59 Questions
What are the 3 systemic factors that influence healing of the pulp?
Age, Nutrition, Pre-existing medical conditions
How can neutrophils be identified in histology?
Multi-lobed nuclei
What is a feature that distinguishes reversible pulpitis from irreversible pulpitis?
Pain subsides with removal of stimulus
What is a characteristic of open pulpitis?
Survival of pulp despite large exposure
Which factor significantly influences the progress of pulpitis and determines its duration?
Pre-existing state of pulp
Which of the following is NOT a potential outcome of acute inflammation?
Permanent tissue damage leading to organ failure
Which of the following is NOT involved in chronic inflammation?
Neutrophils
What is the primary cause of an increase in pulpal pressure?
Oedema
Which of the following is NOT a potential route of microbial access to the pulp chamber?
Periodontal disease
What is the correct classification for a pulpitis that is localized, chronic, and infected?
Chronic, closed, subtotal, infected
Which of the following is NOT a feature of neoplasia?
Coordinated growth with normal tissues
What is the primary distinction between benign and malignant tumours?
Benign tumours remain localized, malignant tumours can invade and metastasize
Which of the following cell types can give rise to tumours?
All of the above
Which of the following is NOT a change in cell growth patterns?
Necrosis
What is the definition of metaplasia?
A change from one normal differentiated cell type to another within a tissue
What is a potential issue with cancer screening that involves detecting cancer in people who have no signs or symptoms?
Over diagnosis of benign conditions
What is a major factor affecting the prognosis of a tumor related to the appearance of cells?
Mitotic index and degree of mitotic atypia
In the context of cancer screening, what can lead to unnecessary treatment for conditions that are not harmful or require intervention?
False positives from screening tests
How do well-differentiated tumors differ from poorly-differentiated tumors in terms of identifying the tissue of origin?
Well-differentiated tumors make it easier to identify tissue origins
What is a key objective observation used in determining the prognosis of a tumor, especially related to its invasive potential?
Depth and extent of invasion
Which of the following is NOT an example of metaplasia?
Dysplasia in cervical screening
What is the primary difference between benign and malignant tumours?
Benign tumours do not metastasize, while malignant tumours can undergo regional and distant metastasis.
Which of the following tumours is associated with the lymphoid system?
Lymphoma
Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt's lymphoma?
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
What is the role of squamous epithelium in the oral mucosa?
To form the lining of the oral mucosa and act as a barrier by laying down keratin
What is the primary mechanism by which HIV initially infects epithelial cells in the first stage of infection?
gp120 on HIV binds to Heparan Sulfate Proteoglycans (HSPG) on epithelial cells
How does HIV enter the submucosal epithelium during the second stage of infection?
gp120 on HIV binds to DC-SIGN receptors on dendritic cells
What is the primary mechanism by which HIV enters lymph nodes during the third stage of infection?
gp120 on HIV binds to CD4 on T helper cells
Which of the following is NOT one of the 7 key stages that occur after HIV binds to a T cell?
Viral cDNA enters nucleus and integrates into host DNA forming a provirus
What are the 4 key observations that characterize the acute stage of HIV infection?
Viremia peaks and declines, CD4+ T cells decline then recover, mucosal CD4+ cells decline then poorly recover, immune activation increases
What are the 3 key observations that characterize the chronic stage of HIV infection?
Viremia stays at a steady rate, CD4+ T cells gradually decline, immune activation remains high
What occurs after these 5-15 years of HIV infection and what 3 things occur?
Viremia increases, CD4+ T cells sharply decline leading to opportunistic infections, immune activation is at its highest
Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of HIV infection?
Elevated liver enzyme levels
What is the primary reason that people with HIV infection become susceptible to opportunistic infections?
Viremia increases, leading to a sharp decline in CD4+ T cells
What is the mechanism by which HIV is brought into the lymph node in the 3rd stage of infection?
HIV attaches to Th cells
In HIV infection, what occurs during the 5-15 years stage of infection known as chronic infection?
Viremia stays at a steady rate
What is the role of Tat and Rev proteins in HIV infection?
Amplifying transcription of viral RNA
During acute HIV infection, what happens to mucosal CD4+ cells?
They poorly recover after viremia peak
What is the main effect of HIV binding to T cells and entering their nucleus?
Viral cDNA enters the nucleus and Formation of a provirus
Why does chronic HIV infection lead to a gradual decline in CD4+ T cells?
Due to high levels of viremia
What is the significance of the fusion of viral envelope with the cell membrane in HIV infection?
Allows viral genome to enter the cell
What is the main function of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?
Copies viral RNA genome into double stranded cDNA
Why do we see an increase in parasite, bacterial, fungal, and viral infections in HIV patients?
Due to decreased amount of Th cells
How do late proteins translate and assemble in HIV infection?
By budding from the cell membrane
What is the primary mechanism by which HIV enters the submucosal epithelium during the second stage of infection?
HIV is brought into the submucosal epithelium via attachment to Langerhans cells (dendritic cells)
What are the 4 key observations that characterize the acute stage of HIV infection?
Viremia peaks and declines, CD4+ T cells decline and recover to a slightly lower level, mucosal CD4+ cells decline and recover, and immune activation increases
What is the primary reason that people with HIV infection become susceptible to opportunistic infections?
Weakened immune system due to the gradual decline in CD4+ T cell numbers
What happens to mucosal CD4+ cells during acute HIV infection?
Mucosal CD4+ cells decline with the peak in viremia and poorly recover as viremia declines
What are the 3 key observations that characterize the chronic stage of HIV infection?
Viremia stays at a steady rate, CD4+ T cells gradually decline, and immune activation remains high
What is a characteristic feature of embolism?
Clubbing of fingers
How do immune complexes arise in endocarditis?
Excessive complement activation
What can be indicated by Roth spots in a patient with endocarditis?
Eye abnormalities
Which blood test is conducted and commonly shows a raised WBC count in endocarditis patients?
Full blood count (FBC)
What is the main role of echocardiogram in diagnosing endocarditis?
Visualization of vegetations or abscesses on heart valves
Why is blood culture assessment important in choosing bactericidal antibiotics for endocarditis?
To guide future antibiotic therapies based on the identified organisms
What is the significance of a new murmur development in assessing heart disease?
Indicates a possible progression to heart failure
What is an important condition for considering surgical treatment for endocarditis?
Failure to culture an organism despite persistent infection
What can an electrocardiogram indicate in a patient with endocarditis?
Organic heart disease
What investigation should be carried out to diagnose endocarditis if splenomegaly is suspected?
Echocardiogram
Test your knowledge on the outcomes of acute inflammation, the transition to chronic inflammation, and the cells involved in chronic inflammation. Learn about the different ways inflammation can resolve or progress.
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