Pathology Quiz on Cell Injury and Necrosis

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Questions and Answers

Which organ is primarily composed of Permanent Parenchymal cells?

  • Bone Marrow
  • Liver (correct)
  • Renal Tubules
  • Small Intestinal Mucosa

What type of necrosis is primarily associated with Acute Pancreatitis?

  • Coagulation
  • Fat (correct)
  • Liquefaction
  • Gummatous

The transformation of Columnar Epithelium of the Bronchi into Mature Squamous Epithelium is termed:

  • Metaplasia (correct)
  • Hyperplasia
  • Dysplasia
  • Neoplasia

Which condition is characterized by an increase in calcium deposition as a result of hypercalcemia?

<p>Metastatic calcification (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key feature indicating Irreversible Cell Injury?

<p>Karyorrhexis of nuclei (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What breast process allows a mother to successfully breastfeed her infant?

<p>Lobular hyperplasia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of necrosis is indicated by black discoloration of an amputated limb accompanied by yellowish exudates?

<p>Gangrenous necrosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Focal fat necrosis with chalky tan-white material in the omentum is most commonly linked with:

<p>Acute pancreatitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process is most likely to correlate with lipofuscin deposition in cells?

<p>Autophagocytosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cellular alteration is a definitive indicator of irreversible cell injury?

<p>Nuclear pyknosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme is best known for protecting against oxidative stress in cells?

<p>Glutathione Peroxidase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following an occlusion by a sterile thrombus of the left middle cerebral artery, what is the most probable pathological consequence?

<p>Pale infarction with coagulative necrosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Putrefactive bacteria acting on necrotic tissue can lead to which of the following outcomes?

<p>Gangrene (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which form of necrosis is primarily related to ischaemic tissue damage?

<p>Coagulation necrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does calcium play in cellular injury mechanisms?

<p>Activating phospholipases (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A common manifestation of reversible cell injury in organs like the liver is predominantly characterized by:

<p>Fatty change (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An area of keratinizing squamous epithelium in a bronchus exemplifies which pathological term?

<p>Metaplasia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of necrosis is most closely associated with enzymatic fat necrosis?

<p>Liquefaction necrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Each of the following can be classified as hyperplasia except:

<p>Atrophy of muscle tissue (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Apoptosis can be characterized by which of the following features?

<p>Programmed cell death (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following enzyme systems contributes to the inactivation of free radicals?

<p>Both A and B (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The primary event associated with early nuclear chromatin clumping is indicative of:

<p>Acidosis and imminent cell death (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a harmful effect of acute inflammation?

<p>Swelling of tissue (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily contributes to the high protein content of inflammatory exudates?

<p>Increased capillary permeability (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cell is predominantly found in the sputum of an asthmatic child?

<p>Eosinophils (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Phagocytosis is most effectively enhanced by which of the following?

<p>Opsonins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cells are primarily involved in the organization phase of tissue repair?

<p>Endothelial cells and fibroblasts (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the microcirculation is most affected by permeability changes during acute inflammation?

<p>Capillaries (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chronic inflammation is primarily characterized by the presence of which cells?

<p>Plasma cells and lymphocytes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about macrophages is incorrect?

<p>They are primarily derived from tissue eosinophils. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is typically true of exudates?

<p>Has a high protein content (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The most critical factor in the formation of acute inflammatory exudates is?

<p>Increased Vascular Permeability (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Increased vascular permeability during inflammation is primarily caused by which mechanism?

<p>Both A &amp; B (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Infertility and short stature in a woman with a 45x karyotype are typical of which condition?

<p>Turner Syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which chromosomal abnormality is associated with Down Syndrome?

<p>Trisomy 21 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mutations in mitochondrial genes are primarily inherited from which parent?

<p>Mother (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes the process of regeneration?

<p>Involves healing through stromal element proliferation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT known to delay the healing of damaged tissue?

<p>Adequate nutrition (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which conditions require both regeneration and connective tissue repair?

<p>Both A and B (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes neurogenic, septic, and cardiogenic shock?

<p>Peripheral vasodilation occurs at onset (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypovolemic shock?

<p>Obstructive lung disease (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After prolonged hypotensive shock, which tissue is most likely to withstand ischemia?

<p>Skeletal muscle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of shock is most commonly associated with severe burns?

<p>Hypovolemic shock (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a characteristic of thrombi?

<p>Always cause complete vascular occlusion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor does NOT predispose a patient to thrombosis?

<p>Thrombocytopenia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes fat emboli in medical conditions?

<p>Fracture of the femur (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All of the following are associated with thrombosis except:

<p>Hemophilia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true regarding venous thrombi?

<p>Often occur due to stasis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following does NOT promote fracture healing?

<p>Steroid therapy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Paradoxical emboli are mainly caused by:

<p>Interatrial or interventricular defects (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is primarily responsible for gangrene of the lower extremities?

<p>Diabetes Mellitus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered NOT a feature of reversible cell injury?

<p>Pyknotic Nucleus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes the color change seen in gangrene?

<p>Breakdown of hemoglobin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature is characteristic of collagen necrosis?

<p>Complete loss of architecture (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about apoptosis is incorrect?

<p>It induces a severe inflammatory reaction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might calcium contribute to cell injury?

<p>By activating phospholipases (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered an irreversible cellular change?

<p>Hydropic Change (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which necrosis type is ghost outlines of cells commonly seen?

<p>Coagulative Necrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant characteristic of reperfusion injury?

<p>Generation of reactive oxygen species (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process is primarily responsible for fatty change in liver cells?

<p>Dystrophy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following substances is NOT associated with abnormal pigmentation?

<p>Hyperlipidemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary feature of necrotic cell death regarding nuclear changes?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about dystrophic calcification is FALSE?

<p>It is reversible (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit squamous metaplasia?

<p>Renal Pelvis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is most likely to occur following a stroke due to loss of blood supply to a lobe of the brain?

<p>Pale infarction with coagulative necrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition best demonstrates dystrophic calcification?

<p>Granuloma in pulmonary tuberculosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cellular change is the strongest indicator of irreversible cellular injury?

<p>Nuclear pyknosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The presence of differentiated columnar epithelium with goblet cells in the lower esophagus is indicative of which condition?

<p>Metaplasia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hypertrophy can be observed in which of the following situations?

<p>Uterine myometrium during pregnancy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is most likely to result in metaplasia?

<p>Vitamin A deficiency (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is typically deposited in the myocardium with aging?

<p>Lipochrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tissue is least likely to be affected by ischemia?

<p>Skeletal muscle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Amputation of a diabetic foot is most likely to present with which type of necrosis?

<p>Gangrenous necrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of necrosis is characterized by amoeboid fragments and granular debris?

<p>Liquefactive necrosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What describes the loss of a cell through fragmentation of the nucleus?

<p>Apoptosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of necrosis appears grossly opaque and 'chalk' white?

<p>Caseous necrosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cellular process is associated with high workload leading to an increase in size?

<p>Hypertrophy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which duration post-myocardial infarction is indicative of necrotic muscle and neutrophils on histology?

<p>Two days (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of infarction of the spleen?

<p>Arterial Embolism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is most responsible for promoting healing in myocardial infarction?

<p>VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of red infarcts?

<p>Appear in the Intestine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which biomarker is most significant in the diagnosis of early acute myocardial infarction?

<p>Troponin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is NOT a major risk factor for atherosclerosis?

<p>Frequent exercise (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organs are less susceptible to infarction due to their dual blood supply?

<p>Liver and Kidney (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cell type is primarily targeted by HIV?

<p>CD4+ T cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Asthma is classified as which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

<p>Type I hypersensitivity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for acute graft rejection?

<p>Type IV hypersensitivity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is NOT true?

<p>It predominantly affects males (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following indicates a neoplasm is likely malignant?

<p>Invasion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which infectious agent can transform tissue macrophages into epitheloid cells?

<p>Mycobacterium leprae (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a scenario where a 76-year-old woman has a swollen leg followed by a femoral fracture, which complication is most likely?

<p>Pulmonary Thromboembolism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What substance generated by inflammatory cells is crucial for clearing microorganisms in an inflammatory focus?

<p>Hydrogen Peroxide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Acute Pulmonary Oedema due to heart failure primarily results from which of the following?

<p>Increased Vascular Hydrostatic Pressure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is most closely associated with the development of noncaseating granulomas?

<p>Sarcoidosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common feature of benign tumors?

<p>Infiltrate Adjacent Cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature is typically NOT associated with renal cell carcinoma?

<p>Originating from the glomeruli (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The presence of crescents in renal pathology is most associated with which condition?

<p>Fibrin Leakage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Low serum complement levels are indicative of which conditions?

<p>Both Systemic Lupus Nephritis and Acute Post-streptococcal nephritis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically a predisposing factor for pyelonephritis?

<p>Pulmonary Hypertension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which chemical carcinogen is derived from a fungus and is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?

<p>Aflatoxin B1 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Papillary necrosis is most commonly associated with which condition?

<p>Analgesic Abuse (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature is NOT characteristic of amoebic liver abscess?

<p>Always presence of jaundice (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following does NOT cause hypokalaemia?

<p>Addison's Disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dense deposits disease is most closely associated with which condition?

<p>Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type II (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which disease complication is NOT associated with Plasmodium falciparum malaria?

<p>Severe Gastroenteritis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which leukocyte is primarily responsible for significant phagocytosis during inflammation?

<p>Neutrophil (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Amyloid is NOT true?

<p>Is of AA type in Multiple Myeloma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mediator is most closely associated with increasing vascular permeability in acute inflammation?

<p>Histamine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Granuloma formation is most commonly linked to which of the following triggers?

<p>Persistent irritants (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cells is involved in the chronic inflammatory response and helps in tissue organization?

<p>Fibroblasts (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of exudate is typically characterized by the presence of pus?

<p>Purulent exudate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mediator of fever is released by macrophages during inflammation?

<p>Interleukin-1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the predominant cell type found in a purulent exudate?

<p>Neutrophils (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In chronic inflammation, which cells are primarily responsible for forming multinucleated giant cells?

<p>Macrophages (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which options represent common characteristics of granulation tissue?

<p>High collagen matrix and new capillary formation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme pathway is responsible for the formation of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid?

<p>Cyclooxygenase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process primarily drives the accumulation of neutrophils in an inflammatory response?

<p>Chemotaxis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cell type is typically involved in the resolution phase of inflammation?

<p>Fibroblasts (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these characteristics is typically associated with acute inflammation?

<p>Vascular changes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The tumor of inflammation is primarily attributed to which process?

<p>Capillary Dilation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is least likely to be associated with Cachexia?

<p>Hypoplasia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a primary characteristic of Granuloma formation?

<p>Cerebral Malaria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which disease would you expect to see Gummas most frequently?

<p>Syphilis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is least associated with Acute effects of Ionizing Radiation?

<p>Leukemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is essential in diagnosing Primary stage of Syphilis?

<p>Dark ground illumination smear (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Bilharzial Portal Hypertension, what complication is NOT typically seen early on?

<p>Hepatic Failure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which histological feature is least likely to be found in a sarcoid lesion?

<p>Caseous Necrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the early bacteraemic phase of Typhoid Fever, which of the following is considered the most reliable diagnostic method?

<p>Blood Culture (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature is uncommon in Lepromatous Leprosy?

<p>Spontaneous recovery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following features is NOT associated with visceral leishmaniasis?

<p>Jaundice (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding is NOT typical of pulmonary tuberculosis?

<p>Always disseminates to the pleura (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which complication does NOT arise from Acute Renal Failure?

<p>Hypotension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of cancer, which of the following is least associated with tumor necrosis factor (TNF)?

<p>Inhibition of immune response (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature is not typically observed in amoebic liver abscess?

<p>Constant presence of jaundice (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition does not typically present with a granuloma?

<p>Schistosomiasis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mediates the formation of epithelioid cells?

<p>Gamma Interferon (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first inflammatory cell to arrive at the site of acute inflammation?

<p>Neutrophil (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about exudate is incorrect?

<p>It has low protein content. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is recognized as the most powerful chemotactic agent?

<p>Complement C5a (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would most likely NOT be revealed in a biopsy of acute inflammation?

<p>Fibrous connective tissue (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mediator is most significant in granulomatous inflammation?

<p>Interferon gamma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The development of a tuberculous granuloma is primarily dependent on which cell?

<p>Macrophages (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a component of granulation tissue?

<p>Hyaline cartilage (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is primarily responsible for pain during acute inflammation?

<p>Prostaglandin and Bradykinin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a foreign body reaction, which cell type is most characteristic?

<p>Giant cell (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about phagocytosis is false?

<p>Occurs only in vascular tissues (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does opsonization have in the immune response?

<p>Coating antigens with antibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily causes tumor formation during inflammation?

<p>Increased extracellular fluid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is NOT a cause of Iron Deficiency Anemia?

<p>Intra-Vascular Hemolysis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which virus is commonly associated with Aplastic crisis in Sickle Cell Anemia?

<p>Parvovirus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the common causative agent of Osteomyelitis in individuals with Sickle Cell Anemia?

<p>Salmonella (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Cold Agglutinin Hemolytic Anemia, which type of antibodies are primarily involved?

<p>Ig M (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hypochromic microcytic red blood cells are primarily associated with which type of anemia?

<p>Iron Deficiency Anemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lactating mothers are most likely to develop which type of deficiency?

<p>Iron Deficiency Anemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor does NOT stimulate Growth Hormone release?

<p>Hyperglycemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition does NOT commonly result in Polyuria and Polydipsia?

<p>Hypocalcemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Addison's Disease, which symptom is least likely to be present?

<p>Hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature is primarily associated with post hepatic jaundice?

<p>Elevated Serum Transaminases (A), Pale Stools (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic is specifically true about primary tuberculosis?

<p>It typically affects young children. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding is indicative of excessive Growth Hormone in adults?

<p>Acromegaly (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When cercaria penetrate human skin, they transform into which form?

<p>Schistomulum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common characteristic feature of Chagas Disease?

<p>Dilated Cardiomyopathy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of amyloid is most commonly associated with long-term hemodialysis?

<p>B2-Microglobulin amyloid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition does NOT present with an increase in blood sugar levels?

<p>Addison's Disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What hormone is primarily missing in a patient with Diabetes Insipidus?

<p>Deficient ADH (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding the etiology of human carcinogenesis is incorrect?

<p>Only certain occupational exposures are risk factors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant neoplasms?

<p>Expansile Growth (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a result of Aplastic Anemia?

<p>Increased white blood cell count (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme system is most crucial for the metabolic activation of chemical carcinogens?

<p>Cytochrome-P450-dependent Monooxygenases (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of tumor invasiveness, which factor is unrelated to their capacity for cell invasion?

<p>Mitotic Rate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not recognized as a tumor marker?

<p>Aflatoxin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of response is associated with tuberculoid leprosy?

<p>Well developed cell-mediated immune response (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a characterizing feature of secondary syphilis?

<p>Primary Chancre (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is a common test for syphilis?

<p>VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true about the transmission of syphilis?

<p>Can occur through sexual contact and pregnancy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a feature of lepromatous leprosy?

<p>Production of antibodies to various antigens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is not true regarding Syphilitic Aortic Aneurysm?

<p>It is primarily caused by bacterial infection (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is most commonly associated with Snail Track Ulcers?

<p>Schistosomal Dermatitis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is commonly associated with which of the following conditions?

<p>Sarcoidosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Schistosomal Portal Hypertension is false?

<p>It does not present with Caput Medusa (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Eosinophilia in Schistosomiasis is primarily stimulated by which factor?

<p>TH2 inducing IL-4 and IL-5 production (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Late complications of urinary schistosomiasis most likely include which of the following?

<p>Carcinoma of Urinary Bladder (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ionizing Radiation primarily affects which tissue type the most?

<p>Bone Marrow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tissue is most commonly impacted by Sarcoidosis?

<p>The Lungs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following features is typical of benign tumors?

<p>They are encapsulated (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flask-shaped ulcers are primarily associated with which infectious disease?

<p>Amoebiasis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pathological finding in Immune-Complex Glomerulonephritis?

<p>Presence of immune complexes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is linked with inflammation and ulceration of Peyer's patches?

<p>Intestinal Tuberculosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with Sickle Cell Trait?

<p>High incidence of sickle cell crises (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Deposition of Amyloid AL is associated with which of the following conditions?

<p>Multiple Myeloma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of activation of a chemical procarcinogen?

<p>Formation of a reactive metabolite (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is a common complication of Typhoid Fever?

<p>Intestinal perforation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immune complex disease is most recognized?

<p>Rheumatoid Arthritis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fibrosis that follows Ionizing Radiation is primarily due to which mechanism?

<p>All of the Above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic feature is associated with Sarcoidosis?

<p>Asteroid bodies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a known risk factor for developing squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

<p>Skin type I (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What finding in the blood is associated with acute hemopoetic syndrome following ionizing radiation?

<p>Lymphopenia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following surgical diseases is characterized by the presence of Asteroid bodies?

<p>Sarcoidosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diagnostic tests is least likely to be effective in detecting Typhoid Fever?

<p>Urine analysis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tumor is most strongly associated with prolonged exposure to UV light?

<p>Basal cell carcinoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What abnormality is primarily linked to chronic Hepatotoxicity from chemical carcinogens?

<p>Liver fibrosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Chronic Granulomatous Disease?

<p>Diabetes mellitus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which malignancy is often associated with chronic exposure to asbestos?

<p>Mesothelioma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which property of Sickle Cells specifically protects individuals from contracting Malaria?

<p>Faster clearance of cells by the spleen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cell is most commonly infected in the Central Nervous System by HIV?

<p>Astrocyte (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not characteristic of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)?

<p>Hypercalcemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sandy patches can be observed in which of the following conditions?

<p>Urinary Bladder Schistosomiasis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which substance cannot be detected using a standard urine dip stick analysis?

<p>Ova of Bilharzia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is incorrect?

<p>Haptoglobin levels are elevated (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is least likely to increase susceptibility to infection by Tubercle Bacilli?

<p>Asthma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Amyloid deposits in the kidney are primarily associated with which condition?

<p>Nephrotic Syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding is most indicative of Acromegaly?

<p>High Plasma Levels of Somatomedins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a typical feature of Acute Diffuse Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis?

<p>Antiglomerular Basement Membrane Deposits (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medium is specifically used for the laboratory growth of Mycobacterium leprae?

<p>Lowenston-Johnson Medium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tumor is least likely to metastasize?

<p>Skin Basal Cell Carcinoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not typically associated with Cardiovascular Syphilis?

<p>Pulmonary Hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is considered a specific test for Syphilis?

<p>TPI Test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bilateral Hilar Lymphadenopathy Lung involvement by Non-Caseating Granuloma is characteristically associated with which condition?

<p>Sarcoidosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the hallmarks of Syphilis?

<p>Both A and C (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A Psoas Cold Abscess is most likely to occur in which condition?

<p>Tuberculosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following features is characteristic of Post Primary (Secondary) Tuberculosis?

<p>Can occur due to reactivation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is a commonly recognized portal of entry for Lepra Bacilli?

<p>Skin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which syndrome is there defective conjugation of bilirubin?

<p>Rotor Syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is NOT a cause of Secondary Immunodeficiency?

<p>DiGeorge's Syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of amyloid is associated with chronic inflammation?

<p>AA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does amyloid material appear under polarized light after staining with Congo Red?

<p>Apple Green Birefringence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sickle Cell Anemia follows which mode of inheritance?

<p>Autosomal Recessive (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a complication that may arise from Cardiogenic Shock?

<p>Acute Tubular Necrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tumor is most likely to develop due to the loss of a Tumor Suppressor Gene?

<p>Retinoblastoma of the Eye (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a 30-year-old female with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), which feature is most likely to be present?

<p>Glomerular Immune Deposits (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a recognized cause of Lymphopenia?

<p>HIV Infection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Ghon Focus is primarily associated with which condition?

<p>Tuberculosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The secretion of Parathyroid Hormone is primarily controlled by which factor?

<p>Extracellular Ionized Calcium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is most likely to cause enlarged prominent Peyer's Patches?

<p>Intestinal TB (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding Post-Primary Pulmonary Tuberculosis is inaccurate?

<p>Hilar Lymph Nodes are significantly enlarged (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is not associated with Schistosomiasis?

<p>Anti-Basement Membrane Glomerulonephritis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common feature of Anemia resulting from Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid Deficiency?

<p>Hypochromia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is not typically associated with Type AA Amyloid deposition?

<p>Renal Cell Carcinoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about Leprosy antibodies is inaccurate?

<p>Causes Chronic Granulomatous Disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What feature is not characteristic of Secondary Syphilis?

<p>Snail Track Ulcers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Metaplasia

The replacement of one mature cell type by another mature cell type, often in response to chronic irritation or injury. It is a reversible adaptive change.

Liquefactive Necrosis

A form of cell injury that results in the complete digestion of cells by their own lysosomal enzymes. It is characterized by the formation of a liquid, viscous mass.

Metastatic Calcification

Calcification that occurs in normal tissues due to hypercalcemia. It can be caused by conditions like hyperparathyroidism or vitamin D toxicity.

Necrosis

A type of cell death that is characterized by the breakdown of the cell membrane and the release of cellular contents into the extracellular space. It is an active process that involves the activation of specific enzymes.

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Irreversible Cell Injury

The irreversible loss of cell function and structure. Characterized by changes like nuclear fragmentation, cytoplasmic vacuolization, and loss of membrane integrity.

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Apoptosis

The natural process by which the body eliminates unwanted or damaged cells through programmed self-destruction. It is a controlled and orderly process.

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Dystrophic Calcification

Calcification that occurs in dead or dying tissues. It is often seen in areas of necrosis, such as in tuberculosis or tumors.

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Hypertrophy

An adaptive response in which cells increase in size in response to increased workload or stress. It is a reversible change.

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Coagulation Necrosis

Irreversible cell injury resulting in cell death with the formation of an insoluble, pink, amorphous protein mass.

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Caseous Necrosis

A type of cell death characterized by the breakdown of cellular components into a cheesy-like material, commonly associated with tuberculosis.

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Fatty Change

Cell death caused by the accumulation of triglycerides within the cytoplasm, often occurring in the liver.

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Autophagy

A process of cellular degradation where cells engulf and digest their own components.

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Nuclear Pyknosis

The irreversible condensation of nuclear chromatin into a solid, shrunken mass.

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Atrophy

A reversible adaptation where cells reduce in size and metabolic activity.

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Hyperplasia

An increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, leading to an increase in the size of the organ.

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Calcium Influx

An increase of calcium in the cytosol of a cell, which can lead to cellular damage.

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Dysplasia

The presence of abnormally differentiated cells in a tissue. It is often associated with precancerous changes.

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Fat Necrosis

A type of necrosis that is characterized by the accumulation of fatty acids in the tissue. It is often seen in the pancreas and adipose tissue.

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Gangrenous Necrosis

A type of necrosis that occurs when there is a lack of blood supply to a tissue. It is often seen in the extremities, especially in individuals with diabetes.

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Gangrene

A condition characterized by the death of tissue due to a lack of blood supply, often occurring in the lower extremities and commonly associated with diabetes mellitus.

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Color Change in Gangrene

The color change in gangrene is attributed to the breakdown of hemoglobin, resulting in the characteristic discoloration.

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Pyknosis

The process of a cell's nucleus shrinking and condensing its chromatin, often associated with cell death.

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Calcium's Role in Cell Injury

A type of cell injury caused by the entrance of calcium into the cytoplasm, which can activate harmful enzymes and lead to further cell damage.

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Karyorrhexis

A feature of irreversible cell injury marked by the breakdown of the cell's nucleus into fragments.

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Redness in Inflammation

A common sign of inflammation characterized by redness of the affected area, caused by increased blood flow to the tissue.

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Leukocyte Margination

The process by which leukocytes, white blood cells, move to the periphery of blood vessels and then migrate through the vascular wall to the site of injury.

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Reperfusion Injury

The release of free radicals during the reperfusion of tissue after a period of ischemia, which can damage cells further.

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Caseation Necrosis

A type of necrosis characterized by the accumulation of soft, cheesy material, often seen in tuberculosis.

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Coliquative Necrosis

A type of necrosis that occurs in tissues with high water content, leading to the formation of a viscous, liquid mass.

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Phagocytosis

The process by which cells engulf and destroy foreign particles, such as bacteria and cellular debris.

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Lymphocyte

A type of white blood cell that plays a major role in the immune response by recognizing and destroying foreign invaders.

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Plasma cell

A type of white blood cell that is responsible for producing antibodies.

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Neutrophil

A type of white blood cell that is primarily involved in acute inflammation.

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Abscess

The accumulation of pus, a thick yellowish fluid consisting of dead white blood cells, bacteria, and cellular debris.

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Healing

The process by which the body repairs damaged tissue, involving the formation of new blood vessels and connective tissue.

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Chronic inflammation

A type of inflammatory response characterized by a persistent irritant and the formation of a granuloma.

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Granuloma

A small, localized collection of immune cells, primarily macrophages, that forms in response to a persistent irritant.

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Acute inflammation

A type of inflammatory response characterized by the rapid arrival of neutrophils and a localized influx of fluid.

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Histamine

A chemical messenger that plays a role in acute inflammation. It causes increased vascular permeability and pain.

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Macrophage

A type of cell that is involved in inflammation and phagocytosis. They can fuse together to form multinucleated giant cells.

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Prostaglandin

A type of chemical messenger that is derived from arachidonic acid and plays a role in inflammation.

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Cyclooxygenase

A type of enzyme that is involved in the production of prostaglandins.

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Transudate

A type of fluid that accumulates in tissues as a result of fluid buildup in the circulatory system.

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Exudate

The accumulation of fluid and cells in the interstitial spaces, often associated with inflammation.

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Granulomatous inflammation

A type of immune response characterized by the formation of granulomas, which are collections of immune cells that wall off infectious agents or foreign substances.

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Granuloma formation

The presence of granulomas (collections immune cells forming a wall) in an infection, indicating a specific immune response.

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Epitheloid cell

A specialized type of macrophage, a key component in granulomas that helps contain and fight off infections by engulfing and destroying foreign substances.

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Eosinophil

A type of cell involved in the body's defense against parasites and allergic reactions, often present in granulomas.

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Chemotactic factor

A protein that helps direct immune cells to specific areas where infection or inflammation is occurring, acting as a signal.

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Reactive oxygen species (ROS)

A highly reactive form of oxygen that plays a vital role in the killing of bacteria and other pathogens during phagocytosis by immune cells.

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Interleukin-1 (IL-1)

A chemical mediator that activates the body's defense against infections and inflammation, leading to the production of other inflammatory mediators.

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Opsonization

The process by which cells attach to and engulf foreign material, often using antibodies to recognize the targets.

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Mast cell

A type of cell that plays a role in the inflammation process, including releasing histamine, which causes the characteristic symptoms of allergy.

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Fibroblast

A type of cell that is involved in the later stages of inflammation and wound healing, helping to rebuild damaged tissues.

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Fibrous connective tissue

Describing the cells responsible for building new tissue, primarily fibroblasts which produce collagen, essential for wound healing.

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Foreign body reaction

A type of immune response that is characterized by the presence of giant cells and a specific type of white blood cell called the eosinophil.

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Cell-mediated immunity

A type of immune response that is characterized by the presence of lymphocytes, macrophages, and epitheloid cells, often forming granulomas.

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What is a harmful effect of acute inflammation?

Swelling of tissue due to fluid accumulation.

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Why are inflammatory exudates rich in protein?

Increased capillary permeability allows for leakage of protein-rich fluid into the tissues.

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What type of cell is found in the sputum of an asthmatic child?

Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell often found in allergic reactions and parasitic infections.

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What enhances phagocytosis?

Opsonins coat bacteria, making them more easily recognized and engulfed by phagocytes.

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What cells are involved in organization during tissue repair?

Fibroblasts and endothelial cells are key players in tissue repair and remodeling.

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What part of the microcirculation is most involved in the exudation of acute inflammation?

Venules are more permeable than other parts of the microcirculation, allowing for the leakage of fluid into the surrounding tissue.

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What cells are typically found in chronic inflammation?

Chronic inflammation is characterized by a longer duration and the presence of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages.

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What is a characteristic of macrophages?

Macrophages are phagocytic cells that play a key role in the immune system.

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What is a characteristic of an exudate?

Exudate is fluid rich in protein and cells that leaks out of blood vessels during inflammation.

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What is the most important factor in the formation of acute inflammatory exudates?

Increased vascular permeability is the key factor that allows for the formation of exudate.

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What causes increased vascular permeability?

Increased vascular permeability is caused by damage to endothelial cells, widening the gaps between them.

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What is the characteristic genetic abnormality in Turner Syndrome?

Turner Syndrome is characterized by a missing or incomplete X chromosome, resulting in short stature and infertility.

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What is the chromosomal abnormality in Down Syndrome?

Down Syndrome is caused by having an extra copy of chromosome 21.

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How are mitochondrial gene mutations inherited?

Mitochondrial genes are inherited from the mother.

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How are X-linked disorders inherited?

X-linked disorders are inherited from the mother.

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Connective tissue repair

A type of healing where new tissue is formed by proliferation of connective tissue elements, resulting in scar formation.

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Regeneration

The process of tissues replacing lost cells with the same type of cells, restoring normal structure and function.

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Combined regeneration and repair

A type of healing that involves both regeneration and connective tissue repair. It occurs when the damaged tissue contains both stable and labile cells.

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Scar tissue formation

A condition where tissues fail to regenerate due to chronic irritation or inflammation. It often leads to scar formation.

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Delayed healing

A delay in healing that can result from various factors, such as nutritional deficiencies, radiation exposure, or prolonged immobilization.

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Hypovolemic shock

A type of shock characterized by a decreased blood volume due to fluid loss, resulting in a drop in blood pressure and inadequate tissue perfusion.

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Septic shock

A type of shock characterized by widespread infection and inflammation, leading to decreased blood pressure and tissue perfusion due to vasodilation and fluid leakage.

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Cardiogenic shock

A type of shock characterized by impaired heart function, leading to decreased blood pressure and tissue perfusion.

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Neurogenic shock

A type of shock caused by a disruption in the nervous system's regulation of blood pressure, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.

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Thrombus

A blood clot that forms inside a blood vessel, obstructing blood flow.

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Embolus

A detached thrombus that travels through the bloodstream and lodges in a distant blood vessel, potentially causing blockage and tissue damage.

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Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A condition characterized by widespread clotting within the blood vessels, leading to consumption of clotting factors and potential bleeding.

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Fat embolus

A type of embolus that consists of fat globules released from a damaged bone, potentially traveling to the lungs and causing respiratory distress.

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Paradoxical embolus

A type of embolus that travels through a heart defect, bypassing the normal circulatory route. Often a pulmonary embolus.

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Cachexia

A severe wasting syndrome characterized by loss of muscle mass, fat, and appetite, often associated with chronic illnesses like cancer.

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Anemia

Anemia is a condition where the blood lacks enough healthy red blood cells or hemoglobin to carry adequate oxygen to the body's tissues.

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Wasting

Wasting refers to the loss of body weight and muscle mass, often due to a lack of nutrients or chronic illness.

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Tumor Necrosis Factor

Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that plays a role in the immune response and can contribute to cachexia.

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Acute Effects of Ionizing Radiation

Acute effects of ionizing radiation exposure include symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and skin changes.

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Primary Stage of Syphilis

The primary stage of syphilis is characterized by a painless chancre, a small ulcer at the site of infection.

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Dark-Field Microscopy for Syphilis

Dark-field microscopy helps to visualize the spirochetes, the bacteria that cause syphilis, in a sample from the chancre.

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Pathological Effects of Shock

Shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body is not receiving enough blood flow. Pathological effects include damage to organs and tissues.

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Hutchinson's Teeth

Hutchinson's Teeth, or peg-shaped teeth, are a characteristic feature of congenital syphilis, a condition affecting babies born to mothers with syphilis.

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Amoebiasis

In Amoebiasis, the perianal skin can be affected by the parasite, resulting in itching and discomfort.

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Lepromatous Leprosy

In Lepromatous Leprosy, the Lepromin test is negative, indicating a lack of cell-mediated immunity and a more severe form of the disease.

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Typhoid Fever Carrier State

A condition where bacteria persist in the body, often in the gallbladder, after a Typhoid fever infection.

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Benign Tumors

Non-cancerous growths often enclosed by a fibrous capsule, demonstrating slow and controlled growth.

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Cell Regeneration

The ability of certain cell types to regenerate and repair after injury, such as liver cells and renal tubular cells.

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Intestinal Hemorrhage in Typhoid Fever

A serious complication of Typhoid Fever, characterized by bleeding in the intestines.

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Primary Tuberculosis

A condition where the body's immune system overreacts to the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, leading to the formation of small, cheesy-like masses, known as granulomas.

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Oedema in Congestive Heart Failure

Accumulation of fluid in the tissues due to increased venous pressure and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, often seen in heart failure.

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Activation of Procarcinogens

The process by which a procarcinogen is converted into a cancer-causing agent by enzymes, particularly Cytochrome P450.

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Immune-Complex Glomerulonephritis

A condition where immune complexes deposit in the kidneys, leading to inflammation and damage of the kidney's filtering units.

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Basal Cell Carcinoma

A type of skin cancer that arises from the basal layer of the epidermis, often caused by exposure to UV radiation.

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Acute Hemopoietic Syndrome (Radiation)

A severe condition characterized by a decrease in all blood cell types, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, often seen after exposure to ionizing radiation.

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Leukemia

A type of cancer that affects the blood-forming tissues, particularly the bone marrow, leading to the production of abnormal white blood cells.

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Sarcoidosis

A condition characterized by granulomas in various organs, often affecting the lungs and lymph nodes, with a cause that is still unclear.

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Malaria

A disease characterized by the presence of parasites in the blood, typically spread by mosquitoes, leading to anemia and other symptoms, and resistance to the disease with Sickle Cell Trait is due to red blood cell sickle.

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Endarteritis Obliterans in Syphilis

The hallmark of Syphilis, characterized by inflammation of the blood vessel lining, often affecting the arteries.

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Acute Pulmonary Oedema of Heart Failure: Cause?

Fluid accumulation in the lungs caused by increased pressure in blood vessels pushing fluid out into the surrounding tissue. Think of it like a leaky hose, where the pressure inside the hose forces water out.

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DIC After Surgery: Cause?

The release of tissue thromboplastin, a clotting factor, from damaged tissue into the blood. This triggers a cascade of coagulation events, leading to excessive clotting.

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Stem Cells: Key Feature?

Stem cells are the building blocks of tissues, capable of self-renewal and creating daughter cells that can become specialized cells. They are not the predominant population in a tissue.

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Benign Tumors: Characteristic?

Benign tumors are non-cancerous, grow slowly, are well-defined, and do not invade surrounding tissues. Though they can secrete hormones, they do not spread to distant locations.

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Malignant Tumor with Best Prognosis?

Basal cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer with the best prognosis due to its slow growth rate and limited ability to spread.

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Blister Contents: Type of Exudate?

A blister's contents are characterized by clear, watery fluid, which is similar to the fluid found in the body's cavities. It is a type of exudate that is mostly fluid with few inflammatory cells.

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Edema: Cause?

Reduced plasma osmotic pressure, a condition where the blood has lower protein levels, leads to a decrease in the blood's ability to hold water within the vessels, causing fluid to leak into tissues. This is a common occurrence in nephrotic syndrome, where kidney disease causes protein loss in urine.

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Disease with Non-Caseating Granulomas?

Sarcoidosis is a disease that features non-caseating granulomas, distinct clusters of immune cells that do not contain the cheese-like substance found in tuberculosis.

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Nutmeg Liver: Cause?

Chronic hepatic congestion, a prolonged backlog of blood flow in the liver, causes a characteristic appearance known as nutmeg liver. It is characterized by dark red, congested areas interspersed with lighter areas. Think of the liver as a sponge that's filled with blood.

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Pyelonephritis: Predisposing Factor?

Diabetes Mellitus is a condition where excessive glucose in the blood can cause damage to blood vessels, predisposing individuals to inflammation of the kidneys, also known as pyelonephritis.

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Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis: Feature?

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis often involves subepithelial deposits, which are immune complexes that deposit beneath the lining of the glomeruli, which filters waste from the blood.

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Crescent Formation: Associated With?

Crescent formation in glomerulonephritis indicates the formation of a crescent-shaped structure composed of inflammatory cells and fibrin, often leading to a worsening of the condition.

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Dense Deposits Disease: Associated With?

Dense deposits disease is a form of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type II, a type of kidney inflammation characterized by the presence of dense deposits in the glomerular basement membrane.

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Disease with Low Serum Complement Levels?

Systemic Lupus Nephritis (SLE) and Acute Post-streptococcal nephritis are both characterized by low serum complement levels, often associated with an immune system attack against kidney cells.

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Papillary Necrosis: Not Associated With?

Papillary necrosis, a condition where the kidney's inner structures become damaged, is associated with sickle cell anemia, diabetes mellitus, and analgesic abuse. It is not associated with Wegener's granulomatosis.

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Renal Cell Carcinoma: False Statement?

Renal cell carcinoma, a type of kidney cancer, originates from the lining of the kidney tubules, not the glomeruli. The tumor cells are known to produce erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to polycythemia (increased red blood cell count).

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Post Hepatic Jaundice

Jaundice characterized by pale stools, absence of bilirubin in urine, and high levels of unconjugated bilirubin in the blood.

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Cercaria to Schistomulum

When a cercaria penetrates the skin of a human, it transforms into a schistomulum.

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Amyloid in Hemodialysis

B2-Microglobulin is the type of amyloid protein that is associated with long-term hemodialysis.

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Carcinogenesis Etiology

Food components, dietary fat, occupational exposures, and consumption of moldy food can all contribute to the development of cancer.

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Malignant Neoplasm

Malignant neoplasms are characterized by their ability to invade surrounding tissues and metastasize to distant sites.

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Metastatic Neoplasm in the Liver

A metastatic neoplasm in the liver most likely originated from a primary tumor in the cecum, colon, or pancreas, which are common sites for spread to the liver.

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Chemical Carcinogen Activation

Cytochrome-P450-dependent monooxygenases play a crucial role in activating chemical carcinogens, making them more likely to cause cancer.

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Carcinogenesis Factors

Several factors influence the ability of a chemical carcinogen to cause cancer, including the animal's capacity to repair DNA damage, detoxify the carcinogen, and activate it, as well as the presence of tumor promoters.

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Metastasis Site Selection

Factors that influence the spread of cancer to specific sites include the compatibility of the tumor's cell surface characteristics with those of the tissues at the target site.

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Tumor Markers

Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells or the body in response to cancer. They can be used to detect, monitor, and diagnose cancer.

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Late Mitsuda Reaction

The late Mitsuda reaction is strongly positive in tuberculoid leprosy, a form of leprosy characterized by a strong cell-mediated immune response.

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Snail Track Ulcers

Snail track ulcers are a characteristic finding in secondary syphilis, a stage of syphilis that involves widespread skin lesions.

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Hepar Lobatum and Syphilis

Hepar Lobatum, a liver enlargement with irregular shape, is a rare complication of syphilis, not a feature of secondary syphilis.

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VDRL Test

VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) is a non-specific test for syphilis, meaning it can be positive in other conditions, similar to RPR, but less accurate.

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Syphilitic Aortic Aneurysm

A type of aneurysm that occurs specifically in the thoracic aorta and is characterized by damage to the media and elastic fibers due to a syphilitic infection. It also features endarteritis of the vasa vasorum.

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Bilateral Hilar Lymphadenopathy

A key sign of secondary tuberculosis, characterized by enlarged lymph nodes on both sides of the chest.

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Syphilitic Primary Chancre

The initial, painless lesion of syphilis, appearing as a painless ulcer with a firm base and raised edges usually occurring on the external genitalia, often appearing three weeks after contact with an infected source.

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Schistosomal Portal Hypertension

A serious condition caused by schistosomiasis infection, where the liver becomes fibrotic and scarred, leading to various complications including ascites, esophageal varices, and portal hypertension.

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Eosinophilia in Schistosomiasis

It's mainly caused by the body's immune response to the schistosome parasites, particularly TH2, which stimulates the production of IL-4 and IL-5, leading to an increased number of eosinophils in the blood.

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Carcinoma of the Urinary Bladder

A possible long-term consequence of schistosomiasis infection that affects the urinary tract, leading to bladder cancer.

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Hydroureter and Hydronephrosis

A complication of schistosomiasis infection, especially in its urinary form, leading to urine being backed up in the ureters and kidneys.

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Ionizing Radiation Effects on Bone Marrow

Bone marrow is highly susceptible to damage caused by ionizing radiation.

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Sarcoidosis Effects on the Lungs

The lungs are the primary target of sarcoidosis, a chronic inflammatory disease.

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Flask-Shaped Ulcers

A characteristic feature of amoebiasis, these ulcers are flask-shaped, often found in the intestines.

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Typhoid Fever and Peyer's Patches

Typhoid fever causes inflammation and ulceration of Peyer's patches, which are groups of lymphatic tissue located in the small intestine.

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Ionizing Radiation and Oxygen Tension

Ionizing radiation has a more potent effect on cells when they have high oxygen tension.

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Pathological Lesions in Typhoid Fever

Typhoid fever primarily affects the ileocecal valve, the junction between the ileum (small intestine) and the cecum (large intestine).

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Acute Glomerulonephritis as an Immune-Complex Disease

Acute glomerulonephritis is an immune-complex disease, where immune complexes deposit in the kidneys, causing inflammation and damage.

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What causes splenic infarction?

Splenic infarction is typically caused by a blockage in the splenic artery, often due to an embolus traveling from the heart.

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Which factor is most important for healing after myocardial infarction?

Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) plays a crucial role in promoting new blood vessel formation, which is essential for healing and re-establishing blood supply in injured areas.

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When do red infarcts develop?

Red infarcts occur in organs with a dual blood supply, where the blood flow can still be partially maintained even with an arterial blockage.

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What is the most significant indicator for early myocardial infarction?

Troponin, a protein specific to heart muscle, is a highly sensitive and specific marker for early detection of myocardial infarction.

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Which is NOT a major risk factor for atherosclerosis?

Atherosclerosis is a complex disease with multiple risk factors, including family history, high cholesterol, lack of exercise, diabetes, and high blood pressure.

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Which organs are less vulnerable to infarction?

Organs with a dual blood supply, like the liver and lungs, are better protected from infarction because if one supply is blocked, the other can compensate.

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What type of cell does HIV target?

HIV targets CD4+ cells, which are essential for immune function. These cells are found on T helper cells and macrophages.

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What type of hypersensitivity reaction is asthma?

Asthma is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction, characterized by an overreaction of the immune system to allergens.

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What antibody is involved in Type I hypersensitivity?

IgE is the antibody primarily involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions, mediating allergic responses.

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What type of hypersensitivity causes acute graft rejection?

Acute graft rejection is primarily driven by a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, involving T-cell mediated immune response against the foreign graft.

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What is NOT true about SLE?

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder affecting various organs and tissues, often exhibiting a characteristic butterfly rash on the face.

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What cell type does HIV primarily affect?

HIV primarily targets cells expressing CD4 molecules, particularly T helper cells and macrophages, affecting the immune system.

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What is NOT true about Type I hypersensitivity?

Type I hypersensitivity reactions, characterized by immediate hypersensitivity to allergens, involve mast cell degranulation and release of histamine, not IgG.

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Which histological feature best indicates malignancy?

Invasion, the spread of a neoplasm into surrounding tissues, is the most reliable indicator of malignancy.

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Which infectious agent is associated with epithelioid cell formation?

Mycobacterium leprae, the causative agent of leprosy, is associated with the transformation of macrophages into epithelioid cells.

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What complication is most likely in a patient with a fractured femur and immobilization?

Pulmonary thromboembolism, a blockage in the pulmonary artery, is the most likely complication in an immobilized patient with a fractured femur, as deep vein thrombosis can easily dislodge and travel to the lungs.

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Which inflammatory cell product clears microorganisms?

Hydrogen peroxide, produced by inflammatory cells like neutrophils, acts as a powerful antimicrobial agent, contributing to the clearing of microorganisms in an inflammatory focus.

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Which cell releases mediators for allergic rhinitis?

Mast cells are responsible for releasing chemical mediators involved in allergic rhinitis, a common allergic reaction affecting the nose and sinuses.

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What mediator is likely involved in penicillin-induced anaphylaxis?

Histamine, a potent inflammatory mediator, is a key player in anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction that can be triggered by medication like penicillin.

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What cellular process occurs during fibrinolytic therapy for heart attack?

Apoptosis, a programmed cell death process, is the predominant mechanism occurring in the myocardium of a patient undergoing fibrinolytic therapy for myocardial infarction.

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What indicates a better prognosis for Breast cancer?

The absence of metastasis in sampled lymph nodes is a strong indicator of a better prognosis for breast cancer, suggesting that the cancer has not spread beyond the primary tumor.

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What is a characteristic of neoplasms?

Uncontrolled or autonomous growth, a characteristic of neoplasms, describes the abnormal and unregulated proliferation of cells.

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When is widespread edema likely?

Widespread edema, or swelling, is a common feature in hypoalbuminemia, a condition where there is a decrease in blood protein levels, leading to fluid accumulation in tissues.

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Visceral Leishmaniasis

A condition characterized by an enlarged spleen, weight loss, and bone marrow failure. Other symptoms can include fever, night sweats, and anemia. It is caused by a protozoan parasite called Leishmania.

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Small Cell Anaplastic Carcinoma of the Lung

A type of lung cancer that is highly aggressive and often spreads quickly. It is closely associated with smoking and is characterized by small, undifferentiated cells.

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Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

A relatively common autoimmune disease that primarily affects women. It can cause a wide range of symptoms including arthritis, fatigue, rash, and kidney problems.

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Lymphopenia

A condition characterized by a lower than normal number of lymphocytes in the blood. It can be caused by a variety of factors including HIV infection and certain medications.

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Ghon Focus

A small, hard nodule in the lung that is often seen in people with tuberculosis. It is caused by the body's immune response to the bacteria.

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Parathyroid Hormone

A hormone produced by the parathyroid glands that helps regulate calcium levels in the blood. It increases blood calcium levels by stimulating the release of calcium from bones and increasing the absorption of calcium in the intestines.

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Enlarged Peyer's Patches

Inflammation of the Peyer's patches, which are small, lymph-rich nodules found in the small intestine. This can be caused by a variety of infections, including typhoid fever and tuberculosis.

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Post-Primary Pulmonary TB

A stage of tuberculosis that develops in people who have been previously infected with the bacteria. It is characterized by the formation of cavities in the lungs and a hypersensitivity to the bacterial antigen.

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Schistosomiasis

A parasitic disease caused by a flatworm called Schistosoma. It is spread through contact with contaminated water and can cause a variety of symptoms including abdominal pain, fever, and blood in the urine.

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Macrocytic Anemia

A condition characterized by large, abnormal red blood cells. It is usually caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12 or folic acid.

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Amyloid

A complex substance that can accumulate in various tissues and organs, causing damage and dysfunction. It is a protein-based substance associated with different diseases.

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HIV Infection

A disease characterized by a lack of certain types of white blood cells, particularly lymphocytes. It is caused by a viral infection, and can progress to damage the immune system.

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Sickle Cell Disease

A disorder that affects red blood cells, causing them to become stiff and sickle-shaped. This can lead to episodes of pain, anemia, and organ damage.

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Hyperthyroidism

A condition characterized by excessive or abnormal production of thyroid hormone. It can cause a range of symptoms including weight loss, rapid heartbeat, and nervousness.

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Mycobacterium leprae growth media

Mycobacterium leprae, the bacteria that causes leprosy, cannot be cultured in standard laboratory media like Blood agar, Maconkey agar, or Lowenstein-Johnson Medium.

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Tumor that doesn't metastasize

Basal cell carcinoma, a type of skin cancer, is known for its slow growth and rarely metastasizes.

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What is NOT associated with Cardiovascular Syphilis?

Cardiovascular syphilis affects the aorta, leading to characteristic changes like a tree-bark appearance, inflammation of the vasa vasorum, and aortic aneurysm. However, aortic stenosis is not commonly associated with it.

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Specific test for Syphilis

The TPI (Treponema Pallidum Immobilization) test is considered a specific test for syphilis, meaning it is highly accurate in identifying the presence of the bacteria.

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Characteristic lung involvement

Sarcoidosis is characterized by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes in the chest area) and non-caseating granulomas in the lungs. These features are not typical of primary or post-primary tuberculosis, tuberculoid leprosy, or the bacteriuria phase of enteric fever.

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Hallmarks of Syphilis

The hallmarks of syphilis include endarteritis obliterans (inflammation and obstruction of small arteries), heavy plasma cell infiltrate (a type of white blood cell), and epitheloid granulomas (aggregations of immune cells).

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Cause of Psoas Cold Abscess

A psoas cold abscess is a collection of pus in the psoas muscle, often a consequence of tuberculosis. It occurs due to the infiltration of caseous material (dead tissue) from a tuberculous vertebra by neutrophils (a type of white blood cell).

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Sites of Primary Intestinal Tuberculosis

Primary intestinal tuberculosis commonly affects the ileocecal valve region, the junction between the small and large intestine. The oropharynx can also be involved.

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Features of Post-Primary Tuberculosis

Post-primary tuberculosis can arise from reinfection or reactivation of a previous infection. It most commonly affects the upper lobes of the lungs.

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Portal entry of Lepra Bacilli

Lepra bacilli, the bacteria that cause leprosy, can enter the body through the skin or the upper respiratory tract.

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What Immuno Deficient Patients are NOT prone to?

Immunocompromised individuals are more susceptible to bacterial, viral, fungal infections, and even certain cancers. However, autoimmune diseases are not more likely in this population.

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Amyloid associated with Chronic Inflammation

Amyloid associated with chronic inflammation is designated as AA.

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Where is Amyloid Material Deposited?

Amyloid material is deposited outside of cells, commonly found in tissues like the kidneys.

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Amyloid's appearance under polarized light

Under polarized light, amyloid stained with Congo Red exhibits a characteristic apple-green birefringence.

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What is a cause of Megaloblastic Anemia?

A deficiency in vitamin B12, essential for red blood cell development, leading to megaloblastic anemia.

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Another cause of Megaloblastic Anemia?

A lack of folate, a vital nutrient for DNA synthesis and cell division.

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What is NOT a cause of Iron Deficiency Anemia?

Involves the abnormal breakdown of red blood cells within blood vessels.

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What commonly triggers an Aplastic Crisis in Sickle Cell Anemia?

A severe decrease in the production of red blood cells, often caused by a viral infection.

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What is a causative agent of Osteomyelitis in Sickle Cell Anemia?

Typically caused by a common bacterium, leading to bone infections in individuals with Sickle Cell Anemia.

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What type of antibodies are involved in Cold Agglutinin Hemolytic Anemia?

These antibodies primarily belong to the IgM class, demonstrating their role in immune responses against cold temperatures.

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What type of red blood cells are found in Iron Deficiency Anemia?

Characterized by abnormally small and pale red blood cells, often resulting from a deficiency in iron.

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What type of anemia are lactating mothers most likely to develop?

Lactating mothers often experience increased iron requirements due to milk production.

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What characterizes Onchocerciasis with regards to the parasites?

The immune system's reaction to the presence of adult Onchocerca volvulus worms, causing inflammation around the worms.

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What is the Mazzotti Reaction?

A reaction that occurs after treatment with anti-filarial medications, associated with inflammation and skin lesions.

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What is a rare presentation of Chagas Disease?

Chagas disease causes various complications, including heart, digestive, and nervous system abnormalities.

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What is the second most common cause of blindness in Africa?

A bacterial infection affecting the eyes, a significant cause of blindness in Africa.

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What is Somatostatin?

A hormone that inhibits the release of growth hormone.

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What does NOT stimulate Growth Hormone Release?

Hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, tends to suppress the release of growth hormone.

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What is Prolactin?

A hormone primarily produced by the anterior pituitary gland, promoting milk production.

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How does sickle cell anemia protect against malaria?

Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder characterized by red blood cells that are sickle-shaped, leading to impaired oxygen carrying capacity and increased risk of clotting. However, these mutated red blood cells are less vulnerable to malaria infection due to their altered shape and shorter lifespan, making them less hospitable to the parasite.

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Which cell is the primary target of HIV in the CNS?

Microglia, a type of glial cell, are the dominant immune cells in the Central Nervous System (CNS). In HIV infection, these cells are the primary target for the virus.

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What characterizes RPGN?

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) is a serious kidney disease characterized by kidney inflammation and dysfunction. It's defined by crescents, which are formations in the glomeruli, and often leads to uremia (waste buildup).

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What disease is associated with sandy patches on the skin?

Sandy patches on the skin are a characteristic sign of dermal leishmaniasis. The parasite, Leishmania, infects the skin, causing these lesions.

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What cannot be detected in urine dipstick analysis?

Urine dipstick analysis is a quick and simple test for various substances in urine. However, it cannot detect ova of bilharzia, which requires microscopic examination.

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Which characteristic is NOT true about Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria?

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is a rare blood disorder where red blood cells are abnormally destroyed (hemolyzed) by the immune system. While some features are present, the hemolysis in this condition is intravascular, not extravascular.

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What factors increase susceptibility to infection by Tubercle Bacilli?

Factors like steroid therapy, HIV infection, diabetes mellitus, silicosis, and bronchial asthma can weaken the immune system and increase the risk of developing tuberculosis.

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What condition is caused by amyloid deposits in the kidney?

Amyloid deposits, which are abnormal protein clumps, in the kidney can lead to nephrotic syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by protein leakage in the urine, causing swelling and other complications.

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What is a characteristic finding in Acromegaly?

Acromegaly, a condition caused by excessive growth hormone production, is characterized by high levels of somatomedins, which are growth-promoting hormones. This excess hormone leads to bone overgrowth, enlargement of the hands and feet, and other features.

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Which feature is NOT found in Acute Diffuse Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis?

Acute diffuse post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease caused by an immune response to a recent streptococcal infection. It shows several characteristic features like low serum complement (C3), hypercellular glomeruli, and red cell casts in urine, but it does not involve the formation of antibodies against the glomerular basement membrane.

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Study Notes

Pathology MCQs - Study Notes

  • Permanent Parenchymal Cells: Liver cells are an example of permanent parenchymal cells.

  • Acute Pancreatitis Necrosis: Fat necrosis is the type of necrosis seen in peripancreatic tissue during acute pancreatitis.

  • Bronchial Metaplasia: The change of columnar epithelium in bronchi to squamous epithelium is known as metaplasia.

  • Metastatic Calcification: This occurs in necrotic tissue due to hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, and is related to chronic inflammation, not malignancy.

  • Irreversible Cell Injury: Karyorrhexis (nuclear fragmentation) is a feature of irreversible cell injury, not the depletion of glycogen stores, increased cytoplasmic sodium, diminished intracellular pH, or formation of cell membrane blebs.

  • Breast Lactation: Stromal hypertrophy and lobular hyperplasia are processes in the breast that allow the mother to breastfeed.

  • Diabetic Gangrene: An amputated limb exhibiting black discoloration and yellowish exudates in a diabetic patient is characterized as gangrenous necrosis.

  • Focal Fat Necrosis: This finding, often with chalky tan-white material in the omentum, is most commonly associated with acute pancreatitis.

  • Gangrene of Toes: In a 60-year-old male, gangrene of the toes is most commonly associated with diabetes mellitus.

  • Lower Esophageal Metaplasia: The presence of columnar epithelium with goblet cells in the lower esophagus suggests metaplasia.

  • Tuberculous Lymph Node Calcification: Dystrophic calcification explains the calcium deposits in tuberculous lymph nodes.

  • Lipofuscin Deposition: This age-related pigment buildup in myocardial fibers is a result of autophagy.

  • Irreversible vs Reversible Cell Injury: Nuclear pyknosis (nuclear shrinkage) is an indicator of irreversible cell injury, not cytoplasmic fatty change, atrophy, or anaerobic glycolysis.

  • Antioxidant: Glutathione peroxidase and catalase are antioxidants.

  • Left Middle Cerebral Artery Occlusion: Cerebral softening from liquefactive necrosis is most likely.

  • Putrefactive Bacteria and Necrosis: The action of putrefactive bacteria on necrotic tissue results in gangrene, not coagulation, infarction, or embolism.

  • Ischemic Necrosis Type: Coagulative necrosis is most strongly linked to ischemic injury.

  • Free Radical Inactivation Enzymes: Superoxide dismutase and vitamin E both help inactivate free radicals.

  • Hepatocytes: These are stable cells.

  • Calcium in Cell Injury: Calcium plays a role in cell injury by causing ATP depletion and activating phospholipases.

  • Sublethal Cell Injury: Fatty change is a common manifestation of reversible cell injury in the heart and liver.

  • Bronchial Squamous Metaplasia: An area of keratinizing squamous epithelium lining a bronchus is characteristic of metaplasia.

  • Enzymes in Abscess Liquefaction: The enzymes responsible are predominantly from neutrophils.

  • Hyperplasia Exceptions: Skeletal muscle growth after weight training is not an example of hyperplasia.

  • Apoptosis Characteristics: Apoptosis is programmed cell death, occurs in single cells/small clusters, doesn't lead to a cheese-like appearance, and doesn't usually trigger an inflammatory response.

  • Cellular Injury Sensitive Systems: Aerobic respiration, maintenance of cell membrane integrity, protein synthesis, and the integrity of the genetic apparatus are all sensitive to cell injury.

  • Apoptosis and Cellular Targets: Cells infected with viruses, cells with DNA damage, and cells with elevated oxidants can all undergo apoptosis.

  • Definition of Apoptosis: Programmed cell death is a correct description of apoptosis.

  • Hyperplasia Characteristics: Hyperplasia is reversible and can occur because of excess hormone stimulation, but it isn't a precancerous condition.

  • Early Nuclear Change: Early clumping of nuclear chromatin is most associated with decreased DNA synthesis.

  • Enzymatic Fat Necrosis: The digestion of tissue with soap formation and calcification is seen in this type of necrosis.

  • Reversible Cell Injury, Exceptions: Renal tubular cell nuclear pyknosis represents irreversible cell injury, not reversible injury.

  • Cerebral Infarction Consequences: Cerebral softening due to liquefactive necrosis is likely in a stroke with blood vessel blockage.

  • Dystrophic Calcification Examples: A healing granuloma in a person with pulmonary tuberculosis is a good example of dystrophic calcification.

  • Irreversible Cell Injury Evidence: Nuclear pyknosis signifies irreversible cell injury, not epithelial dysplasia, cytoplasmic fatty change, atrophy, or anaerobic glycolysis.

  • Lower Esophageal Columnar Epithelium: The presence of columnar epithelium with goblet cells in the lower esophagus suggests metaplasia.

  • Hypertrophy Examples: The uterine myometrium during pregnancy is a good example of hypertrophy.

  • Metaplasia Causes: Vitamin A deficiency, not sunlight exposure or pregnancy/lactation, is a primary cause of metaplasia.

  • Myocardial Pigment in Aging: Lipofuscin deposition is a common age-related change in the myocardium.

  • Ischemic Tissue Susceptibility: The spleen, not skeletal muscle, small intestinal epithelium, or the retina, is more susceptible to ischemia.

  • Amputated Diabetic Foot: Gangrenous necrosis is the most likely finding.

  • Dystrophic Calcification Association: Necrosis, not hypercalcemia or diminished blood supply, is the most closely associated factor.

  • Calcium Deposition in Tissue: Dystrophic calcification describes calcium deposition in dead or dying tissue.

  • Necrosis Characterization: Caseous necrosis is characterized by amorphous granular debris, not coagulation, liquefaction, fat, or gangrenous necrosis.

  • Calcium Deposition in Tuberculous Nodes: Dystrophic calcification.

  • Liquefactive Necrosis Locations: The brain is the most susceptible tissue to liquefactive necrosis after ischemic injury.

  • Hypoplasia Causes: Inadequate development, not cell loss or atrophy, describes hypoplasia.

  • Loss of Cell Fragmentation: Apoptosis, not Coagulative Necrosis, Mitochondrial Poisoning, or Phagocytosis, is the loss of an individual cell due to fragmentation.

  • Perinuclear Pigment: Lipofuscin is the light brown perinuclear pigment seen in old muscle fibers.

  • Hypertensive Heart Enlargement: Hypertrophy is the term for the heart's enlargement due to hypertension.

  • Gangrene of Toe - Possible Cause: Diabetes Mellitus.

  • Focal Fat Necrosis Cause: Acute Pancreatitis.

  • Cigarette Smoking Effects (Not): Inhibition of alveolar leukocytes and macrophages.

  • Gangrene Cause: Diabetes Mellitus.

  • Reversible Cell Injury - Feature (Not): Pyknotic Nucleus, while reversible, is a late stage change.

  • Gangrene Color Change: Breakdown of hemoglobin.

  • Irreversible Cell Injury - Feature (Not): Increased DNA synthesis.

  • Coliquative Necrosis Features: It results in the complete loss of tissue architecture in tissues with a high water content.

  • Apoptosis Truths: Apoptosis is programmed cell death requiring cell energy.

  • Apoptosis Roles: Apoptosis targets infected cells, cells with DNA damage, and cells containing excessive oxidants.

  • Calcium Role Summary: Calcium depletion is responsible for initiating harmful cellular processes such as ATP depletion and Phospholipase activation.

  • Irreversible Cellular Changes: Hydropic change, pyknosis, and karyorrhexis.

  • Abnormal Pigmentation Conditions: Pregnancy, not Conn's syndrome, pernicious anemia, tattooing, or Addison's disease, does not normally have abnormal pigmentation.

  • Apoptosis's Inflammatory Reaction: It doesn't trigger a substantial inflammatory reaction.

  • Necrosis Features (Not): Loss of RNA isn't a universally consistent feature.

  • Coagulative Necrosis Exception: The deposition of fibrinolysis, not other listed features; is not a characteristic of this process.

  • Caseous Necrosis Association: Inpissated pus.

  • Atrophy Causes (Not): Increased trophic hormone secretion.

  • Dystrophic Calcification Nature: Irreversible.

  • Irreversible Cellular Change Examples: Karyolysis in myocardial cells, not fatty change, hydropic vacuolization, glycogen deposition, or breast hyperplasia, is irreversible.

  • Metaplasia Sites (Not): Salivary gland ducts, not nose, jejunum, or renal pelvis, are not typical sites of squamous metaplasia.

  • Colliquative Necrosis Locations: The brain.

  • Granulation Tissue Features: Proliferation of fibroblasts and new capillaries.

  • Effective Bacterial Killer in Neutrophils: Conversion of H2O2 to HOCl by myeloperoxidase.

  • Neutrophil Emigration Cause: Chemotaxis.

  • Endothelial Cell Acute Inflammation Marker: E-selectin.

  • Neutrophil-Characteristic Inflammatory Pattern: Acute bacterial infection.

  • Granuloma Epitheloid Cells Origin: Macrophages.

  • Prostaglandin Formation Enzyme: Cyclooxygenase.

  • Abscess Cavity Contents: Pus.

  • Transudate Exceptions: Nephrotic syndrome, not congestive heart failure, superior vena cava obstruction, pericarditis.

  • Granuloma Diagnostic Feature: The presence of epitheloid cells.

  • Non-Granuloma Examples: Staphylococcal infections.

  • Epitheloid Cell Formation Mediator: Gamma interferon.

  • First Inflammatory Cell: Neutrophils.

  • Exudate Features (Not): Low specific gravity.

  • Powerful Chemotactic Agent: Complement C5a.

  • Acute Inflammation Biopsy Findings (Not): Fibrous connective tissue, not other listed features.

  • Granulomatous Inflammation Mediator: Interferon gamma.

  • Acute Chest Infection Finding: Abscess formation.

  • Tuberculous Granuloma Cell: Macrophages.

  • Interstitial Lung Fibrosis Cause: Foreign body giant cell formation.

  • Acute Inflammation Pain Mediator: Prostaglandins and bradykinin.

  • Foreign Body Reaction Cell: Giant cells.

  • Antigen Killing in Phagocytosis: Myeloperoxidase.

  • Phagocytosis Deficiency Cause: Deficiency in C3b.

  • Granulation Tissue Features (Not): Epitheloid cells.

  • Early Granulation Tissue Components: Fibronectin and type III collagen.

  • Apoptosis and Inflammation: Phagocytic cells suppress inflammation during apoptosis.

  • Opsonization Definition: Coating of the antigen with antibodies.

  • Granuloma Feature (Not): Polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

  • Exudate with Eosinophils: Bronchial asthma and parasitic disease.

  • Organization Involvment: Macrophages and endothelial cells, and fibroblasts and endothelial cells.

  • Inflammation Tumor Cause: Capillary dilation.

  • Acute Inflammation Pain Mediator: Bradykinin.

  • Harmfull Effects of Acute Inflammation (Not): Dilution of toxins.

  • Exudate High Protein Cause: Increased vascular permeability.

  • Asthmatic Sputum Finding: Eosinophils.

  • Phagocytosis Enhancer: Osponin and lysozyme.

  • Organization Involvment: Macrophages and endothelial cells, and fibroblasts.

  • Acute Inflammation Permeability Change Focus: Venules.

  • Chronic Inflammation Cell Types: Plasma cells, lymphocytes, fibroblasts, and monocytes.

  • Macrophage Characteristics (Not): Are not the main cells in acute inflammation

  • Exudate Features (Not): Is due to low plasma oncotic pressure.

  • Acute Inflammatory Exudate Formation Key Factor: Increased vascular permeability.

  • Increased Vascular Permeability Cause: Damage to endothelial cells and increased gap size between endothelial cells.

  • Karyorrhexis Definition: Fragmentation of the cell.

  • 45x Karyotype Implications: Turner syndrome.

  • Down Syndrome: Trisomy 21 (extra chromosome 21).

  • Mitochondrial Gene Inheritance: Inherited from the mother.

  • Y-linked Disorders Absence: Affected males are usually infertile.

  • X-Linked Disorder Inheritance: Inherited from the mother.

  • Autosomal Recessive Inheritance: Usually more severe than autosomal dominant disorders.

  • Autosomal Recessive Disorders Exclusion: Sickle Cell Anemia is autosomal recessive, not an exception.

  • Mendelian Disorders Cause: Single-gene defect.

  • Autosomal Recessive Inheritance Example: Cystic fibrosis.

  • Wound Healing Closure and Regeneration: Granulation tissue plays a key role.

  • Delaying Wound Repair Factors (Not): Glucocorticoids.

  • Regeneration and Connective Tissue Repair: Bone fractures and renal tubular necrosis.

  • Fracture Healing Inhibitor: Steroid therapy.

  • Shock Characteristics: Peripheral vasodilation at onset, not blood transfusion or normal blood volume.

  • Hypovolemic Shock Causes Exclusions: Myocardial infarction.

  • Shock Tissue Resistance: Skeletal muscle, but not the small intestine, retina, or myocardium, is more resistant to shock-related ischemia.

  • Shock Related to Burns: Hypovolemic shock.

  • Hypovolemic Shock Causes (Not): Myocardial Infarction.

  • Arterial Thrombi Characteristics (Not): The growth direction is typically in the direction of blood flow, not away from the flow.

  • Venous Thrombi Characteristics (Not): Always results in infarction, usually related to stasis.

  • Causes of Thrombosis Exclusion: Factor VIII deficiency.

  • Sequelae of Thrombosis (Not): Propagation. Thrombi may have sequelae of embolisms and resolution with recanalization.

  • Thrombosis Predisposition Exclusions: Thrombocytopenia is a predisposition factor, not an exclusion.

  • Thrombosis Causes (Not): Antithrombin III high levels are antithrombotic, not a cause.

  • DIC Associated Findings (Not): Thrombocytosis (increased platelets).

  • Deep Vein Thrombosis Predisposition Exclusion: Factor VIII deficiency.

  • Thrombi Truths (Not): Thrombi do not always cause complete occlusion and infarction.

  • Thrombosis Associations (Not): Hemophilia.

  • Fat Emboli Causes: Fracture of the femur.

  • Paradoxical Emboli: Due to the presence of an interventricular/interatrial defect/opening

  • Pulmonary Emboli Characteristics (Not): Consistently causing infarction, not all cases result in infarction.

  • Detached Intravascular Material: Emboli.

  • Myocardial Infarction Healing: VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor).

  • Red Infarcts Location: Spleen, lung, intestine.

  • Early Myocardial Infarction Diagnosis: Troponin.

  • Atherosclerosis Risk Factor Exclusion: Family history.

  • Infarction Susceptibility - Dual Blood Supply: Liver and lungs.

  • HIV Target Cells: Cells expressing CD4 molecules.

  • Asthma Type: Type I hypersensitivity reaction.

  • IgE Role: Type I hypersensitivity reaction.

  • Graft Rejection Type: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

  • SLE Characteristics (Not): Not common in males.

  • HIV Primary Target: Cells expressing CD4 molecules.

  • Type I Hypersensitivity Characteristics (Not): IgG is not the primary antibody.

  • Malignancy Indicator: Invasion (of surrounding tissue) and increased nuclear cytoplasmic ratio.

  • Epitheloid Cell Transformation Agent: Mycobacterium leprae.

  • Complication in 76-Year-Old Woman: Pulmonary thromboembolism, not gangrenous necrosis, haematoma, DIC, or soft tissue sarcoma.

  • Substance Responsible for Microorganism Clearance in Inflammation: Hydrogen peroxide.

  • Allergic Rhinitis Mediator Cell Origin: Mast cells.

  • Anaphylaxis Mediator: Histamine.

  • Myocardial Infarction and Fibrinolytic Agent Impact: Free radical injury.

  • Better Breast Cancer Prognosis Factors: Small tumor size and no metastases.

  • Malignancy Feature: Uncontrolled/autonomous growth.

  • Generalized Edema Causes: Lymphatic obstruction, capillary damage, hypoalbuminaemia.

  • Pulmonary Edema Cause - Heart Failure: Increased vascular hydrostatic pressure, not decreased colloidal osmotic pressure.

  • DIC in Extensive Surgery Causes: Tissue thromboplastin entering the circulation.

  • Stem Cell Features (Not): The predominant population in a tissue, not self-renewal or lineage generation.

  • Benign Tumor Characteristics (Not): Infiltrating adjacent cells, not encapsulation or well-differentiated structures.

  • Best Prognosis Malignant Tumor: Basal cell carcinoma.

  • Blister Fluid Type: Serous.

  • Generalized Edema Cause: Decreased plasma oncotic pressure.

  • Non-Caseating Granulomas: Sarcoidosis.

  • Nutmeg Liver Cause: Chronic hepatic congestion.

  • Pyelonephritis Predisposition Exclude: Renal artery stenosis.

  • Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis Deposits: Subepithelial deposits.

  • Crescents Association: RPGN (rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis).

  • Dense Deposits Disease Association: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Type II.

  • Low Serum Complement Levels Diseases: Systemic Lupus Nephritis and acute poststreptococcal nephritis.

  • Papillary Necrosis Associations (Not): Wegener's Granulomatosis.

  • Renal Cell Carcinoma (Not): The tumor originates from the glomeruli (not the tubules).

  • Amoebic Liver Abscess (Not): Jaundice is often a symptom, but not always present.

  • Plasmodium falciparum complications (Not): Severe gastroenteritis.

  • Aflatoxin B1 Associated Tumor: Hepatocellular carcinoma.

  • Amyloid Falsehood: Complication of Bronchiectasis.

  • Typhoid Fever Feature (Not): Necrotizing granulomas.

  • Non-Tumor Marker: Thromboxane A2, not other listed options.

  • Tumor Markers: AFP, CEA, PSA, hCG.

  • Lymphatic Edema Causes (Not): Sarcoidosis, not other listed options.

  • Hypokalemia Causes (Not): Metabolic Alkalosis.

  • Cachexia Features (Not): Hypoplasia.

  • Ionizing Radiation Acute Effects (Not): Leukemia (although a long-term effect).

  • Disease Diagnosis - Primary Stage of Syphilis: Dark-field microscopy for Treponema pallidum.

  • Granuloma Exclusion: Cerebral malaria.

  • Shock Effects (Not): Metabolic alkalosis.

  • Peg-Shaped Teeth Disease: Congenital syphilis.

  • Amoebiasis features (Not): Condylomata Lata.

  • Necrosis Consequences (Not): Resolution, not other listed options.

  • Lepromatous Leprosy Feature (Not): Spontaneous cure, not other listed options.

  • Bilharzial Portal Hypertension (Not): Hepatic failure is typically a late complication, not an early one.

  • Gumma Location: Tertiary syphilis predominantly in the liver and testes, not other listed options.

  • Hepar Lobatum Description: Periportal fibrosis.

  • Metaplasia Association: Chronic irritation.

  • Sarcoidosis Lung X-Ray: Bilateral enlarged hilar lymph nodes.

  • Primary Tuberculosis Sites (Not): Intestine, not other listed options.

  • Sarcoid Lesion Feature (Not): Caseous necrosis.

  • Bilharzial Portal Hypertension Manifestations (Not): Haematemesis is not a common feature.

  • Visceral Leishmaniasis Feature (Not): Bleeding tendency.

  • Pulmonary Tuberculosis Primary Focus (Not): Haemoptysis, although possible.

  • Typhoid Fever Early Diagnosis: Blood culture, not widal or other listed options.

  • Pulmonary Edema Exceptions: Lung fibrosis.

  • Plasmodium falciparum Not a Feature: Generalized lymphadenopathy.

  • Lepromatous Leprosy Feature: Thickening of nerves.

  • Amyloidosis Exceptions: It is protein in nature, not other listed options.

  • Amoebic Liver Abscess (Not): The left lobe is not commonly involved.

  • Typhoid Intestinal Features (Not): Involvement of Plasma Cell Infiltration isn't the defining characteristic.

  • Benign Tumor Characteristics (Not): Metastasis and hyperchromatic nuclei, and infiltration.

  • Typhoid Fever Carrier State: Persistent intestinal ulcers, not other listed options.

  • Non-Regenerative Cells: Neurons.

  • Typhoid Fever Features (Not): Rose spots in the intestinal mucosa (they are external).

  • Serious Typhoid Fever Complications (Not): Amyloidosis.

  • Primary Tuberculosis Sites: Oropharynx and ileocecal region.

  • Congestive Heart Failure Edema Cause: Generalized increase in venous pressure.

  • Typhoid Fever Diagnosis Exclusion: VDRL (which is for syphilis), not other listed options

  • Chemical Procarcinogen Activation Requiring Enzyme: P450-dependent oxygenase.

  • Immune-Complex Glomerulonephritis Association: Amoebic dysentery.

  • UV Light-Induced Tumor: Basal cell carcinoma.

  • Skin Cancer Susceptibility: Radiology technologists are commonly more exposed to harmful rays.

  • Leukemia/Lymphoma Associated Factor: Cyclophosphamide.

  • Schistosomiasis Granuloma Stimulator: Soluble egg antigens.

  • Hepatomegaly and High Leukocytes Disease: Visceral leishmaniasis, or extra intestinal amoebiasis, not other listed options.

  • Chemical Carcinogen Properties (Not): Hetrophilic, not other listed options.

  • Sarcoidosis Features (Not): Caseating granuloma.

  • Nitrosamine Precursor Food: Preserved food (not others).

  • Sickle Cell Malaria Resistance Mechanism: Sickling of red blood cells and removal in the spleen.

  • Sandy Patches Disease: Dermal leishmaniasis.

  • Pipe-Stern Fibrosis Description: The presence of fibrosis in Liver following Schistosomiasis.

  • Asteroid Bodies Feature: Sarcoidosis (not others, listed).

  • Tertiary Syphilis Hallmark: Endarteritis obliterans (vascular obliteration due to inflammation).

  • Syphilitic Aortic Aneurysm Features: Endarteritis and Periaortitis, located in the Thoracic Aorta, not other listed options

  • Snail Track Ulcers Disease: Cutaneous Leishmaniasis, not other listed.

  • Bilateral Hilar Lymphadenopathy Feature: Sarcoidosis.

  • Primary Chancre Features (Not): Painful nodule; instead, a hard, painless nodule is characteristic and will heal spontaneously.

  • Not a feature of Schistosomal Portal Hypertension: Markedly disturbed liver function does often accompany the condition.

  • Schistosomiasis Eosinophilia Stimulus: TH2 cell mediators (IL-4 and IL-5) and other listed mediators.

  • Late Urinary Schistosomiasis Complication: Bladder carcinoma, not others listed.

  • Immune-Complex Glomerulonephritis Association: Mostly extraintestinal amoebiasis.

  • Hydroureter and Hydronephrosis Cause: Urinary Schistosomiasis.

  • Ionizing Radiation Impact: Bone marrow.

  • Sarcoidosis Tissue Affected Primarily: Lungs.

  • Flask-Shaped Ulcers Disease: Typhoid fever.

  • Peyer's Patch Ulceration Disease: Typhoid fever

  • Ionizing Radiation Maximum Effect: Low oxygen tension.

  • Typhoid Pathogen Best Seen in: Ileum-cecal valve.

  • Immune Complex Disorders: Post-streptococcal and other glomerulonephritis, not others listed.

  • Fibrosis Post-Radiation: Stimulation of fibroblast proliferation by cytokines.

  • Leishmaniasis Killing Mechanism: -Interferon and TNF-, not others primarily.

  • Septic Shock Pathogenesis Factors: Bacterial wall, IL-1, IL-8.

  • Post Kala-Azar Dermal Leishmaniasis (NKDL) Features (Not): Healing spontaneously within few months, not other features listed, is less likely.

  • Visceral Leishmaniasis Diagnosis: Bone marrow aspirate for detection, not other listed.

  • Amyloid AL Deposition: Multiple myeloma.

  • Unconjugated Bilirubin Characteristics (Not): Is excreted in urine, not other listed features.

  • Post-Hepatic Jaundice Features (Not): Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, not other listed features.

  • Primary Tuberculosis Characteristics (Not): Majority of patients are asymptomatic (usually symptom heavy) and hilar lymph nodes are usually involved, not other listed options.

  • Cercaria Skin Penetration Transformation: Schistomulum.

  • Schistosoma Mansoni and Japonicum Complications: Hematuria, hepatocellular carcinoma, malabsorption, but not others.

  • Condyloma Latum Disease: Secondary syphilis.

  • Gummas Occurrence: Tertiary syphilis.

  • Hepar Lobatum Description: Multiple gummas visible in the liver.

  • Metaplasia Association (True): Chronic irritation, not other listed.

  • Sarcoidosis Chest X-Ray: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.

  • Primary Tuberculosis Locations (Not): Oesophagus

  • Sarcoid Lesion Histology (Not): Caseating necrosis.

  • Bilharzial Portal Hypertension Features (Not): Splenomegaly is not mainly from macrophage proliferation.

  • Visceral Leishmaniasis Features (Not): Intermittent fever (or no fever).

  • Pulmonary Tuberculosis Primary Focus Features (Not): Assmann's Focus is not a formal recognized feature.

  • Typhoid Fever Early Bacteremic Phase Diagnosis: Blood culture.

  • Pulmonary Oedema Exceptions: Lung fibrosis.

  • Plasmodium falciparum Features (Not): Generalized lymphadenopathy.

  • Lepromatous Leprosy Features: Scanty bacilli and thickened nerves, not other identified options.

  • Amyloidosis Exception: Lipid-based nature (it's protein).

  • Amoebic Liver Abscess Features (Not): The left lobe is not commonly involved.

  • Features Missing in Typhoid Intestinal Lesions: Infiltration by plasma cells (though present, not the key defining feature).

  • Typhoid Fever Carrier Cause: Persistent intestinal ulcers, not other listed.

  • Non-Regenerative Cells: Neurons, not other options.

  • Typhoid Fever Characteristics (Not): The large intestine is typically the target organ.

  • Serious Typhoid Fever Complications (Not): Perforation of the intestine (not all) is a complication.

  • Primary Tuberculosis Sites, not other listed options

  • Congestive Heart Failure Edema Causes: Generalized increase in venous pressure.

  • Type of Oedema in Congestive Heart Failure: Lymphatic obstruction.

  • Chemical Carcinogen Activation: P450-dependent oxygenase is the primary system.

  • Metastatic Deposition Favorability Factors: Compatibility of cell surface characteristics and receptor tissue availability.

  • Tumor Marker (Not): Aflatoxin (not a marker).

  • Mitsuda Reaction Positive Disease: Lepromatous leprosy.

  • Snail Track Ulcers Disease: Cutaneous or post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (not others)

  • Secondary Syphilis Feature (Not): Hepar Lobatum, not others.

  • Non-Specific Syphilis Test: VDRL (not others listed).

  • Bodies in Sarcoidosis: Asteroid and (Shaumann) bodies.

  • Syphilis Transmission: Sexual contact, transplacental (in utero), and accidental inoculation.

  • Lepromatous Leprosy Feature (Not): Production of antibodies to various antigens.

  • Syphilis Primary Chancre Feature (Not): A hard, painful nodule; instead, it is a painless nodule.

  • Not a Malignant Tumor: Lung hamartoma (instead of others).

  • Peg-Shaped Teeth and Disease: Congenital (present at birth) syphilis.

  • Epitheloid Cell Formation Inducer: -Interferon.

  • Leprosy with Strong Cell Mediated Response: Tuberculoid leprosy (not others).

  • Tubercle Bacilli Lab Growth Medium: Lowenstain-Johnson medium.

  • Non-Metastasizing Tumor: Basal cell carcinoma (not others listed).

  • Cardiovascular Syphilis Exceptions: Aortic stenosis (not an exclusive feature).

  • Specific Syphilis Test: TPI.

  • Bilateral Hilar Lymphadenopathy & Non-Caseating Granulomas Cause: Sarcoidosis.

  • Syphilis Hallmarks: Endarteritis Obliterans and Heavy Plasma Cell Infiltrate.

  • Psoas Cold Abscess Cause: Inflammation of the vertebral column due to tuberculous or other infection (i.e post infectious pyogenic infection)

  • Primary Intestinal Tuberculosis Sites: Ileocaecal valve region and oropharynx

  • Features of Post-Primary Tuberculosis: Re-infection or re-activation and common in the upper lobes.

  • Lepra Bacilli Portal Entry: Skin (Cutaneous) and upper respiratory tract.

  • Immunocompromised Patient Susceptibility (Not): Autoimmune diseases.

  • Amyloid Type in Chronic Inflammation: AA-Amyloid.

  • Amyloid Deposition: Extracellular, not intracellular.

  • Amyloid Congo Red Stain: Apple-green birefringence.

  • Visceral Leishmaniasis Diagnosis: Bone marrow examination for Leishman-Donovan bodies (LD bodies).

  • Leishmaniasis Course Determinants: Host T-cell response and Leishmania species.

  • V. leishmaniasis Falsehood: Not common in Sudan (it's prevalent - not a falsehood).

  • Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia Exception: Stone in the common bile duct is obstruction, not an actual high level of unbound bilirubin.

  • Rotor Syndrome Feature (Not): Defective conjugation of bilirubin (not other listed features).

  • Secondary Immunodeficiencies Causes (Not): DiGeorge's syndrome.

  • Cellular Immunodeficiency Features (Not): Pyogenic (bacterial) infections, or bacterial abscesses.

  • Worst Prognosis in Amyloidosis: Renal failure.

  • Plasma Bilirubin Composition (Not): 95% conjugated (most is conjugated, not all is).

  • Kala-azar Meaning: Black fever

  • Sickle Cell Anemia Inheritance: Autosomal recessive.

  • Sickle Cell Anemia Onset: Often at or shortly after birth, or in early childhood, not always fully developed later in life

  • Hemolytic Anemia Morphology: Reticulocytosis and increased normoblasts in the bone marrow (not just one).

  • Megaloblastic Anemia Causes: B12 deficiency, B6 deficiency, and folate deficiency.

  • Iron Deficiency Anemia Causes (Not): Intra-vascular hemolysis (instead of other).

  • Aplastic Crisis in Sickle Cell Cause: Parvovirus B19 infection.

  • Osteomyelitis Causative Agent in Sickle Cell: Salmonella, not other listed options.

  • Antibodies in Cold Agglutinin Hemolytic Anemia: IgM

  • Hypochromic Microcytic RBCs in: Iron deficiency anemia (among others).

  • Lactating Mothers and Anemia: Iron deficiency anemia.

  • Onchocerciasis Feature: Inflammation around adult worms is characteristic.

  • Mazzotti Reaction Nature: Immune reaction to anti-filarial drugs.

  • Chagas Disease Exclusions: Leptomeningitis (brain inflammation) is not a common associated disease here.

  • Second Common Cause of Blindness (Africa): Onchocerciasis.

  • Somatostatin: Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone.

  • Growth Hormone Release Stimulators (Not): Hyperglycemia, instead of other identified option factors (listed) for growth hormone regulation are present here.

  • Prolactin Release Inhibitor: TSH, instead of other identified factor inhibitors (listed) for prolactin release are present here.

  • FSH in Males: Stimulates spermatogenesis (not other options - solely).

  • LH Release Origin: Anterior pituitary.

  • Early Pituitary Failure Features: TSH deficiency.

  • Excess Growth Hormone in Adults: Acromegaly and reduced bone growth in the feet

  • Excessive Growth Hormone Features (Not): Decreased head circumference (instead of high).

  • Physiological Hyperprolactinemia Causes (Not): Prolactinoma (not other options).

  • Diabetes Insipidus Nature: ADH deficiency.

  • Polyuria/Polydipsia Causes (Not): Hypocalcemia, not others.

  • Male Androgen Source: Testes, not others typically.

  • Adrenal Hypofunction Test: Cosyntropin stimulation test (Synacthen test).

  • Addison's Disease Features: Hypotension, low plasma renin, and hyponatremia, not others listed here.

  • Secondary Adrenal Hypofunction Causes: Autoimmune adrenalitis and tuberculosis of adrenals.

  • Cardiovascular Syphilis Features (Not): Angina pectoris.

  • Acute Inflammation Hyperemia Trigger: Histamine (initiating the process).

  • Hormone-Secreting Tumor: Not necessarily ALL tumors, but a few can be hormone-producing or -secreting.

  • Visceral Leishmaniasis Features (Not): Epistaxis.

  • Cardiogenic Shock Complication: Acute tubular necrosis, not others listed.

  • Tumor Suppressor Loss Cause: Infiltrating ductal breast carcinoma and small cell lung cancer (not others).

  • SLE Finding: Glomerular immune deposits.

  • Lymphopenia Cause: HIV infection, not others listed.

  • Ghon Focus Association: Tuberculosis.

  • Parathyroid Hormone Regulation: Extracellular ionized calcium

  • Peyer's Patch Enlargement Cause: Enteric fever, not others listed

  • Post-Primary Pulmonary TB Features (Not): Hilar lymph nodes are usually not affected

  • Schistosomiasis Features (Not): Anti-basement membrane glomerulonephritis is not an associated disease.

  • Vitamin B12/Folate Deficiency Anemia Features (Not): Hypochromia, instead of others.

  • Amyloid Tissue Injury Mechanism: Pressure atrophy on adjacent tissues.

  • AA Amyloid Conditions (Not): Renal cell carcinoma (not others listed).

  • Leprosy Antibodies (Not): Protective in nature, not other noted points.

  • Secondary Syphilis Features (Not): Snail Track Ulcers (are a feature, not exception).

  • Hereditary Spherocytosis Features (Not): Spherocytes are not always detectable in all cases of newborns.

  • Thyroid Hormone Circulation Form: Thyroxine, not other options, in the predominant form typically.

  • Chronic Pyelonephritis Morphology (Not): Thyroidization of lobules due to the chronic condition and associated involvement.

  • Uric Acid Calculus Characteristics (Not): Radiolucent, not others.

  • Analgesic Abuse Nephropathy Damage Cause: Direct toxic effects of metabolites and ischemia.

  • Sickle Cell Disease Features (Not): Spleen consistently enlarged in adults (often reduced or removed).

  • Sickle Cell Protection Mechanism: Splenic removal of sickled cells, not other listed factors.

  • Central Nervous System HIV Target: Cells expressing CD4 molecules.

  • RPGN Features (Not): Urine WBC casts are not a diagnostic feature.

  • Sandy Patches and Diseases: Skin lesion associated with certain diseases, not all.

  • Urine Dip Stick Detection (Not): Bilharzia ova (can't be detected on dip sticks).

  • Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria Features (Not): Hemolysis is primarily extravascular.

  • Infection Susceptibility Factors (Not): Bronchial asthma (not other listed).

  • Amyloid Kidney Deposition Result: Nephrotic syndrome.

  • **Acromegaly Feature (Not):

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