Oral Anatomy Quiz (2014-2020)
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following correctly identifies the branches of the maxillary nerve?

  • Superior alveolar N, Greater palatine, Inferior palpebral N (correct)
  • Infraorbital N, Middle meningeal N, Lesser palatine N (correct)
  • Buccal N, Pharyngeal N, Nasopalatine N
  • Lingual N, Auriculotemporal N, Frontal nerve
  • What role does the hypothalamus NOT play in human physiology?

  • Production of red blood cells (correct)
  • Influencing sexual activity
  • Controlling fluid balance
  • Regulating temperature
  • Which of the following structures is NOT located laterally in the specified region?

  • Deep transverse perineal muscle (correct)
  • Coccygeus
  • External anal sphincter
  • Obturator internus m and fascia
  • Which type of ganglion is the thoracic splanchnic nerve associated with?

    <p>Fused sympathetic ganglion with the inferior cervical ganglion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a branch of the mandibular nerve?

    <p>Trigeminal nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the Globose nucleus in the cerebellar cortex?

    <p>Regulates the precision of limb movements</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cerebellar nucleus is recognized for its tooth-like outline and is involved in planning and programming of voluntary movement?

    <p>Dentate nucleus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is the nucleus accumbens located?

    <p>Basal forebrain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the pyramidal decussation in the nervous system?

    <p>It represents the crossing of corticospinal tracts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primary area corresponds with the postcentral gyrus?

    <p>Primary somatosensory cortex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is NOT a cistern in the brain?

    <p>Pineal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord?

    <p>31</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the Fastigal nucleus play in the function of the cerebellar nuclei?

    <p>Execution with vestibular function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the temporal branch of the facial nerve?

    <p>Lift the eyebrows and wrinkle the brow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer is located directly beneath the skin surrounding the testis?

    <p>Dartos fascia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organ is NOT part of the foregut?

    <p>Ileum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What classification is used for the facial nerve lesions?

    <p>Central and peripheral lesions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what angle is the neck of the femur typically positioned?

    <p>125 degrees</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the position of the uterus?

    <p>Anteverted at 90 degrees and anteflexed at 160 degrees</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following muscles is primarily affected by a peripheral facial palsy?

    <p>Both upper and lower face muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which branch of the facial nerve is responsible for enabling a person to smile?

    <p>Buccal branch</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which segment is part of the hindgut?

    <p>Cecum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What results from a lesion in the nucleus of the facial nerve?

    <p>Contralateral paralysis of lower face muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerves innervate the superior part of the buttocks?

    <p>Superior cluneal nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the innervation of the inferior part of the buttocks?

    <p>Inferior cluneal nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerve is responsible for innervating the lateral part of the buttocks?

    <p>Lateral branch of iliohypogastric nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the masseter muscle?

    <p>Elevation of the mandible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle is innervated by the deep temporal nerves?

    <p>Temporalis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerve is responsible for innervating the lateral pterygoid muscle?

    <p>Nerve to lateral pterygoid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which area of the face is represented by the largest nucleus in the primary sensory cortex?

    <p>Lips</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the medial pterygoid muscle?

    <p>Elevation and side to side movement of the mandible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What divisions come from the L2 and L4 ventral rami?

    <p>Obturator and femoral nerves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle primarily assists with the abduction of the jaw?

    <p>Lateral pterygoid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is NOT part of the retrosternal structures?

    <p>Esophagus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerve is primarily associated with the thoracic region?

    <p>Phrenic nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is categorized as part of the middle mediastinum?

    <p>Heart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which compartment is the ascending aorta found?

    <p>Middle mediastinum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes the function of the omental bursa?

    <p>Acts as a subdivision of the peritoneal cavity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these structures is considered part of the posterior mediastinum?

    <p>Esophagus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding the greater sac and lesser sac is correct?

    <p>The lesser sac communicates with the greater sac via the epiploic foramen.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which venous structure is associated with the inferior mediastinum?

    <p>Azygos vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main role of the recurrent laryngeal nerve found in the prevertebral structures?

    <p>Regulates voice modulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is NOT a branch of the aortic arch?

    <p>Pulmonary artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of joint is formed between the femur and tibia?

    <p>Synovial hinge joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ligament is categorized as a broad-like ligament attaching inferior to the adductor tubercle?

    <p>Tibial collateral ligament</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the borders of the femoral canal?

    <p>Anterior - inguinal ligament, Medial - lacunar ligament</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscles form the common tendon at the pes anserinus insertion?

    <p>Sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structure provides arterial supply to the knee joint?

    <p>Descending genicular branches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerve provides innervation to the medial side of the leg?

    <p>Tibial nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is NOT a structure that forms the femoral triangle?

    <p>Iliopsoas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a terminal branch of the lumbar plexus?

    <p>Obturator nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the dorsal vagal nucleus within the vagus nerve?

    <p>It supplies parasympathetic fibers to various organs like the heart and lungs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the pathways of the vagus nerve in the thorax?

    <p>Both vagus nerves contribute equally to the esophageal plexus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structures are involved in connecting the superior and inferior colliculi?

    <p>Superior and inferior brachium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the medial part of the nucleus ambiguous?

    <p>To provide motor fibers to the muscles of the larynx and pharynx.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does the axillary vein drain, and what is its anatomical significance?

    <p>It drains into the subclavian vein, representing a continuation of the brachial vein.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the ductus venosus play in fetal circulation?

    <p>Facilitates blood flow from the liver to the inferior vena cava</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does mixed blood from the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava occur in fetal circulation?

    <p>Right atrium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is blood shunted from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta in a fetus?

    <p>High pressure and resistance in the undeveloped lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the foramen ovale in fetal circulation?

    <p>To enable oxygenated blood to bypass the lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does deoxygenated blood return to the placenta from the fetus?

    <p>Via the internal iliac arteries connecting to the umbilical arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure directly connects the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in fetal circulation?

    <p>Ductus arteriosus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological condition causes the fetal lungs to have a high resistance to blood flow?

    <p>Fluid-filled nature of the lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where in the fetal heart does the deoxygenated blood enter?

    <p>Right atrium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the destination of oxygenated blood after it mixes in the right atrium?

    <p>Left atrium via foramen ovale</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is involved in carrying oxygenated blood towards the right atrium from the placenta?

    <p>Ductus venosus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structures form the lateral border of the triangular interval?

    <p>Shaft of humerus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which artery is associated with the quadrangular space?

    <p>Posterior circumflex humeral artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following muscles is NOT a thenar muscle?

    <p>Abductor digiti minimi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is contained within the carpal tunnel?

    <p>Median nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the innervation of the opponens pollicis muscle?

    <p>Median nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the lateral forearm?

    <p>Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is the medial border of the triangular space?

    <p>Long head of triceps</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tendon is NOT included in the carpal tunnel?

    <p>Flexor carpi radialis tendon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the superior border of the quadrangular space?

    <p>Teres minor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which function is NOT associated with the abductor pollicis muscle?

    <p>Aids in opposition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure plays a significant role in the endocrine system within the diencephalon?

    <p>Hypothalamus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the right atrium receives blood from the superior vena cava?

    <p>Superior wall</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the nucleus of the trochlear nerve?

    <p>Innervation of the superior oblique muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for general sensation in the posterior one-third of the tongue?

    <p>Glossopharyngeal nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The inferior cervical ganglion merges with which of the following to form the stellate ganglion?

    <p>First thoracic ganglion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the arterial supply to the brain?

    <p>The basilar artery supplies the occipital lobe</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the habenula in the epithalamus?

    <p>Regulation of appetite and feeding behavior</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which anatomical location is the stellate ganglion found?

    <p>At the level of C7</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is formed from the fusion of the inferior cervical ganglion and the first thoracic ganglion?

    <p>Stellate ganglion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which veins drain deoxygenated blood into the right atrium?

    <p>Inferior vena cava</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal?

    <p>Aponeurosis of external oblique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is associated with the deep inguinal ring?

    <p>Process vaginalis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main component of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal?

    <p>Medial third by conjoint tendon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the superficial inguinal ring primarily consist of?

    <p>Aponeurosis of external oblique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In relation to the epiploic foramen, which structure is located anteriorly?

    <p>Hepatoduodenal ligament</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly identifies the borders of the tarsal sinus?

    <p>Laterally: calcaneus, medially: talus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which artery is NOT a branch of the celiac trunk?

    <p>Right gastric artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is contained within the lesser sac (omental bursa)?

    <p>Nothing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the supraspinatus muscle?

    <p>Abducts the arm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle is responsible for medially rotating the upper arm?

    <p>Subscapularis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle primarily retracted and elevated the medial border of the scapula?

    <p>Rhomboid major</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the insertion point of the teres minor muscle?

    <p>Lateral border of the scapula</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle contributes to the upward rotation of the scapula while stabilizing it against the chest wall?

    <p>Serratus anterior</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary pathway for oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetal heart?

    <p>Via the umbilical vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure facilitates the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the fetal heart?

    <p>Foramen ovale</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the ductus arteriosus play in fetal circulation?

    <p>Shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the return route of deoxygenated blood to the placenta in fetal circulation?

    <p>Through the umbilical arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is the foramen ovale located?

    <p>Between the right atrium and left atrium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition allows fetal blood to avoid the lungs?

    <p>High pressure in the pulmonary arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At which location can the tricuspid valve be best auscultated?

    <p>Left of the lower part of the sternum near the 5th intercostal space</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main characteristic of the lungs in fetal circulation that affects blood flow?

    <p>They contain fluid and have high pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structural feature connects the ductus venosus to the inferior vena cava?

    <p>Hepatic vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following movements is primarily associated with the synovial hinge joint formed by the distal end of the tibia and fibula?

    <p>Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ligaments are included in the lateral ligaments of the ankle joint?

    <p>Calcaneofibular, anterior talofibular and posterior talofibular</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following nerves provide innervation to the ankle joint?

    <p>Deep fibular and tibial nerves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following muscles passes through the medial malleolar canal?

    <p>Flexor digitorum longus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the ligaments associated with the hip joint?

    <p>Stabilize during flexion and extension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which arterial supply is critical for the knee joint?

    <p>Medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bones are primarily grouped into the tarsal bones of the foot?

    <p>Talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboidal, and cuneiforms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ligaments are part of the medial deltoid ligament complex of the ankle?

    <p>Tibionavicular and tibiocalcaneal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What movements are facilitated by the multiaxial ball and socket joint of the hip?

    <p>Flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, medial and lateral rotation and circumduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pass through the flexor retinaculum of the leg?

    <p>Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, posterior tibial vessels, and tibial nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What initiates contraction at a rate of approximately 40 depolarizations per minute?

    <p>Atrioventricular node</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is located in the potential space between the parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum?

    <p>Nothing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which artery is a branch of the internal iliac artery?

    <p>Inferior rectal artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the content of the pudendal canal, also known as Alcock's canal?

    <p>Obturator internus fascia, pudendal nerve, and internal pudendal vessels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the superior boundary of the deep pelvic space?

    <p>Urogenital diaphragm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a content of the superficial pelvic space?

    <p>Membranous part of urethra</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the clinical significance of portocaval anastomosis?

    <p>It links hepatic portal veins with systemic circulation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which artery is NOT a branch of the external pudendal artery?

    <p>Deep artery of penis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure contributes to the formation of the pudendal canal?

    <p>Obturator internus fascia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What forms the inferior boundary of the deep pelvic space?

    <p>Perineal membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many major gyruses are found in the frontal lobe?

    <p>9</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of Broca's area?

    <p>Language production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is Wernicke's area located?

    <p>Superior temporal lobe</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Brodmann area corresponds to the motor speech center?

    <p>Brodmann area 44</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of a lesion in Broca's area?

    <p>Halting speech production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which area is primarily responsible for semantic processing?

    <p>Pars triangularis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many Brodmann areas are specifically recognized for important functions in the content provided?

    <p>5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of a lesion in Wernicke's area?

    <p>Fluent nonsensical speech</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the zygomatic branch of the facial nerve?

    <p>Allows closing the eye</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer is located directly beneath the tunica vaginalis of the testis?

    <p>Tunica Albuginea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What angle does the neck of the femur typically form with the horizontal plane?

    <p>125 degrees</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which classification divides facial palsy into two types based on the location of the lesion?

    <p>Central and peripheral</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which position is the uterus typically located?

    <p>Anteflexed at 160-170 degrees</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerve is primarily responsible for cutaneous innervation of the dorsum of the foot?

    <p>Superficial fibular nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerves contribute to the plantar innervation of the foot?

    <p>Lateral plantar nerve and Medial plantar nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of a median nerve lesion in the upper limb?

    <p>Ape hand and paralysis of thenar muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when the radial nerve is injured?

    <p>Wrist drop and inability to extend fingers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is NOT part of the boundaries of the cubital fossa?

    <p>Flexor carpi radialis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure serves as the floor of the anatomical snuff box?

    <p>Scaphoid and trapezium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structure is NOT found in the cubital fossa?

    <p>Ulnar nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would be the likely outcome of an ulnar nerve lesion?

    <p>Weakness of flexion and adduction of the wrist</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscles are primarily innervated by the radial nerve?

    <p>Posterior muscles of the forearm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What nerve primarily innervates the deep flexor muscles of the forearm?

    <p>Median nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscles consist in levator ani?

    <p>Pubococcygeus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the contents of the anterior chamber of the eye?

    <p>Aqueous humor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What connects the arteries in the Kisselbach region?

    <p>Maxillary artery branches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structures are part of the broad ligament?

    <p>Mesometrium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is located inferior to the anterior scalene muscle?

    <p>Subclavian vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which chamber lies behind the iris?

    <p>Posterior chamber</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structure lies superior to the greater wing of sphenoid bone?

    <p>Cranial cavity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is located in the medial aspect of the lateral pterygoid plate?

    <p>Otic ganglion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical landmark is felt at the anatomical snuffbox?

    <p>Radial artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the sphenoethmoidal recess contain?

    <p>Sphenoid sinus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which veins contribute to the formation of the portal vein?

    <p>Splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ribs are considered true ribs?

    <p>Ribs 1 to 7</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes atypical ribs from typical ribs?

    <p>Atypical ribs have unique features such as single articular facets or tubercles.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vein drains into the inferior vena cava directly from the paraumbilical region?

    <p>External iliac vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pairing of veins is involved in the esophageal venous drainage?

    <p>Left gastric vein and superior vena cava</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the components of the retromandibular vein?

    <p>Superficial temporal vein and maxillary vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of ribs are classified as floating ribs?

    <p>Ribs 11 to 12</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which rib is characterized as the broadest and shortest?

    <p>1st rib</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which veins would not typically contribute to the systemic circulation without connection to the portal system?

    <p>Paraumbilical veins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding false ribs?

    <p>They include ribs 8 to 10 and are indirectly connected.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What arteries form the superficial palmar arch?

    <p>Ulnar artery and superficial branch of radial artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which arteries are branches of the deep palmar arch?

    <p>Princeps pollicis artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the spring ligament?

    <p>Support of the arches during walking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of joint is the talocalcaneonavicular joint?

    <p>Ball and socket joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    From which part of the thoracic aorta do the majority of the posterior intercostal arteries arise?

    <p>Posterior surface</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of gray rami communicantes?

    <p>Communication between spinal nerves and sympathetic trunk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of innervation is provided by the anterior division of the obturator nerve?

    <p>Motor to gracilis and adductor muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the components of the interosseous talocalcaneal ligament and other supporting ligaments of the talocalcaneonavicular joint?

    <p>Interosseous, talocalcaneal, talonavicular, and plantar calcaneonavicular ligaments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nucleus is primarily responsible for releasing antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin?

    <p>Supraoptic nucleus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of the hippocampus?

    <p>Memory and behavior</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer of the meninges is located closest to the brain?

    <p>Pia mater</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structure is referred to as the anastomosis of arteries supplying blood to the brain?

    <p>Circle of Willis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hypothalamic nucleus is involved in controlling appetite and fat metabolism?

    <p>Dorsomedial nucleus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The pyramidal tract is primarily composed of which two tracts?

    <p>Corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nucleus in the hypothalamus receives retinal afferents?

    <p>Suprachiasmatic nucleus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the arcuate nucleus?

    <p>Regulates hormones from the pituitary gland</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the main parts of the cerebrum?

    <p>Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital lobes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the origin of the sciatic nerve?

    <p>L4 - S2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle is primarily innervated by the pudendal nerve?

    <p>Levator ani</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the sensory function of the common fibular part of the sciatic nerve?

    <p>Skin of dorsal surface of foot</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerve is responsible for innervating the gluteus minimus muscle?

    <p>Superior gluteal nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerve stimulates erection and inhibits the internal urethral sphincter?

    <p>Pelvic splanchnic nerves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main motor role of the inferior gluteal nerve?

    <p>Innervates gluteus maximus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle does the nerve to quadratus femoris innervate?

    <p>Quadratus femoris</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerve primarily serves the posterior aspect of the thigh?

    <p>Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which terminal branch innervates all muscles in the posterior compartment of the thigh?

    <p>Sciatic nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerve has a motor role in stimulating gastrointestinal motility?

    <p>Pelvic splanchnic nerves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What position is the uterus typically found in?

    <p>Anteverted at 90 degrees and anteflexed 160 or 170 degrees</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer directly surrounds the testis?

    <p>Tunica vaginalis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What degree is the angle of the neck of the femur typically at?

    <p>125 degrees</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of paralysis results from a lesion in the nucleus of the facial nerve?

    <p>Contralateral paralysis of the lower face muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is classified as part of the hindgut?

    <p>Descending colon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What initiates contraction at a rate of approximately 40 depolarizations per minute?

    <p>AV node</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is NOT found in the peritoneal cavity?

    <p>Nothing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What artery branches off from the internal iliac artery?

    <p>Internal pudendal artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What forms the pudendal canal?

    <p>Obturator internus fascia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structure is located inferiorly in the deep pelvic space?

    <p>Perineal membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What content is found in the superficial pelvic space?

    <p>Ischiocavernosus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a portocaval anastomosis?

    <p>Anastomosis between hepatic portal and systemic veins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the inferior boundary of the superficial pelvic space?

    <p>Membranous layer of superficial perineal fascia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is associated with the muscular contractions of the ventricles via Purkinje fibers?

    <p>AV bundle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which artery branches from the external pudendal artery?

    <p>Posterior scrotal artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Cluneal Nerves and Innervation of Buttocks

    • Cluneal nerves are cutaneous nerves responsible for innervating the buttocks.
    • Superior cluneal nerve: Originates from dorsal rami of L1-L3; innervates the superior part of the buttocks.
    • Middle cluneal nerve: Arises from dorsal rami of S1-S3; innervates the middle portion of the buttocks.
    • Inferior cluneal nerve: Also known as the posterior femoral cutaneous nerve; innervates the inferior part of the buttocks.
    • Lateral branch of the iliohypogastric nerve: Emerges from lumbar plexus; provides innervation to the lateral part of the buttocks.

    Facial Anatomy and Sensory Cortex

    • Lips have the largest representation in the primary sensory cortex among facial areas.
    • The division of L2 and L4 ventral rami contributes to the formation of the obturator and femoral nerves.

    Muscles of Mastication

    • Masseter: Innervated by masseteric nerve; responsible for elevating the mandible.
    • Temporalis: Innervated by deep temporal nerves; aids in the elevation and retraction of the mandible.
    • Medial pterygoid: Innervated by the nerve to medial pterygoid; involved in elevating and side-to-side movement of the mandible.
    • Lateral pterygoid: Innervated by the nerve to lateral pterygoid; responsible for protrusion and opening of the mouth.

    Mediastinum Structures

    • Retrosternal structures include sternohyoid, sternothyroid, longus colli, thymus gland, brachiocephalic veins, and superior vena cava.
    • Intermediate structures consist of the aortic arch and its branches, vagus nerve, phrenic nerve, and cardiac branches of the sympathetic chain.
    • Prevertebral structures involve prevertebral muscles, esophagus, trachea, thoracic duct, and the recurrent laryngeal nerve (left side).

    Peritoneal Cavity

    • The lesser sac (omental bursa) and greater sac are subdivisions of the peritoneal cavity separated by peritoneal folds.
    • Communication occurs through the epiploic foramen; the lesser sac contains no contents.

    Thoracic Splanchnic Nerve

    • Consists of sympathetic ganglion fused with the inferior cervical ganglion; provides preganglionic sympathetic fibers.

    Trigeminal Nerve Branches

    • Sensory branches include ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular divisions.
    • Mandibular nerve branches consist of auriculotemporal nerve, lingual nerve, and inferior alveolar nerve.

    Hypothalamus Functions

    • Regulates endocrine system, temperature, appetite, emotions, fluid balance, and sexual activity.

    Blood Supply and Drainage

    • Right lymphatic duct drains from right thoracic cavity, right arm, and right side of head and neck via different trunks.
    • Heart sounds can be auscultated at specific locations: tricuspid (5th intercostal space), mitral (apex), pulmonary (left second intercostal space), aortic (right second intercostal space).

    Testicle Structure

    • Composed of multiple layers, including skin, dartos fascia, various fasciae, tunica albuginea, tunica vaginalis, and testis.

    Angle of Femur

    • The angle of the neck of the femur typically measures 125 degrees.

    Facial Palsy

    • Caused by facial nerve lesions; differentiated into peripheral (same side symptoms) and central types (contralateral symptoms in lower facial muscles).

    Uterine Position

    • The uterus is described as anteverted (90 degrees) and anteflexed (160-170 degrees).

    Organs of the Gut

    • Foregut: Includes the esophagus, stomach, and part of the duodenum.
    • Midgut: Comprises the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, 4th parts), jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, and part of the transverse colon.
    • Hindgut: Contains the descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, and anus.

    Knee Joint Anatomy

    • Tibiofemoral joint allows flexion and extension; stabilized by ligaments such as the patellar ligament, collateral ligaments, and cruciate ligaments.
    • Innervation provided by obturator, femoral, tibial, and common fibular nerves.

    Borders of the Femoral Canal

    • Anterior: Inguinal ligament
    • Posterior: Pecten pubis
    • Lateral: Femoral vein
    • Medial: Lacunar ligament

    Pes Anserinus

    • A common tendon for sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus muscles located on the medial side of the leg at the tibial condyle.

    Lumbar Plexus

    • Formed by ventral rami of spinal lumbar nerves L1 to L4 and includes the 12th thoracic nerve.
    • Terminal branches contribute to various nerve supply in the lumbar region.

    Cutaneous Innervation of the Forearm

    • Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve, medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve, and posterior antebrachial cutaneous nerve provide sensory innervation to the forearm.

    Carpal Tunnel Borders

    • Roof: Flexor retinaculum
    • Floor: Carpal arch (involving scaphoid, trapezium, and hook of hamate).
    • Contains tendons of flexor muscles and the median nerve.

    Thenar and Hypothenar Muscles

    • Thenar muscles (including opponens pollicis) are responsible for thumb mobility and innervated by the median nerve.
    • Hypothenar muscles (like abductor digiti minimi) assist in little finger motions and innervated by the ulnar nerve.### Mesencephalon and Tectum
    • The mesencephalon contains the tectal plate, which comprises the inferior and superior colliculi, integral for auditory and visual pathways, respectively.
    • The brachium connects the superior colliculus with the lateral geniculate body and the inferior colliculus with the medial geniculate body.

    Axillary Vein

    • Continuation of the brachial vein that drains into the subclavian vein at the first rib's external margin.
    • Located medially to the axillary artery.
    • Tributaries include subscapular vein, circumflex humeral vein, lateral thoracic vein, and thoracoacromial vein.

    Dorsal Vagal Nuclei

    • Important nucleus of the vagus nerve, situated in the medulla, anterior to the 4th ventricle floor.
    • Functions as a parasympathetic nucleus, providing general visceral efferent (GVE) fibers to the heart, lungs, and alimentary tract.

    Vagus Nerve Nuclei

    • Contains the dorsal vagal nucleus for GVE fibers targeting heart and lungs.
    • The medial part of the nucleus ambiguous sends special visceral efferent (SVE) fibers to larynx and pharynx muscles.
    • The nucleus of solitary tract provides general visceral afferent (GVA) fibers and taste sensory fibers to the throat, larynx, heart, lungs, and digestive tract.

    Vagus Nerve Pathway

    • Originates in the medulla and exits the cranium via the jugular foramen.
    • Supplies sensations to the external auditory canal.
    • In the neck, it travels within the carotid sheath and gives off pharyngeal branches.
    • Forms the esophageal plexus in the thorax, passing through the diaphragm at T10.

    Diencephalon

    • A division of the prosencephalon comprising the thalamus, metathalamus, epithalamus, hypothalamus, and subthalamus.
    • Thalamus relays motor and sensory signals.
    • The metathalamus connects visual and auditory pathways.
    • Epithalamus includes the pineal body (melatonin production) and habenula (feeding behavior regulation).
    • Hypothalamus regulates the endocrine system.

    Stellate Ganglion

    • Formed by the fusion of the inferior cervical ganglion with the first thoracic ganglion.
    • Located at the C7 vertebra level, giving rise to the inferior cervical cardiac nerve.

    Right Atrium

    • Receives deoxygenated blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae, coronary sinus, small cardiac veins, and anterior cardiac vein.
    • Distinct walls:
      • Superior: opening of SVC
      • Inferior: right atrioventricular orifice
      • Anterior: opening for small cardiac veins
      • Posterior: IVC and coronary sinus (with coronary valve)
      • Medial: interatrial septum and fossa ovalis
      • Lateral: crista terminalis

    Trochlear Nerve Nucleus

    • Located in the midbrain, located between superior and inferior colliculi.
    • Motor nucleus that innervates the superior oblique muscle.

    Tongue Innervation

    • Anterior ⅔ innervated by the lingual nerve for general sensation and chorda tympani for taste (special visceral sensory).
    • Posterior ⅓ innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve for both general sensation and taste.
    • Both regions share motor innervation from the hypoglossal nerve.

    Inguinal Canal

    • Starts at the deep inguinal ring and ends at the superficial inguinal ring.
    • Deep inguinal ring is oval-shaped, while the superficial is triangular.
    • Walls consist of the aponeurosis of external oblique (anterior), transversalis fascia (posterior), inguinal ligament (inferior), and arching fibers of internal oblique and transversus abdominis (superior).

    Epiploic Foramen

    • Communication between the greater sac and lesser sac with specific borders:
      • Posterior: IVC
      • Anterior: hepatoduodenal ligament
      • Superior: caudate lobe of the liver
      • Inferior: superior part of duodenum

    Tarsal Sinus

    • Found between the calcaneus and talus, stabilizing the subtalar joint through the talocrural interosseous ligament.

    Celiac Trunk Branches

    • Includes left gastric artery, common hepatic artery, and splenic artery.

    Deep and Superficial Palmar Arch

    • Formed at the distal ends of the tibia and fibula and proximal end of the talus, allowing for dorsiflexion and plantarflexion movements.
    • Supplied by anterior and posterior tibial arteries and their branches.

    Deltoid and Lateral Ligaments

    • Medial deltoid ligament comprises tibionavicular, tibiocalcaneal, posterior tibiotalar, and anterior tibiotalar parts.
    • Lateral ligament includes anterior talofibular, posterior talofibular, and calcaneofibular ligaments.

    Flexor Retinaculum Contents

    • Contains tendons of tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, posterior tibial vessels, and tibial nerve.

    Bones of the Tarsus

    • Comprises talus, calcaneus, navicular, medial, intermediate, lateral cuneiforms, and cuboid.

    Hip Joint

    • Synovial joint between the head of the femur and acetabulum, facilitating multiple movements (flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation).
    • Supplied by branches from the obturator, femoral, and gluteal arteries, innervated by respective nerve branches.

    Knee Joint

    • Involves articulation of the femur, tibia, and patella, allowing for flexion and extension.

    Fetal Circulation

    • Oxygenated blood from the placenta via the umbilical vein traverses the ductus venosus to the right atrium, where it mixes with deoxygenated blood.
    • High pressure in fetal lungs prevents blood flow to them, directing it through the foramen ovale to the left atrium and pulmonary trunk via the ductus arteriosus into the aorta.

    Right Lymphatic Duct

    • Drains fluid from the right thoracic cavity, right arm, and right side of the head and neck through specific trunks.

    Heart Valve Auscultation

    • Tricuspid valve: left lower sternum, 5th intercostal space.
    • Mitral valve: apex of the heart, left 5th intercostal space.
    • Pulmonary valve: medial end of left 2nd intercostal space.
    • Aortic valve: medial end of right 2nd intercostal space.

    Muscles of the Bony Orbit

    • Key muscles include deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres major, teres minor, coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, triceps brachii, and several others, each with specific insertions and functions related to arm movement and stabilization.

    Peritoneal Cavity

    • A potential space between parietal and visceral layers, known to contain nothing under normal conditions.

    Pudendal Arteries

    • External and internal pudendal arteries supply distinct perineal regions, branching into various cutaneous and deep structures.

    Pudendal Canal

    • Formed by obturator internus fascia, contains internal pudendal vessels and pudendal nerve, contributing to pelvic nerve supply.

    Pelvic Spaces

    • Boundaries and contents of deep pelvic space include perineal membrane, urogenital diaphragm, and various structures vital for urinary and reproductive functions.
    • Superficial pelvic space includes components crucial for external genitalia and urogenital support.

    Portocaval Anastomosis

    • Connects hepatic portal circulation with systemic circulation, significant during portal hypertension.

    Frontal Lobe Gyruses

    • Comprises nine gyruses, including medial frontal and precentral gyrus, each with distinct functional roles.

    Speech Centers

    • Wernicke's area (Brodmann area 22) is crucial for speech comprehension, while Broca's area (Brodmann areas 44 and 45) facilitates speech production.
    • Lesions in these areas lead to distinct speech impairment types.

    Brodmann Areas

    • Cytoarchitectonic areas in the brain with designated functions relevant to language and sensory processing.
    • Specific areas (44, 45, 47) relate to language production and semantic processing in speech.### Layers of the Testicle
    • Skin surrounds the testicles as the outermost layer.
    • Dartos fascia is a layer of smooth muscle and connective tissue.
    • External spermatic fascia is an extension of the superficial fascia.
    • Cremaster fascia is composed of muscle that helps in temperature regulation.
    • Internal spermatic fascia envelopes the spermatic cord.
    • Tunica albuginea is a dense fibrous tissue covering the testis.
    • Tunica vaginalis provides lubrication and reduces friction.
    • Testis is the primary reproductive organ, producing sperm and hormones.

    Angle of the Neck of Femur

    • The angle should be approximately 125 degrees for optimal biomechanics.

    Facial Palsy

    • Classification includes peripheral facial palsy and central facial palsy.
    • Central facial palsy results from a lesion in the nucleus of the facial nerve, causing contralateral paralysis of lower face muscles.
    • Peripheral facial palsy arises from lesions outside of the brain, impacting the same side as the affected nerve.
    • Symptoms of peripheral lesions may include loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and difficulty closing the eyelid.

    Position of the Uterus

    • The uterus is typically anteverted at 90 degrees and anteflexed at 160-170 degrees.

    Organs of the Gut

    • Foregut: Esophagus, stomach, first part of the duodenum, pancreas, liver, gallbladder, biliary apparatus.
    • Midgut: Second, third, and fourth parts of the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon (2/3).
    • Hindgut: Transverse colon (1/3), descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, anus.

    Papez Circuit

    • A limbic circuit involved in emotional regulation and memory.

    Innervation of the Foot

    • Superficial fibular nerve, deep fibular nerve, saphenous nerve, and sural nerve provide sensory innervation.

    Innervation of the Forearm

    • Motor Innervation:
      • Median nerve innervates deep flexor muscles and thenar muscles.
      • Ulnar nerve supplies medial half of flexor digitorum profundus and flexor carpi ulnaris.
      • Radial nerve supplies posterior forearm muscles.
    • Cutaneous/Sensory Innervation:
      • Medial and lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerves, and posterior cutaneous nerve of forearm.

    Nerve Lesions in the Upper Limb

    • Median Nerve Lesion: Results in “Ape hand” due to paralysis of thenar muscles and impairment of thumb opposition.
    • Radial Nerve Lesion: Causes “wrist drop” from loss of extension capabilities.
    • Ulnar Nerve Lesion: Leads to “claw hand” and loss of sensation in the little finger.

    Anatomical Snuff Box

    • Medial border formed by the tendon of extensor pollicis longus.
    • Lateral border formed by the tendons of abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis.
    • Contains the radial artery and is bounded by the styloid process of the radius posteriorly/proximally, and the floor made up of the scaphoid and trapezium.

    Cubital Fossa

    • Superior border is an imaginary line connecting the humeral epicondyles.
    • Medial boundary formed by pronator teres, lateral by brachioradialis.
    • Contains musculocutaneous nerve, median nerve, brachial artery with its venae comitantes, and the biceps tendon.

    Triceps Hiatus

    • Bordered anteriorly by the anterior scalene muscle, posteriorly by the middle scalene muscle, and inferiorly by the first rib.

    Chambers of the Eye

    • Comprises the anterior chamber (behind cornea/iris) and posterior chamber (behind iris to zonules of lens).
    • Important for containing aqueous humor produced by the ciliary body.

    Nasal Anatomy

    • Connection of nasal conchae with their respective meatuses.
    • Important for drainage of sinuses, including posterior ethmoidal air cells through the superior nasal meatus, and the nasolacrimal duct through the inferior nasal meatus.

    Kisselbach’s Area

    • Anterior inferior part of the nasal septum where four arteries (superior labial, anterior ethmoidal, sphenopalatine, and greater palatine) form a vascular plexus.

    Broad Ligament

    • Made up of mesovarium, mesosalpinx, and mesometrium, providing structural support to reproductive organs.

    Anterior and Posterior Scalene Fissures

    • Anterior scalene: Anterior - SCM muscle, posterior - anterior scalene muscle, inferior - first rib.
    • Posterior scalene: Anterior - anterior scalene muscle, posterior - middle scalene muscle, inferior - first rib.

    Infratemporal Fossa

    • Bounded superiorly by the greater wing of sphenoid, anteriorly by maxilla, laterally by mandible's ramus, and medially by lateral pterygoid plate.
    • Contains branches of the maxillary artery and the otic ganglion.

    Pulse Locations

    • The radial artery can be palpated near the flexor carpi radialis tendon and in the anatomical snuffbox.

    Retromandibular Vein

    • Comprised of the superficial temporal and maxillary veins, important for draining blood from the face.

    Portal Hepatic Vein

    • Formed by the splenic, superior mesenteric, and gastric veins, critical for carrying blood from the gastrointestinal tract to the liver.

    Rib Classifications

    • True ribs: 1-7 (attached to sternum).
    • False ribs: 8-12 (indirectly connected).
    • Floating ribs: 11-12 (not connected).

    Spring Ligament

    • Also known as the plantar calcaneonavicular ligament, supports the foot's arches and connects the calcaneus to the navicular bone.

    Talocalcaneonavicular Joint

    • Polyaxial ball-and-socket joint stabilized by multiple ligaments including the spring ligament.

    Obturator Nerve

    • Arises from L2-L4, enters the obturator canal, providing motor innervation to adductors and sensory input to the medial thigh.

    Posterior Intercostal Artery

    • Upper two branches come from the supreme intercostal artery, others from the thoracic aorta.

    Rami Communicantes

    • White rami communicantes are associated with preganglionic sympathetic fibers; gray rami contain postganglionic sympathetic fibers.

    Sacral Plexus

    • Formed from ventral rami L4-S4, with branches including the sciatic and pudendal nerves, providing motor and sensory innervation to the lower limb and pelvic region.

    AV Node

    • Initiates contraction at approximately 40 depolarizations per minute, with conduction through the AV bundle to Purkinje fibers, triggering ventricular contraction.

    Peritoneal Cavity

    • A potential space between the parietal and visceral layers of peritoneum; typically contains no solid structures.

    Pudendal and External Arteries

    • External pudendal artery branches from the femoral artery.
    • Internal pudendal artery branches from the internal iliac artery, supplying the pelvic region.

    Pudendal Canal

    • Formed by the fascia of the obturator internus, it contains the internal pudendal vessels and pudendal nerve.

    Pelvic Spaces Boundaries

    • Deep pelvic space is defined by the perineal membrane below and the urogenital diaphragm above, containing perineal structures and nerves.
    • Superficial pelvic space is bounded by the perineal membrane above and Colles fascia below, containing erectile tissues and associated vessels/nerves.

    Portocaval Anastomosis

    • A connection between the hepatic portal system and systemic circulation, significant during portal hypertension.

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