BDS 2 mcq 2
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Questions and Answers

What are the 3 systemic factors that influence healing of the pulp?

  • Vitamin intake, Sleep quality, Smoking habits
  • Allergies, Exercise, Genetic predisposition
  • Age, Nutrition, Pre-existing medical conditions (correct)
  • Hydration level, Sun exposure, Educational background

How can neutrophils be identified in histology?

  • Star-shaped appearance
  • Large rounded nuclei
  • Long cytoplasmic tails
  • Multi-lobed nuclei (correct)

What is a feature that distinguishes reversible pulpitis from irreversible pulpitis?

  • Formation of abscess
  • Pain subsides with removal of stimulus (correct)
  • Extreme sensitivity to pressure
  • Presence of fibrosis

What is a characteristic of open pulpitis?

<p>Survival of pulp despite large exposure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor significantly influences the progress of pulpitis and determines its duration?

<p>Pre-existing state of pulp (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential outcome of acute inflammation?

<p>Permanent tissue damage leading to organ failure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT involved in chronic inflammation?

<p>Neutrophils (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of an increase in pulpal pressure?

<p>Oedema (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential route of microbial access to the pulp chamber?

<p>Periodontal disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct classification for a pulpitis that is localized, chronic, and infected?

<p>Chronic, closed, subtotal, infected (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a feature of neoplasia?

<p>Coordinated growth with normal tissues (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinction between benign and malignant tumours?

<p>Benign tumours remain localized, malignant tumours can invade and metastasize (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cell types can give rise to tumours?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a change in cell growth patterns?

<p>Necrosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of metaplasia?

<p>A change from one normal differentiated cell type to another within a tissue (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential issue with cancer screening that involves detecting cancer in people who have no signs or symptoms?

<p>Over diagnosis of benign conditions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major factor affecting the prognosis of a tumor related to the appearance of cells?

<p>Mitotic index and degree of mitotic atypia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of cancer screening, what can lead to unnecessary treatment for conditions that are not harmful or require intervention?

<p>False positives from screening tests (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do well-differentiated tumors differ from poorly-differentiated tumors in terms of identifying the tissue of origin?

<p>Well-differentiated tumors make it easier to identify tissue origins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key objective observation used in determining the prognosis of a tumor, especially related to its invasive potential?

<p>Depth and extent of invasion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT an example of metaplasia?

<p>Dysplasia in cervical screening (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between benign and malignant tumours?

<p>Benign tumours do not metastasize, while malignant tumours can undergo regional and distant metastasis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tumours is associated with the lymphoid system?

<p>Lymphoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt's lymphoma?

<p>Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of squamous epithelium in the oral mucosa?

<p>To form the lining of the oral mucosa and act as a barrier by laying down keratin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which HIV initially infects epithelial cells in the first stage of infection?

<p>gp120 on HIV binds to Heparan Sulfate Proteoglycans (HSPG) on epithelial cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does HIV enter the submucosal epithelium during the second stage of infection?

<p>gp120 on HIV binds to DC-SIGN receptors on dendritic cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which HIV enters lymph nodes during the third stage of infection?

<p>gp120 on HIV binds to CD4 on T helper cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT one of the 7 key stages that occur after HIV binds to a T cell?

<p>Viral cDNA enters nucleus and integrates into host DNA forming a provirus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the 4 key observations that characterize the acute stage of HIV infection?

<p>Viremia peaks and declines, CD4+ T cells decline then recover, mucosal CD4+ cells decline then poorly recover, immune activation increases (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the 3 key observations that characterize the chronic stage of HIV infection?

<p>Viremia stays at a steady rate, CD4+ T cells gradually decline, immune activation remains high (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs after these 5-15 years of HIV infection and what 3 things occur?

<p>Viremia increases, CD4+ T cells sharply decline leading to opportunistic infections, immune activation is at its highest (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of HIV infection?

<p>Elevated liver enzyme levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason that people with HIV infection become susceptible to opportunistic infections?

<p>Viremia increases, leading to a sharp decline in CD4+ T cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism by which HIV is brought into the lymph node in the 3rd stage of infection?

<p>HIV attaches to Th cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In HIV infection, what occurs during the 5-15 years stage of infection known as chronic infection?

<p>Viremia stays at a steady rate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of Tat and Rev proteins in HIV infection?

<p>Amplifying transcription of viral RNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During acute HIV infection, what happens to mucosal CD4+ cells?

<p>They poorly recover after viremia peak (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main effect of HIV binding to T cells and entering their nucleus?

<p>Viral cDNA enters the nucleus and Formation of a provirus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does chronic HIV infection lead to a gradual decline in CD4+ T cells?

<p>Due to high levels of viremia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the fusion of viral envelope with the cell membrane in HIV infection?

<p>Allows viral genome to enter the cell (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?

<p>Copies viral RNA genome into double stranded cDNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do we see an increase in parasite, bacterial, fungal, and viral infections in HIV patients?

<p>Due to decreased amount of Th cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do late proteins translate and assemble in HIV infection?

<p>By budding from the cell membrane (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which HIV enters the submucosal epithelium during the second stage of infection?

<p>HIV is brought into the submucosal epithelium via attachment to Langerhans cells (dendritic cells) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the 4 key observations that characterize the acute stage of HIV infection?

<p>Viremia peaks and declines, CD4+ T cells decline and recover to a slightly lower level, mucosal CD4+ cells decline and recover, and immune activation increases (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason that people with HIV infection become susceptible to opportunistic infections?

<p>Weakened immune system due to the gradual decline in CD4+ T cell numbers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to mucosal CD4+ cells during acute HIV infection?

<p>Mucosal CD4+ cells decline with the peak in viremia and poorly recover as viremia declines (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the 3 key observations that characterize the chronic stage of HIV infection?

<p>Viremia stays at a steady rate, CD4+ T cells gradually decline, and immune activation remains high (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic feature of embolism?

<p>Clubbing of fingers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do immune complexes arise in endocarditis?

<p>Excessive complement activation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can be indicated by Roth spots in a patient with endocarditis?

<p>Eye abnormalities (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood test is conducted and commonly shows a raised WBC count in endocarditis patients?

<p>Full blood count (FBC) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main role of echocardiogram in diagnosing endocarditis?

<p>Visualization of vegetations or abscesses on heart valves (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is blood culture assessment important in choosing bactericidal antibiotics for endocarditis?

<p>To guide future antibiotic therapies based on the identified organisms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of a new murmur development in assessing heart disease?

<p>Indicates a possible progression to heart failure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important condition for considering surgical treatment for endocarditis?

<p>Failure to culture an organism despite persistent infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can an electrocardiogram indicate in a patient with endocarditis?

<p>Organic heart disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What investigation should be carried out to diagnose endocarditis if splenomegaly is suspected?

<p>Echocardiogram (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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