calcification Association: Necrosis, not hypercalcemia or diminished blood supply, is the most closely associated factor.

    • Calcium Deposition in Tissue: Dystrophic calcification describes calcium deposition in dead or dying tissue.

    • Necrosis Characterization: Caseous necrosis is characterized by amorphous granular debris, not coagulation, liquefaction, fat, or gangrenous necrosis.

    • Calcium Deposition in Tuberculous Nodes: Dystrophic calcification.

    • Liquefactive Necrosis Locations: The brain is the most susceptible tissue to liquefactive necrosis after ischemic injury.

    • Hypoplasia Causes: Inadequate development, not cell loss or atrophy, describes hypoplasia.

    • Loss of Cell Fragmentation: Apoptosis, not Coagulative Necrosis, Mitochondrial Poisoning, or Phagocytosis, is the loss of an individual cell due to fragmentation.

    • Perinuclear Pigment: Lipofuscin is the light brown perinuclear pigment seen in old muscle fibers.

    • Hypertensive Heart Enlargement: Hypertrophy is the term for the heart's enlargement due to hypertension.

    • Gangrene of Toe - Possible Cause: Diabetes Mellitus.

    • Focal Fat Necrosis Cause: Acute Pancreatitis.

    • Cigarette Smoking Effects (Not): Inhibition of alveolar leukocytes and macrophages.

    • Gangrene Cause: Diabetes Mellitus.

    • Reversible Cell Injury - Feature (Not): Pyknotic Nucleus, while reversible, is a late stage change.

    • Gangrene Color Change: Breakdown of hemoglobin.

    • Irreversible Cell Injury - Feature (Not): Increased DNA synthesis.

    • Coliquative Necrosis Features: It results in the complete loss of tissue architecture in tissues with a high water content.

    • Apoptosis Truths: Apoptosis is programmed cell death requiring cell energy.

    • Apoptosis Roles: Apoptosis targets infected cells, cells with DNA damage, and cells containing excessive oxidants.

    • Calcium Role Summary: Calcium depletion is responsible for initiating harmful cellular processes such as ATP depletion and Phospholipase activation.

    • Irreversible Cellular Changes: Hydropic change, pyknosis, and karyorrhexis.

    • Abnormal Pigmentation Conditions: Pregnancy, not Conn's syndrome, pernicious anemia, tattooing, or Addison's disease, does not normally have abnormal pigmentation.

    • Apoptosis's Inflammatory Reaction: It doesn't trigger a substantial inflammatory reaction.

    • Necrosis Features (Not): Loss of RNA isn't a universally consistent feature.

    • Coagulative Necrosis Exception: The deposition of fibrinolysis, not other listed features; is not a characteristic of this process.

    • Caseous Necrosis Association: Inpissated pus.

    • Atrophy Causes (Not): Increased trophic hormone secretion.

    • Dystrophic Calcification Nature: Irreversible.

    • Irreversible Cellular Change Examples: Karyolysis in myocardial cells, not fatty change, hydropic vacuolization, glycogen deposition, or breast hyperplasia, is irreversible.

    • Metaplasia Sites (Not): Salivary gland ducts, not nose, jejunum, or renal pelvis, are not typical sites of squamous metaplasia.

    • Colliquative Necrosis Locations: The brain.

    • Granulation Tissue Features: Proliferation of fibroblasts and new capillaries.

    • Effective Bacterial Killer in Neutrophils: Conversion of H2O2 to HOCl by myeloperoxidase.

    • Neutrophil Emigration Cause: Chemotaxis.

    • Endothelial Cell Acute Inflammation Marker: E-selectin.

    • Neutrophil-Characteristic Inflammatory Pattern: Acute bacterial infection.

    • Granuloma Epitheloid Cells Origin: Macrophages.

    • Prostaglandin Formation Enzyme: Cyclooxygenase.

    • Abscess Cavity Contents: Pus.

    • Transudate Exceptions: Nephrotic syndrome, not congestive heart failure, superior vena cava obstruction, pericarditis.

    • Granuloma Diagnostic Feature: The presence of epitheloid cells.

    • Non-Granuloma Examples: Staphylococcal infections.

    • Epitheloid Cell Formation Mediator: Gamma interferon.

    • First Inflammatory Cell: Neutrophils.

    • Exudate Features (Not): Low specific gravity.

    • Powerful Chemotactic Agent: Complement C5a.

    • Acute Inflammation Biopsy Findings (Not): Fibrous connective tissue, not other listed features.

    • Granulomatous Inflammation Mediator: Interferon gamma.

    • Acute Chest Infection Finding: Abscess formation.

    • Tuberculous Granuloma Cell: Macrophages.

    • Interstitial Lung Fibrosis Cause: Foreign body giant cell formation.

    • Acute Inflammation Pain Mediator: Prostaglandins and bradykinin.

    • Foreign Body Reaction Cell: Giant cells.

    • Antigen Killing in Phagocytosis: Myeloperoxidase.

    • Phagocytosis Deficiency Cause: Deficiency in C3b.

    • Granulation Tissue Features (Not): Epitheloid cells.

    • Early Granulation Tissue Components: Fibronectin and type III collagen.

    • Apoptosis and Inflammation: Phagocytic cells suppress inflammation during apoptosis.

    • Opsonization Definition: Coating of the antigen with antibodies.

    • Granuloma Feature (Not): Polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

    • Exudate with Eosinophils: Bronchial asthma and parasitic disease.

    • Organization Involvment: Macrophages and endothelial cells, and fibroblasts and endothelial cells.

    • Inflammation Tumor Cause: Capillary dilation.

    • Acute Inflammation Pain Mediator: Bradykinin.

    • Harmfull Effects of Acute Inflammation (Not): Dilution of toxins.

    • Exudate High Protein Cause: Increased vascular permeability.

    • Asthmatic Sputum Finding: Eosinophils.

    • Phagocytosis Enhancer: Osponin and lysozyme.

    • Organization Involvment: Macrophages and endothelial cells, and fibroblasts.

    • Acute Inflammation Permeability Change Focus: Venules.

    • Chronic Inflammation Cell Types: Plasma cells, lymphocytes, fibroblasts, and monocytes.

    • Macrophage Characteristics (Not): Are not the main cells in acute inflammation

    • Exudate Features (Not): Is due to low plasma oncotic pressure.

    • Acute Inflammatory Exudate Formation Key Factor: Increased vascular permeability.

    • Increased Vascular Permeability Cause: Damage to endothelial cells and increased gap size between endothelial cells.

    • Karyorrhexis Definition: Fragmentation of the cell.

    • 45x Karyotype Implications: Turner syndrome.

    • Down Syndrome: Trisomy 21 (extra chromosome 21).

    • Mitochondrial Gene Inheritance: Inherited from the mother.

    • Y-linked Disorders Absence: Affected males are usually infertile.

    • X-Linked Disorder Inheritance: Inherited from the mother.

    • Autosomal Recessive Inheritance: Usually more severe than autosomal dominant disorders.

    • Autosomal Recessive Disorders Exclusion: Sickle Cell Anemia is autosomal recessive, not an exception.

    • Mendelian Disorders Cause: Single-gene defect.

    • Autosomal Recessive Inheritance Example: Cystic fibrosis.

    • Wound Healing Closure and Regeneration: Granulation tissue plays a key role.

    • Delaying Wound Repair Factors (Not): Glucocorticoids.

    • Regeneration and Connective Tissue Repair: Bone fractures and renal tubular necrosis.

    • Fracture Healing Inhibitor: Steroid therapy.

    • Shock Characteristics: Peripheral vasodilation at onset, not blood transfusion or normal blood volume.

    • Hypovolemic Shock Causes Exclusions: Myocardial infarction.

    • Shock Tissue Resistance: Skeletal muscle, but not the small intestine, retina, or myocardium, is more resistant to shock-related ischemia.

    • Shock Related to Burns: Hypovolemic shock.

    • Hypovolemic Shock Causes (Not): Myocardial Infarction.

    • Arterial Thrombi Characteristics (Not): The growth direction is typically in the direction of blood flow, not away from the flow.

    • Venous Thrombi Characteristics (Not): Always results in infarction, usually related to stasis.

    • Causes of Thrombosis Exclusion: Factor VIII deficiency.

    • Sequelae of Thrombosis (Not): Propagation. Thrombi may have sequelae of embolisms and resolution with recanalization.

    • Thrombosis Predisposition Exclusions: Thrombocytopenia is a predisposition factor, not an exclusion.

    • Thrombosis Causes (Not): Antithrombin III high levels are antithrombotic, not a cause.

    • DIC Associated Findings (Not): Thrombocytosis (increased platelets).

    • Deep Vein Thrombosis Predisposition Exclusion: Factor VIII deficiency.

    • Thrombi Truths (Not): Thrombi do not always cause complete occlusion and infarction.

    • Thrombosis Associations (Not): Hemophilia.

    • Fat Emboli Causes: Fracture of the femur.

    • Paradoxical Emboli: Due to the presence of an interventricular/interatrial defect/opening

    • Pulmonary Emboli Characteristics (Not): Consistently causing infarction, not all cases result in infarction.

    • Detached Intravascular Material: Emboli.

    • Myocardial Infarction Healing: VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor).

    • Red Infarcts Location: Spleen, lung, intestine.

    • Early Myocardial Infarction Diagnosis: Troponin.

    • Atherosclerosis Risk Factor Exclusion: Family history.

    • Infarction Susceptibility - Dual Blood Supply: Liver and lungs.

    • HIV Target Cells: Cells expressing CD4 molecules.

    • Asthma Type: Type I hypersensitivity reaction.

    • IgE Role: Type I hypersensitivity reaction.

    • Graft Rejection Type: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

    • SLE Characteristics (Not): Not common in males.

    • HIV Primary Target: Cells expressing CD4 molecules.

    • Type I Hypersensitivity Characteristics (Not): IgG is not the primary antibody.

    • Malignancy Indicator: Invasion (of surrounding tissue) and increased nuclear cytoplasmic ratio.

    • Epitheloid Cell Transformation Agent: Mycobacterium leprae.

    • Complication in 76-Year-Old Woman: Pulmonary thromboembolism, not gangrenous necrosis, haematoma, DIC, or soft tissue sarcoma.

    • Substance Responsible for Microorganism Clearance in Inflammation: Hydrogen peroxide.

    • Allergic Rhinitis Mediator Cell Origin: Mast cells.

    • Anaphylaxis Mediator: Histamine.

    • Myocardial Infarction and Fibrinolytic Agent Impact: Free radical injury.

    • Better Breast Cancer Prognosis Factors: Small tumor size and no metastases.

    • Malignancy Feature: Uncontrolled/autonomous growth.

    • Generalized Edema Causes: Lymphatic obstruction, capillary damage, hypoalbuminaemia.

    • Pulmonary Edema Cause - Heart Failure: Increased vascular hydrostatic pressure, not decreased colloidal osmotic pressure.

    • DIC in Extensive Surgery Causes: Tissue thromboplastin entering the circulation.

    • Stem Cell Features (Not): The predominant population in a tissue, not self-renewal or lineage generation.

    • Benign Tumor Characteristics (Not): Infiltrating adjacent cells, not encapsulation or well-differentiated structures.

    • Best Prognosis Malignant Tumor: Basal cell carcinoma.

    • Blister Fluid Type: Serous.

    • Generalized Edema Cause: Decreased plasma oncotic pressure.

    • Non-Caseating Granulomas: Sarcoidosis.

    • Nutmeg Liver Cause: Chronic hepatic congestion.

    • Pyelonephritis Predisposition Exclude: Renal artery stenosis.

    • Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis Deposits: Subepithelial deposits.

    • Crescents Association: RPGN (rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis).

    • Dense Deposits Disease Association: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type II.

    • Low Serum Complement Levels Diseases: Systemic Lupus Nephritis and acute poststreptococcal nephritis.

    • Papillary Necrosis Associations (Not): Wegener's Granulomatosis.

    • Renal Cell Carcinoma (Not): The tumor originates from the glomeruli (not the tubules).

    • Amoebic Liver Abscess (Not): Jaundice is often a symptom, but not always present.

    • Plasmodium falciparum complications (Not): Severe gastroenteritis.

    • Aflatoxin B1 Associated Tumor: Hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • Amyloid Falsehood: Complication of Bronchiectasis.

    • Typhoid Fever Feature (Not): Necrotizing granulomas.

    • Non-Tumor Marker: Thromboxane A2, not other listed options.

    • Tumor Markers: AFP, CEA, PSA, hCG.

    • Lymphatic Edema Causes (Not): Sarcoidosis, not other listed options.

    • Hypokalemia Causes (Not): Metabolic Alkalosis.

    • Cachexia Features (Not): Hypoplasia.

    • Ionizing Radiation Acute Effects (Not): Leukemia (although a long-term effect).

    • Disease Diagnosis - Primary Stage of Syphilis: Dark-field microscopy for Treponema pallidum.

    • Granuloma Exclusion: Cerebral malaria.

    • Shock Effects (Not): Metabolic alkalosis.

    • Peg-Shaped Teeth Disease: Congenital syphilis.

    • Amoebiasis features (Not): Condylomata Lata.

    • Necrosis Consequences (Not): Resolution, not other listed options.

    • Lepromatous Leprosy Feature (Not): Spontaneous cure, not other listed options.

    • Bilharzial Portal Hypertension (Not): Hepatic failure is typically a late complication, not an early one.

    • Gumma Location: Tertiary syphilis predominantly in the liver and testes, not other listed options.

    • Hepar Lobatum Description: Periportal fibrosis.

    • Metaplasia Association: Chronic irritation.

    • Sarcoidosis Lung X-Ray: Bilateral enlarged hilar lymph nodes.

    • Primary Tuberculosis Sites (Not): Intestine, not other listed options.

    • Sarcoid Lesion Feature (Not): Caseous necrosis.

    • Bilharzial Portal Hypertension Manifestations (Not): Haematemesis is not a common feature.

    • Visceral Leishmaniasis Feature (Not): Bleeding tendency.

    • Pulmonary Tuberculosis Primary Focus (Not): Haemoptysis, although possible.

    • Typhoid Fever Early Diagnosis: Blood culture, not widal or other listed options.

    • Pulmonary Edema Exceptions: Lung fibrosis.

    • Plasmodium falciparum Not a Feature: Generalized lymphadenopathy.

    • Lepromatous Leprosy Feature: Thickening of nerves.

    • Amyloidosis Exceptions: It is protein in nature, not other listed options.

    • Amoebic Liver Abscess (Not): The left lobe is not commonly involved.

    • Typhoid Intestinal Features (Not): Involvement of Plasma Cell Infiltration isn't the defining characteristic.

    • Benign Tumor Characteristics (Not): Metastasis and hyperchromatic nuclei, and infiltration.

    • Typhoid Fever Carrier State: Persistent intestinal ulcers, not other listed options.

    • Non-Regenerative Cells: Neurons.

    • Typhoid Fever Features (Not): Rose spots in the intestinal mucosa (they are external).

    • Serious Typhoid Fever Complications (Not): Amyloidosis.

    • Primary Tuberculosis Sites: Oropharynx and ileocecal region.

    • Congestive Heart Failure Edema Cause: Generalized increase in venous pressure.

    • Typhoid Fever Diagnosis Exclusion: VDRL (which is for syphilis), not other listed options

    • Chemical Procarcinogen Activation Requiring Enzyme: P450-dependent oxygenase.

    • Immune-Complex Glomerulonephritis Association: Amoebic dysentery.

    • UV Light-Induced Tumor: Basal cell carcinoma.

    • Skin Cancer Susceptibility: Radiology technologists are commonly more exposed to harmful rays.

    • Leukemia/Lymphoma Associated Factor: Cyclophosphamide.

    • Schistosomiasis Granuloma Stimulator: Soluble egg antigens.

    • Hepatomegaly and High Leukocytes Disease: Visceral leishmaniasis, or extra intestinal amoebiasis, not other listed options.

    • Chemical Carcinogen Properties (Not): Hetrophilic, not other listed options.

    • Sarcoidosis Features (Not): Caseating granuloma.

    • Nitrosamine Precursor Food: Preserved food (not others).

    • Sickle Cell Malaria Resistance Mechanism: Sickling of red blood cells and removal in the spleen.

    • Sandy Patches Disease: Dermal leishmaniasis.

    • Pipe-Stern Fibrosis Description: The presence of fibrosis in Liver following Schistosomiasis.

    • Asteroid Bodies Feature: Sarcoidosis (not others, listed).

    • Tertiary Syphilis Hallmark: Endarteritis obliterans (vascular obliteration due to inflammation).

    • Syphilitic Aortic Aneurysm Features: Endarteritis and Periaortitis, located in the Thoracic Aorta, not other listed options

    • Snail Track Ulcers Disease: Cutaneous Leishmaniasis, not other listed.

    • Bilateral Hilar Lymphadenopathy Feature: Sarcoidosis.

    • Primary Chancre Features (Not): Painful nodule; instead, a hard, painless nodule is characteristic and will heal spontaneously.

    • Not a feature of Schistosomal Portal Hypertension: Markedly disturbed liver function does often accompany the condition.

    • Schistosomiasis Eosinophilia Stimulus: TH2 cell mediators (IL-4 and IL-5) and other listed mediators.

    • Late Urinary Schistosomiasis Complication: Bladder carcinoma, not others listed.

    • Immune-Complex Glomerulonephritis Association: Mostly extraintestinal amoebiasis.

    • Hydroureter and Hydronephrosis Cause: Urinary Schistosomiasis.

    • Ionizing Radiation Impact: Bone marrow.

    • Sarcoidosis Tissue Affected Primarily: Lungs.

    • Flask-Shaped Ulcers Disease: Typhoid fever.

    • Peyer's Patch Ulceration Disease: Typhoid fever

    • Ionizing Radiation Maximum Effect: Low oxygen tension.

    • Typhoid Pathogen Best Seen in: Ileum-cecal valve.

    • Immune Complex Disorders: Post-streptococcal and other glomerulonephritis, not others listed.

    • Fibrosis Post-Radiation: Stimulation of fibroblast proliferation by cytokines.

    • Leishmaniasis Killing Mechanism: -Interferon and TNF-, not others primarily.

    • Septic Shock Pathogenesis Factors: Bacterial wall, IL-1, IL-8.

    • Post Kala-Azar Dermal Leishmaniasis (NKDL) Features (Not): Healing spontaneously within few months, not other features listed, is less likely.

    • Visceral Leishmaniasis Diagnosis: Bone marrow aspirate for detection, not other listed.

    • Amyloid AL Deposition: Multiple myeloma.

    • Unconjugated Bilirubin Characteristics (Not): Is excreted in urine, not other listed features.

    • Post-Hepatic Jaundice Features (Not): Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, not other listed features.

    • Primary Tuberculosis Characteristics (Not): Majority of patients are asymptomatic (usually symptom heavy) and hilar lymph nodes are usually involved, not other listed options.

    • Cercaria Skin Penetration Transformation: Schistomulum.

    • Schistosoma Mansoni and Japonicum Complications: Hematuria, hepatocellular carcinoma, malabsorption, but not others.

    • Condyloma Latum Disease: Secondary syphilis.

    • Gummas Occurrence: Tertiary syphilis.

    • Hepar Lobatum Description: Multiple gummas visible in the liver.

    • Metaplasia Association (True): Chronic irritation, not other listed.

    • Sarcoidosis Chest X-Ray: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.

    • Primary Tuberculosis Locations (Not): Oesophagus

    • Sarcoid Lesion Histology (Not): Caseating necrosis.

    • Bilharzial Portal Hypertension Features (Not): Splenomegaly is not mainly from macrophage proliferation.

    • Visceral Leishmaniasis Features (Not): Intermittent fever (or no fever).

    • Pulmonary Tuberculosis Primary Focus Features (Not): Assmann's Focus is not a formal recognized feature.

    • Typhoid Fever Early Bacteremic Phase Diagnosis: Blood culture.

    • Pulmonary Oedema Exceptions: Lung fibrosis.

    • Plasmodium falciparum Features (Not): Generalized lymphadenopathy.

    • Lepromatous Leprosy Features: Scanty bacilli and thickened nerves, not other identified options.

    • Amyloidosis Exception: Lipid-based nature (it's protein).

    • Amoebic Liver Abscess Features (Not): The left lobe is not commonly involved.

    • Features Missing in Typhoid Intestinal Lesions: Infiltration by plasma cells (though present, not the key defining feature).

    • Typhoid Fever Carrier Cause: Persistent intestinal ulcers, not other listed.

    • Non-Regenerative Cells: Neurons, not other options.

    • Typhoid Fever Characteristics (Not): The large intestine is typically the target organ.

    • Serious Typhoid Fever Complications (Not): Perforation of the intestine (not all) is a complication.

    • Primary Tuberculosis Sites, not other listed options

    • Congestive Heart Failure Edema Causes: Generalized increase in venous pressure.

    • Type of Oedema in Congestive Heart Failure: Lymphatic obstruction.

    • Chemical Carcinogen Activation: P450-dependent oxygenase is the primary system.

    • Metastatic Deposition Favorability Factors: Compatibility of cell surface characteristics and receptor tissue availability.

    • Tumor Marker (Not): Aflatoxin (not a marker).

    • Mitsuda Reaction Positive Disease: Lepromatous leprosy.

    • Snail Track Ulcers Disease: Cutaneous or post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (not others)

    • Secondary Syphilis Feature (Not): Hepar Lobatum, not others.

    • Non-Specific Syphilis Test: VDRL (not others listed).

    • Bodies in Sarcoidosis: Asteroid and (Shaumann) bodies.

    • Syphilis Transmission: Sexual contact, transplacental (in utero), and accidental inoculation.

    • Lepromatous Leprosy Feature (Not): Production of antibodies to various antigens.

    • Syphilis Primary Chancre Feature (Not): A hard, painful nodule; instead, it is a painless nodule.

    • Not a Malignant Tumor: Lung hamartoma (instead of others).

    • Peg-Shaped Teeth and Disease: Congenital (present at birth) syphilis.

    • Epitheloid Cell Formation Inducer: -Interferon.

    • Leprosy with Strong Cell Mediated Response: Tuberculoid leprosy (not others).

    • Tubercle Bacilli Lab Growth Medium: Lowenstain-Johnson medium.

    • Non-Metastasizing Tumor: Basal cell carcinoma (not others listed).

    • Cardiovascular Syphilis Exceptions: Aortic stenosis (not an exclusive feature).

    • Specific Syphilis Test: TPI.

    • Bilateral Hilar Lymphadenopathy & Non-Caseating Granulomas Cause: Sarcoidosis.

    • Syphilis Hallmarks: Endarteritis Obliterans and Heavy Plasma Cell Infiltrate.

    • Psoas Cold Abscess Cause: Inflammation of the vertebral column due to tuberculous or other infection (i.e post infectious pyogenic infection)

    • Primary Intestinal Tuberculosis Sites: Ileocaecal valve region and oropharynx

    • Features of Post-Primary Tuberculosis: Re-infection or re-activation and common in the upper lobes.

    • Lepra Bacilli Portal Entry: Skin (Cutaneous) and upper respiratory tract.

    • Immunocompromised Patient Susceptibility (Not): Autoimmune diseases.

    • Amyloid Type in Chronic Inflammation: AA-Amyloid.

    • Amyloid Deposition: Extracellular, not intracellular.

    • Amyloid Congo Red Stain: Apple-green birefringence.

    • Visceral Leishmaniasis Diagnosis: Bone marrow examination for Leishman-Donovan bodies (LD bodies).

    • Leishmaniasis Course Determinants: Host T-cell response and Leishmania species.

    • V. leishmaniasis Falsehood: Not common in Sudan (it's prevalent - not a falsehood).

    • Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia Exception: Stone in the common bile duct is obstruction, not an actual high level of unbound bilirubin.

    • Rotor Syndrome Feature (Not): Defective conjugation of bilirubin (not other listed features).

    • Secondary Immunodeficiencies Causes (Not): DiGeorge's syndrome.

    • Cellular Immunodeficiency Features (Not): Pyogenic (bacterial) infections, or bacterial abscesses.

    • Worst Prognosis in Amyloidosis: Renal failure.

    • Plasma Bilirubin Composition (Not): 95% conjugated (most is conjugated, not all is).

    • Kala-azar Meaning: Black fever

    • Sickle Cell Anemia Inheritance: Autosomal recessive.

    • Sickle Cell Anemia Onset: Often at or shortly after birth, or in early childhood, not always fully developed later in life

    • Hemolytic Anemia Morphology: Reticulocytosis and increased normoblasts in the bone marrow (not just one).

    • Megaloblastic Anemia Causes: B12 deficiency, B6 deficiency, and folate deficiency.

    • Iron Deficiency Anemia Causes (Not): Intra-vascular hemolysis (instead of other).

    • Aplastic Crisis in Sickle Cell Cause: Parvovirus B19 infection.

    • Osteomyelitis Causative Agent in Sickle Cell: Salmonella, not other listed options.

    • Antibodies in Cold Agglutinin Hemolytic Anemia: IgM

    • Hypochromic Microcytic RBCs in: Iron deficiency anemia (among others).

    • Lactating Mothers and Anemia: Iron deficiency anemia.

    • Onchocerciasis Feature: Inflammation around adult worms is characteristic.

    • Mazzotti Reaction Nature: Immune reaction to anti-filarial drugs.

    • Chagas Disease Exclusions: Leptomeningitis (brain inflammation) is not a common associated disease here.

    • Second Common Cause of Blindness (Africa): Onchocerciasis.

    • Somatostatin: Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone.

    • Growth Hormone Release Stimulators (Not): Hyperglycemia, instead of other identified option factors (listed) for growth hormone regulation are present here.

    • Prolactin Release Inhibitor: TSH, instead of other identified factor inhibitors (listed) for prolactin release are present here.

    • FSH in Males: Stimulates spermatogenesis (not other options - solely).

    • LH Release Origin: Anterior pituitary.

    • Early Pituitary Failure Features: TSH deficiency.

    • Excess Growth Hormone in Adults: Acromegaly and reduced bone growth in the feet

    • Excessive Growth Hormone Features (Not): Decreased head circumference (instead of high).

    • Physiological Hyperprolactinemia Causes (Not): Prolactinoma (not other options).

    • Diabetes Insipidus Nature: ADH deficiency.

    • Polyuria/Polydipsia Causes (Not): Hypocalcemia, not others.

    • Male Androgen Source: Testes, not others typically.

    • Adrenal Hypofunction Test: Cosyntropin stimulation test (Synacthen test).

    • Addison's Disease Features: Hypotension, low plasma renin, and hyponatremia, not others listed here.

    • Secondary Adrenal Hypofunction Causes: Autoimmune adrenalitis and tuberculosis of adrenals.

    • Cardiovascular Syphilis Features (Not): Angina pectoris.

    • Acute Inflammation Hyperemia Trigger: Histamine (initiating the process).

    • Hormone-Secreting Tumor: Not necessarily ALL tumors, but a few can be hormone-producing or -secreting.

    • Visceral Leishmaniasis Features (Not): Epistaxis.

    • Cardiogenic Shock Complication: Acute tubular necrosis, not others listed.

    • Tumor Suppressor Loss Cause: Infiltrating ductal breast carcinoma and small cell lung cancer (not others).

    • SLE Finding: Glomerular immune deposits.

    • Lymphopenia Cause: HIV infection, not others listed.

    • Ghon Focus Association: Tuberculosis.

    • Parathyroid Hormone Regulation: Extracellular ionized calcium

    • Peyer's Patch Enlargement Cause: Enteric fever, not others listed

    • Post-Primary Pulmonary TB Features (Not): Hilar lymph nodes are usually not affected

    • Schistosomiasis Features (Not): Anti-basement membrane glomerulonephritis is not an associated disease.

    • Vitamin B12/Folate Deficiency Anemia Features (Not): Hypochromia, instead of others.

    • Amyloid Tissue Injury Mechanism: Pressure atrophy on adjacent tissues.

    • AA Amyloid Conditions (Not): Renal cell carcinoma (not others listed).

    • Leprosy Antibodies (Not): Protective in nature, not other noted points.

    • Secondary Syphilis Features (Not): Snail Track Ulcers (are a feature, not exception).

    • Hereditary Spherocytosis Features (Not): Spherocytes are not always detectable in all cases of newborns.

    • Thyroid Hormone Circulation Form: Thyroxine, not other options, in the predominant form typically.

    • Chronic Pyelonephritis Morphology (Not): Thyroidization of lobules due to the chronic condition and associated involvement.

    • Uric Acid Calculus Characteristics (Not): Radiolucent, not others.

    • Analgesic Abuse Nephropathy Damage Cause: Direct toxic effects of metabolites and ischemia.

    • Sickle Cell Disease Features (Not): Spleen consistently enlarged in adults (often reduced or removed).

    • Sickle Cell Protection Mechanism: Splenic removal of sickled cells, not other listed factors.

    • Central Nervous System HIV Target: Cells expressing CD4 molecules.

    • RPGN Features (Not): Urine WBC casts are not a diagnostic feature.

    • Sandy Patches and Diseases: Skin lesion associated with certain diseases, not all.

    • Urine Dip Stick Detection (Not): Bilharzia ova (can't be detected on dip sticks).

    • Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria Features (Not): Hemolysis is primarily extravascular.

    • Infection Susceptibility Factors (Not): Bronchial asthma (not other listed).

    • Amyloid Kidney Deposition Result: Nephrotic syndrome.

    • **Acromegaly Feature (Not):

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    Test your knowledge on key concepts of pathology, focusing on cell injury, necrosis types, and cellular alterations. This quiz covers important mechanisms and indicators related to irreversible cell conditions and specific pathological changes in tissues. Perfect for students of biology and medicine.

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