Oncology Nursing: Cancer Risk Factors and Symptoms
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Questions and Answers

What is the single most influential risk factor contributing to the development of cancer?

  • Lifestyle (correct)
  • Family history
  • Age
  • Menopause or hormonal events

Which factor is classified as an environmental influence contributing to cancer development?

  • Immunologic status
  • Air pollution (correct)
  • Gender
  • Age

A patient in the terminal stages of cancer undergoes an operation intended to alleviate intractable pain. How is this type of intervention best described?

  • Preventative
  • Curative
  • Resective
  • Palliative (correct)

If a patient presents with hoarseness, which question should the nurse prioritize to gather specific details about the symptom?

<p>Do you frequently strain your voice? (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is known to be the most common adverse effect that results from chemotherapy treatments?

<p>Nausea and vomiting (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the TNM staging system, what does T1N2M1 indicate about a patient's cancer?

<p>Stage IV (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is typically the first noticeable symptom associated with cancer of the larynx?

<p>Hoarseness of the voice (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings is LEAST likely to be an early sign of breast cancer?

<p>Tender lump (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios represents an iatrogenic cause of cancer?

<p>The use of X-rays as part of a treatment plan to shrink a tumor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is educating a community group on sun safety. Which statement accurately reflects current recommendations for minimizing sun exposure?

<p>Avoid direct sun exposure during peak intensity hours, specifically from 10 AM to 2 PM. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a breast examination, a nurse palpates a lump. In which quadrant of the breast are tumors most frequently located?

<p>Upper outer quadrant (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes current guidelines for Pap smear testing?

<p>Pap smears can be repeated every 3 years after 4 consecutive negative results. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with advanced cancer is receiving palliative care. Which of the following best describes the focus of this type of care?

<p>Relieving symptoms and improving quality of life. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing intervention is most likely to improve the respiratory efficiency of a client with metastatic lung cancer?

<p>Teaching and encouraging pursed-lip breathing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To minimize nausea and vomiting in a client undergoing chemotherapy, which dietary recommendation should the nurse suggest?

<p>Eat frequent, small meals throughout the day. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is undergoing both chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Which of the following groups of side effects is most commonly associated with these treatments?

<p>Fatigue, hair loss (alopecia), and bone marrow depression. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with liver cancer is at risk for developing several complications. Which assessment finding would be most indicative of hepatic encephalopathy?

<p>Changes in mental status. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child undergoing treatment for Wilm's tumor is admitted to the pediatric unit. What nursing intervention is of utmost importance when caring for this child?

<p>Strict monitoring of blood pressure and urinary output. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma is undergoing treatment. Which of the following assessment findings would warrant immediate notification of the physician?

<p>Sudden onset of severe dyspnea and stridor. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a neonate who develops jaundice within the first 24 hours of life. The bilirubin level is rapidly rising, indicating a risk for kernicterus. What should the nurse prioritize?

<p>Initiating phototherapy per protocol. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A radiation safety officer discovers a radioactive implant dislodged from a client's cervix and lying on the bed. What immediate action is most appropriate?

<p>Leave the room immediately and notify the radiation department. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy develops severe stomatitis. Which intervention is most appropriate to alleviate pain and promote oral hygiene?

<p>Check regularly for s/sx of stomatitis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic procedure provides definitive confirmation of breast cancer?

<p>Fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client undergoing radiation therapy develops thrombocytopenia. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in the plan of care?

<p>Check for petechiae every shift. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving internal radiation therapy via an unsealed source asks why the nursing staff wears monitoring devices. What is the primary reason for this practice?

<p>To measure the cumulative radiation exposure of the nursing staff. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a patient undergoing external radiation therapy for prostate cancer. Which of the following safety measures is MOST important for the nurse to implement?

<p>Limiting the time spent in direct contact with the patient. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed Sodium Phosphate (32P) for polycythemia vera. What route of administration should the nurse anticipate?

<p>Intravenous (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving chemotherapy develops stomatitis. Which intervention is MOST appropriate for the nurse to recommend?

<p>Providing a soft-bristled toothbrush and suggesting a saline rinse. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing chemotherapy with Doxorubicin HCl (Adriamycin) is being monitored for potential side effects. Which assessment finding warrants the MOST immediate intervention by the nurse?

<p>New onset of lower extremity edema and shortness of breath. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a dose of intravenous chemotherapy, the nurse discovers that some of the drug has infiltrated into the subcutaneous tissue. What is the MOST appropriate immediate action?

<p>Stop the infusion and follow the institution's extravasation protocol. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving internal radiation for thyroid cancer is being discharged. Which instruction is MOST important for the nurse to emphasize to the patient and their family?

<p>The patient should limit close contact with pregnant women and infants. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed Methotrexate with Leucovorin. What is the PRIMARY purpose of administering Leucovorin in conjunction with Methotrexate?

<p>To protect normal cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving chemotherapy develops hyperuricemia. Which nursing intervention is MOST appropriate to address this complication?

<p>Encouraging a low-purine diet and increasing fluid intake. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which personal protective equipment is MOST essential for a nurse to wear when caring for a patient with a sealed source of radiation?

<p>A lead apron and gloves. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed Tamoxifen Citrate (Nolvadex). What type of medication is Tamoxifen?

<p>An estrogen antagonist (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST significant consideration when handling linen and other materials from a patient undergoing internal radiation therapy with an unsealed source?

<p>Checking the materials for the presence of the isotope. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is to receive Chlorambucil (Leukeran). The nurse knows this medication is what type of chemotherapy agent?

<p>Alkylating Agent (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which radiation type requires specific precautions due to its highest penetration capability?

<p>Gamma ray (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving Vincristine (Oncovin) is at risk for peripheral neuropathy. Which assessment finding would indicate this potential side effect?

<p>Numbness and tingling in the extremities (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most accurate description of 'anaplasia' in the context of oncology?

<p>A condition where cells lose the morphological characteristics of mature cells and their orientation with respect to each other. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a tumor that is localized, encapsulated, and exhibits hyperplasia. Which of the following classifications best describes this tumor?

<p>Benign (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most likely route of metastasis for a sarcoma?

<p>Blood vessels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is least associated with an increased risk of cancer?

<p>A diet rich in fruits and vegetables (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 55-year-old male patient with a history of smoking and asbestos exposure is undergoing lung cancer screening. Which of the following secondary prevention methods is most appropriate for early detection in this patient?

<p>Chest X-ray and sputum cytology (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who is a known smoker is concerned about developing cancer. What would be the most important recommendation you can make regarding cancer prevention?

<p>Smoking cessation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following assessment findings would be most indicative of a potential malignancy, according to the CAUTION US acronym?

<p>Persistent hoarseness of the voice (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's pathology report indicates a tumor staged as T2, N1, M0. What does this staging most likely suggest about the cancer?

<p>The tumor is larger with regional lymph node involvement but no distant metastasis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the significance of tumor grading in oncology?

<p>Tumor grade reflects the degree of differentiation of cancer cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the 'promotion' stage of carcinogenesis, what primarily occurs?

<p>Exposure to substances enhances the growth of initiated cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is in denial about their diagnosis. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate initially?

<p>Allowing the patient time to process the information and express their feelings. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing action is most important when assisting a patient who is coping with a new cancer diagnosis?

<p>Providing a non-judgmental environment for the patient to express feelings (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of therapeutic communication during the intervention phase of cancer management?

<p>To facilitate open expression of feelings and promote effective coping strategies. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with adenocarcinoma. Which tissue type is most likely the origin of this cancer?

<p>Glandular epithelial tissue (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a tumor that has invaded adjacent tissues and spread to distant sites. Which stage best represents the patient's condition?

<p>Stage IV (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale behind combining multiple drugs in cancer therapy?

<p>To enhance the effectiveness of treatment through synergistic effects while minimizing side effects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following side effects is commonly associated with chemotherapy and radiation (C&R) treatments?

<p>Alopecia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing cancer treatment experiences a significant decrease in bone marrow activity. Which of the following complications is LEAST likely to arise as a direct result?

<p>Hyperkalemia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with cancer is undergoing treatment and expresses feelings of loss related to changes in their physical appearance due to surgery and medication. Which aspect of this patient's experience is being described?

<p>Perceived change in body image. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary emphasis of hospice care for terminally ill cancer patients?

<p>Symptom control, pain management, and providing comfort and dignity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a brain tumor and is experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to observe?

<p>Decreased level of consciousness, headache, nausea and projectile vomiting. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause associated with cancer of the larynx?

<p>Smoking. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of lung cancer is most prevalent?

<p>Adenocarcinoma. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A female patient discovers a non-tender, fixed lump in the upper outer quadrant of her breast. What other assessment finding would be most concerning and warrant immediate investigation for potential breast cancer?

<p>Dimpling of the skin over the lump. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What dietary factors are most strongly linked to an increased risk of stomach cancer?

<p>Consumption of cured foods and diets low in fiber. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for a Billroth II procedure following a diagnosis of stomach cancer. What is the primary purpose of this surgical intervention?

<p>To remove a portion of the stomach and connect the remaining portion to the jejunum. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with colon cancer has a history of a diet low in fiber and high in cholesterol. The physician mentioned that the patient has 'POLYPS'. What signs and symptoms does this patient potentially exhibit?

<p>Change in bowel movements, bleeding, and symptoms of obstruction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is diagnosed with Wilms' tumor. What is a crucial nursing intervention?

<p>Avoiding palpation of the abdomen to prevent potential spread of the tumor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has been prescribed Filgrastim (Neupogen) during chemotherapy. What is the expected primary outcome of this medication?

<p>To stimulate the production of neutrophils. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Hodgkin's lymphoma, which unique characteristic distinguishes it from non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?

<p>Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Oncogenes

Genes that can cause normal cells to become cancerous when altered.

Proto-oncogenes

Repressed genes that can be activated by risk factors to become oncogenes.

Anaplasia

Cells that do not resemble their tissue of origin in structure or function.

Metaplasia

Replacement of one differentiated cell type with another, which is not normal for that tissue.

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Carcinoma

Cancer arising from epithelial cells, capable of spreading.

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Neoplasm

New, abnormal growth of tissue; can be benign or malignant.

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Dysplasia

Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells.

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Hyperplasia

Increase in the number of normal cells in a tissue or organ.

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Squamous cell carcinoma

Cancer of surface epithelial cells.

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Leukemia

Cancer of the blood.

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Benign Tumor

Localized tumor, often encapsulated, with cells similar to normal cells; typically not life-threatening unless in a critical location.

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Malignant Tumor

Tumor that can invade and destroy nearby tissue and spread to other parts of the body (metastasize).

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Metastasis

The spread of cancer from its primary site to other places in the body.

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Carcinogenesis

The process by which normal cells are transformed into cancer cells.

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Staging and Grading

A process of determining the extent to which cancer has developed by grading and staging.

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Early sign of Larynx Cancer?

Persistent hoarseness of the voice.

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Common Type of Lung Cancer?

Adenocarcinoma.

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NOT an Early Sign of Breast Cancer?

Tender lump.

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Early sign of Stomach Cancer?

Vague fullness of the stomach.

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T1N2M1 Means?

Stage IV.

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Question for Hoarseness of Voice?

Do you strain your voice?

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Common Adverse Effect of Chemotherapy?

Nausea and vomiting.

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Single Most Important Risk Factor for Cancer?

Lifestyle.

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Alpha Particle

Fast-moving helium nucleus with slight penetration.

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Beta Particle

Fast-moving electron with moderate penetration.

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Gamma Ray

Similar to a light ray, with high penetration.

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Chemotherapy Action

Destroying cells' ability to reproduce by damaging DNA.

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Cytotoxic Agent

Agent capable of destroying cells.

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Alkylating Agents

Attack the DNA of rapidly dividing cells.

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Vinca Alkaloids

Interfere with mitosis (M phase).

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Antimetabolites

Inhibits protein synthesis (S phase).

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Antibiotic (Cancer Treatment)

Inhibit RNA.

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Hormone Therapy (Cancer)

Inhibits RNA and protein synthesis in tissues that depend on the opposite sex hormones.

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Immune Agents (Cancer)

Introduction of an agent to stimulate production of antibodies.

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Goal of Cancer Treatment

Destroy malignant cells without excessive destruction of normal cells.

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Nephrotoxicity

Kidney damage caused by cancer treatment.

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Stomatitis

Inflammation of the mouth.

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Film Badge

Measure the whole exposure of the nurse.

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Iatrogenic Cause

Harm or illness caused by medical examination or treatment.

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Peak Sun Exposure

Avoid the strongest sunlight hours to reduce cancer risk.

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Breast Tumor Location

The upper outer quadrant of the breast is the most common location for tumors.

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Pap Smear Frequency

After 4 negative results, repeat Pap smears every 3 years.

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Diaphragmatic Breathing

Breathing technique that uses the diaphragm muscle to expand the lungs.

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Pursed Lip Breathing

Technique to slow breathing and release trapped air in the lungs.

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Nausea Diet

Eat small frequent meals to help prevent nausea.

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Chemo/Radiation Side Effects

Common side effects are: Stomatitis, Alopecia and Bone marrow depression.

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Reasons for Combining Drugs

Combining drugs to enhance effects (synergy) or provide additional treatment and reduce side effects (adjuvant).

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Alopecia

Hair loss, a common side effect that usually occurs 2-3 weeks after chemotherapy starts.

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Bone Marrow Depression

Decreased activity of the bone marrow, leading to anemia, infection risk, and bleeding tendency.

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Hospice Care

A standard of care focused on symptom control, pain management, comfort, and dignity for terminally ill cancer patients.

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Breast Cancer Signs

Non-tender, fixed lump often found in the tail of Spence, dimpling, or bleeding.

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Stomach Cancer

Most common GI cancer, associated with cured foods and low fiber intake.

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Hodgkin's Lymphoma

A lymphoma characterized by painless, localized lymph node obstruction.

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Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

A lymphoma characterized by painful, systemic, and widespread symptoms.

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Wilm's Tumor

A childhood kidney tumor, usually unilateral. Do NOT palpate the abdomen.

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Skin Cancer Prevention

Protection against UV light, avoidance of irritants and chemicals, and regular monitoring of skin lesions.

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Filgrastim (Neupogen)

Stimulates the production of neutrophils (a type of white blood cell) to help fight infection.

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Laryngeal Cancer Signs

Hoarseness of voice, dysphagia, coughing, and bloody sputum, often caused by smoking.

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Lung Cancer Signs

Chronic cough, wheezing, dyspnea, chest pain, hemoptysis, and hoarseness, often caused by smoking.

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Colon Cancer

Most common is adenocarcinoma, associated with low fiber, high cholesterol diets and polyps.

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Kernicterus

Yellow staining of the brain due to high bilirubin levels, potentially causing brain damage.

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Adenopathy

Enlargement of lymph nodes, which may or may not be painful, that can indicate infection or malignancy.

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Whipple's Procedure

Surgical procedure involving removal of the head of the pancreas, the duodenum, a portion of the jejunum, the stomach and the gallbladder.

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FNAB (Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy)

A diagnostic procedure where a thin needle is used to extract cells from a suspicious area for examination under a microscope.

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Thrombocytopenia

A condition characterized by a decrease in platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding.

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Nagging Cough (Cancer Warning)

One of the seven early warning signs of cancer includes a persistent cough.

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Study Notes

  • These notes cover common terminologies in oncology, cancer cell characteristics, cancer classifications, etiology, predisposing factors, early detection methods, warning signs, diagnostic exams, staging, client reactions, interventions, treatment options like surgery, radiation and chemotherapy, and specific cancers.

Common Oncology Terms

  • Oncogenes are cancer genes capable of altering normal cells.
  • Proto-oncogenes are repressed oncogenes activated by etiologic and risk factors.
  • Anaplasia is when cells lose resemblance to their original tissues.
  • Metaplasia is when one cell type is replaced by another.
  • Carcinoma is a cancer cell that originates from epithelial cells and can metastasize.
  • Neoplasm refers to the growth of new tissue, also known as a tumor.
  • Dysplasia involves alterations in the size, shape, and organization of cells.
  • Hyperplasia indicates an increase in the number of normal cells.

Cancer Cell Classifications

  • Tumors can be benign (localized, encapsulated, slow growth, no metastasis) or malignant (systemic, non-encapsulated, rapid growth, with metastasis and harmful).
  • Benign tumors can be adenomas (glandular tissue), osteomas (bone), neuromas (nerve cells), or fibromas (fibrous tissue).
  • Squamous cell carcinoma originates from surface epithelial cells.
  • Adenosarcoma occurs in glandular epithelial tissue.
  • Fibrosarcoma affects fibrous connective tissue.
  • Liposarcoma affects adipose tissue.
  • Chondrosarcoma arises from cartilage.
  • Osteosarcoma arises from bone.
  • Hemangiosarcoma affects blood vessels.
  • Lymphangiosarcoma affects lymph vessels.
  • Leiomyosarcoma affects smooth muscles.
  • Rhabdomyosarcoma affects striated muscles.
  • Glioma affects glial cells.
  • Neurolemic sarcoma affects nerve sheaths.
  • Leukemia affects the blood.

Cancer Etiology and Predisposing Factors

  • The exact cause of cancer is unknown.
  • Viruses, like those causing liver cancer or Burkitt's lymphoma, are implicated.
  • Chemical agents such as tar, asphalt, arsenicals, fuels, and oil can cause cancer.
  • Certain drugs, including chemotherapeutic agents, may contribute to cancer development.
  • Physical agents like radiation are known to induce cancer.
  • Cancer risk increases with age (60% of clients are over 65).
  • Breast cancer is more common in women, while prostate cancer is more common in men.
  • Geographic location is a factor, with higher rates of stomach cancer in Japan.
  • Occupation, such as factory work (lung cancer).
  • A family history of breast, ovarian, or colon cancer increases risk.
  • Diet (cured and salted foods) and stress (decreased immune system) are potential factors.
  • Precancerous lesions like moles and polyps may develop into cancer.

Early Cancer Detection (Secondary)

  • Early detection methods include chest X-rays and sputum cytology for lung cancer.
  • Physical exams are recommended annually for individuals over 40.
  • Exams should include assessment of skin, lymph nodes, mouth, thyroid, breasts, testes, rectum, and prostate.
  • Oral exams should be conducted annually.
  • TSE (testicular self-exam) should be performed monthly following a shower.
  • Digital rectal exams are recommended annually for those 40 and older.
  • Sigmoidoscopies should be done every 5 years for those 50 and older if previous results are negative.
  • Fecal occult blood tests are recommended based on a doctor's advice.
  • Breast self-exams (BSE) should be performed monthly.
  • Clinical breast exams should be done by a physician every 3 years for those 20-40.
  • Mammography is recommended once for those 35-40, then yearly for those over 50.
  • Pap smears are recommended starting at age 18 and all sexually active women, then yearly after 3 negative results.
  • Pelvic exams are done at the same time as Pap smears.
  • Endometrial tissue sampling is done during menopause.

Cancer Risk Factors

  • Smoking is a major risk factor for lung cancer.
  • Sunlight exposure (10 a.m. to 2 p.m.) increases the risk of basal/squamous cell skin cancer.
  • Ionizing radiation from medical and dental X-rays is a risk factor.
  • Nutrition and diet high in fats and low in fiber are implicated.
  • Alcohol consumption is associated with liver, oral, and esophageal cancers.
  • Chewing tobacco increases the risk of mouth, larynx, and throat cancers.
  • Estrogen exposure is linked to endometrial cancer.
  • Occupational hazards like nickel and asbestos contribute to cancer risk.

Warning Signs of Possible Cancer

  • CAUTION:
    • Change in bowel or bladder habits
    • A sore that does not heal
    • Unusual bleeding or discharge
    • Thickening or lump
    • Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
    • Obvious change in a wart or mole
    • Nagging cough or hoarseness
  • Additional warning signs include unexplained anemia and sudden weight loss.

Cancer Diagnostic Examinations

  • Diagnostic confirmation relies on biopsy (FNA, incision, excision) and staging through diagnostic exams because the earlier it is detected, the more curable it is.
  • Imaging: CT scans, MRIs, PET scans
  • Direct visualization techniques: bronchoscopy, gastroscopy, proctosigmoidoscopy
  • Other methods: mammograms, Pap smears, UTZs, angiograms, lymphangiograms, blood studies.

Tumor Staging

  • Staging uses the TNM (Tumor, Node, Metastasis) system to classify cancer extent and severity.
  • T indicates the tumor size (T0-T4).
  • N indicates lymph node involvement (N0-N3).
  • M indicates distant metastasis (M0-M1).
  • Tis - carcinoma in situ (non-infiltrating)
  • Stage Examples:
    • Normal TO, NO, M0
    • Stage I: T1, N0, M0, < 2cm tumor; Stage II: T2, N1, M0, > 2 < 5cm tumor; Stage III: T3, N2, M0, > 5cm tumor
  • Microscopic study of the cell
  • The poorer the differentiation of the cells the poorer is the prognosis

Cancer – Metastatic Process

  • Carcinogenesis is the process of cancer formation involving:
    • initiation (exposure to carcinogens)
    • promotion (carcinogenic promotion of proto-oncogenes)
    • transformation (conversion to malignant cells)
    • progression (malignant behavior of cells)
  • Metastasis involves invasion of tissue, spread of cancer cells, establishment and growth at secondary sites.

Cancer – Client Reaction and Strategies

  • The most client fear is of death upon confirmation of cancer
  • Most clients usually ignored cardinal signs of cancer
  • Clients use denial, rational inquiry, affect reversal, mutuality, suppression. - Mutality-share concerns and talk with other persons. - Suppression-conscious forgetting
  • Can react with confrontation, redefine, passive acceptance, disengagement.

Cancer - Effective Tests

  • Effective tests must be specific, reliable, economical, and acceptable to the client.
  • Therapeutic communications (silence, acceptance, etc.) are important.
  • Cancer management involves surgery, radiation, chemo, and immunotherapy.

Modes of Cancer Treatment

  • Surgery is used for diagnosis, staging, and treatment.
    • Palliative – relieves pain, airway obstruction.
    • Prevention - removal of target organ
  • Radiation, destroy the ability of the cell to reproduce by damaging the DNA -Alpha particle-fast moving helium nucleus (slight penetration)
    • Beta particle-fast moving electron (moderate penetration)
    • Gamma ray-similar to light ray (high penetration)
  • Cytotoxic drug - alkylating and antimetabolites - Alkylating Agents: Attack the DNA of rapidly dividing cell - Vinca Alkaloids: Interfere with mitosis (M phase)
  • Hormone: Inhibit RNA and protein synthesis in tissues that are dependent on the opposite sex

Common Cancers

  • Lung Cancer: the leading cancer
  • Brain Tumor, Common: cerebellar astrocytoma, brain stem glioma, medulloblastoma (brain stem)
  • Prostate Cancer: BPH is a cancer of the prostate
    • Dx: elevation of CEA, PSA, AP
  • Colon Cancer: low fiber high cholesterol diet, POLYPS Filgrastim (Neupogen) = stimulates neutophils production

Cancer - Radiation Safety

  • To prevent or limit radiation exposure, consider the following:
    • Distance is key: greater distance reduces exposure.
    • Limit time spent near radiation.
    • Use lead aprons and gloves

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Oncology-Nursing.pdf

Description

This quiz covers key aspects of oncology nursing, including cancer risk factors, environmental influences, and symptom management. It addresses cancer staging using the TNM system and common adverse effects of chemotherapy. Scenarios related to identifying early signs of breast cancer and iatrogenic causes of cancer are also included.

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