Ophthalmology Quiz Chapter 5
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Questions and Answers

What kind of lens does not cause displacement of objects when moved in front of the eye?

  • Prismatic
  • Cylindrical
  • Flat (correct)
  • Collective
  • What is the average thickness of the sclera?

  • 1.0 mm
  • 0.3 mm
  • 2.0 mm (correct)
  • 2.5 mm
  • Where is the greatest thickness of the sclera generally found?

  • Under the tendons of the oculomotor muscles
  • In the area of the posterior pole of the eye (correct)
  • In the region of the equator of the eyeball
  • At the limbus
  • What type of disease should be suspected if a child's eyelids swell sharply after birth and release a liquid when opened?

    <p>Eyelid abscess</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily causes scleral trophic changes?

    <p>Choroids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are synechiae in the context of ocular conditions?

    <p>Adhesions of the iris with the lens or cornea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are precipitants in ocular conditions?

    <p>Pinpoint deposits on the posterior surface of the cornea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial treatment that should begin for iritis and iridocyclitis?

    <p>Corticosteroids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is symptomatic hemeropia?

    <p>Paccrpoйство crepuscular vision disorder as a symptom of beriberi A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Functional hemerolopia develops when which condition is present?

    <p>Organic lesions of the retina and optic nerve periphery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the refractive power of the cornea?

    <p>40.0-42.0 diopters</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best characterizes visual acuity?

    <p>The ability to perceive separate points with a minimum gap</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following formulas correctly represents the C Snellen formula for visual acuity?

    <p>Visus=d/D</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is protanomalia?

    <p>Abnormal perception of red</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines a blind spot in vision?

    <p>Projection in the visual field of the optic disc</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definition of scotoma?

    <p>Focal defect of the visual field that does not reach the peripheral borders</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of using mydriatics in cases of iridocyclitis?

    <p>To prevent synechiae and provide rest to the iris</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of cataract is indicated by opacity of the lens located under its posterior capsule?

    <p>Any of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred treatment for progressive pterygium?

    <p>Surgical removal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does aphakia refer to?

    <p>Absence of the lens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not used in the treatment of allergic conjunctivitis?

    <p>Sol.Atropini sulfatis 1%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is a leucoma characterized in terms of appearance?

    <p>White with clear contours, raised above the cornea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the average refractive power of the lens in diopters?

    <p>40</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action for a patient with immature cataracts and low visual acuity?

    <p>Perform cataract extraction operation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the opacities associated with keratitis?

    <p>White color with no mirror gloss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the typical complaints associated with keratitis?

    <p>Photophobia, lacrimation, blepharospasm, feeling of a foreign body, decreased visual acuity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What visual field defect is associated with damage to the internal part of the chiasm?

    <p>Bitemporal hemianopsia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a subject reads a row of the Sivtsev table from 5 meters, what visual acuity do they have if d=25 m?

    <p>0.2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to inflammation of the choroid proper?

    <p>Choroiditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is indicated by the described symptoms in the child: fever, sore throat, and sharp hyperemia of the conjunctiva?

    <p>Bacterial conjunctivitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long should each sign in the visual acuity table be demonstrated during an analysis?

    <p>3 seconds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is NOT typically used for anesthesia in outpatient ophthalmologic procedures?

    <p>Combined with orotracheal intubation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the syndrome characterized by typical keratitis complaints with pericorneal injection?

    <p>Ciliary syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the basic requirements for anesthesia in outpatient ophthalmology?

    <p>Awakening should be without prolonged depression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a risk associated with tracheotomy?

    <p>Erosion of the tracheal mucosa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anesthetic is known NOT to reduce intraocular pressure?

    <p>Ketamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What focal length corresponds to a lens with a refractive power of 2.0 D?

    <p>0.5 m</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of lens causes objects to move in the opposite direction when moved in front of the eye?

    <p>Collective lens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about d-tubocurarine and pancuronium is true concerning glaucoma patients?

    <p>Both reduce intraocular pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does NOT apply to the premedication used for strabismus surgery in children?

    <p>Morphine should be a primary component</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What determines the physical refraction of the eye?

    <p>Refractive power of all optical media of the eye and the position of the main focus relative to the retina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes astigmatism?

    <p>Different types of refraction in one eye or varying degrees in both eyes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the visual acuity of a subject who can count fingers from 50 cm?

    <p>0.07</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What method is used for determining refraction objectively?

    <p>Objective method for determining refraction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by excessive refractive power or elongation of the eye's anterior-posterior axis?

    <p>Myopia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes cycloplegia?

    <p>Paralysis of accommodation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main cause of presbyopia?

    <p>Age-related decline in lens flexibility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Questions and Answers

    • Question 1: Surgical removal is performed in cases of progressive pterygium
    • Question 1: Opacities in keratitis are typically white with no mirror gloss
    • Question 1: In leucoma (white spot), opacities are white with clear borders, raised above the cornea.
    • Question 2: Oral antihistamines are not used in treating allergic conjunctivitis.
    • Question 2: Typical symptoms of keratitis include photophobia, lacrimation, blepharospasm, feeling of a foreign body behind the upper eyelid, and decreased visual acuity.
    • Question 2: Inflammation of the choroid proper is called choroiditis.
    • Question 2: The syndrome characterized by typical keratitis complaints with pericorneal injection is called keratitis.
    • Question 3: A 5-year-old child presenting with fever, sore throat, redness, and discharge from the right eye, swollen eyelids, and conjunctiva (hyperemic, loosened, velvety). Gray films on the tonsils (with subsequent bleeding). Eye diagnosis is acute bacterial conjunctivitis of unknown etiology.
    • Question 3: Nasolacrimal canal, anterior and posterior ethmoid openings connect the eye socket to the nasal cavity.
    • **Question 3:**Spatium intercalenum, spatium antescalenum are spaces between the leaves of the neck fascia.
    • Question 3: Maxillary sinus inflammation can cause trigeminal neuralgia.

    Eye Examination and Procedures

    • Question 1: Oculomotor device, ad block, lingual pharynx, front panel; recurrence and lingual and facial nerve damage can cause aphonia.
    • Question 3: The violation in the technique of the trapezoid mastoid process operation that damages the facial nerve is when trepanation holes deviate to the front.
    • Question 3: The membranes of the eyeball include connective tissue, fibrous, and vascular.
    • Question 3: The orbital cavity communicates with the wing palatine fossa via lower orbital fissure.
    • Question 3: The optic nerve enters the eye socket through the upper orbital fissure.
    • Question 1: In cases of facial asymmetry and sagging corner of the mouth, the facial nerve may be affected.

    Anesthesia and Patient Care

    • Question 3: Endotracheal anesthesia with mechanical ventilation, intravenous anesthesia, and total intravenous anesthesia using ketamine.
    • Question 3: Degree of mouth opening and airway patency is the anesthesiologist's primary concern when examining patients with phlegmon of the parapharyngeal region - a major consideration, alongside cardio-vascular and acid-base states.
    • Question 2: Typical features of most ENT tumors include short durations, airway manipulation and low levels of traumaticity or irritation of reflexogenic zones.
    • Question 3: Combined anesthesia may be recommended for ear procedures, offering benefits like reduced intraoperative blood loss, pain relief and monitoring of the facial nerve.
    • Question 3: Mask or local anesthesia with premedication is not used for operations for diseases of the nose and paranasal sinuses.
    • Question 3: Premeditating ENT patients should improve reflex activity, create comfort, prevent nausea and vomiting, and reduce secretions.
    • Question 3: Maintaining airway patency, pain management, and preventing intracranial complications and homeostasis disorders are major parameters during ENT surgery.
    • Question 3: The basic requirements for anesthesia in outpatient ophthalmology include deep premedication, avoiding prolonged depression during awakening, and assuring adequate anesthesia.
    • Question 1: Morphine should not be included in premedication for strabismus surgery, while atropine, anaprilon, and seduxenum are commonly considered.
    • Question 2: Anesthetics such as Ketamine do not reduce intraocular pressure.
    • Question 3: D-tubocurarine and pancuronium are the choice relaxants for glaucoma induction because they reduce intraocular pressure and provide a longer lasting effect compared to succinylcholine, which increases intraocular pressure.
    • Question 3: Tracheotomy risks include sustained increased central venous pressure (CVP), perforation of the trachea, and asphyxia.
    • Question 1: Focal length of a 1 diopter lens is 1 meter.
    • Question 1: Refractive power of a lens with a 1-meter focal length is 1 Diopter.

    Visual Acuity and Refraction

    • Question 3: Visual acuity analysis with tables is performed at distances of 5 meters, with each sign present on the table needing to be demonstrated before 3 seconds in order for accuracy.
    • Question 3: Visual acuity (acuity is tested for both eyes with correction using Rabkin's tables) can indicate various disorders when not correctly read, inborn or acquired, mixed, but cannot be determined from the given data, and therefore may indicate either an inborn or acquired disorder.
    • Question 3: Patients with xanthopsia after poisoning are diagnosed with a color vision disorder.
    • Question 2: Normal trichromasia, anomal trichromasia, dichromasia, and monochromasia are color perception names.
    • Question 1: Protanomaly refers to an abnormal perception of red.
    • Question 3: Innate or acquired may be responsible for the colour vision disorder of a patient who is able to correctly identify letters/numbers with one eye but not with the other. This may be determined, or may not be determined, from this particular data set.
    • Question 1: Hemianopsia is both loss of half of the visual field, of which the visual field in one eye is missing; bilateral or pronounced unilateral narrowing of the visual field.
    • Question 2: Binasal hemianopsia/quadrant/bitemporal/homonymous hemianopsia may occur if the portion of the chiasm is damaged.
    • Question 1: Photopic vision is day vision; mesopic vision is twilight vision; scotopic vision is night vision.
    • Question 3: Symptoms such as twilight vision disorder, as a symptom from eye disease of cone damage, or as a symptom of vitamin deficiencies, including beriberi A, are possible indicators if an individual experiences difficulty distinguishing colours or has peripheral vision issues.

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on key concepts in ophthalmology, focusing on conditions such as pterygium, keratitis, and conjunctivitis. This quiz covers symptoms, treatments, and definitions relevant to eye health, ensuring a comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.

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