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Questions and Answers

Which of the following signs is indicative of respiratory distress?

  • Bradycardia
  • Hyperthermia
  • Hypertension
  • Cyanosis (correct)

What does the root 'tachy-' in medical terminology signify?

  • Irregular
  • Normal
  • Fast (correct)
  • Slow

Which device is commonly used to assist in securing a patient's airway during respiratory emergencies?

  • Nebulizer
  • Pulse oximeter
  • Oropharyngeal airway (correct)
  • Sphygmomanometer

In pharmacology, which of the following medications is classified as a diuretic?

<p>Furosemide (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What vital signs should be included in a primary assessment?

<p>Respiratory rate, blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the importance of simulation training in clinical skills?

<p>It enhances hands-on proficiency through realistic patient management experiences. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized as a medical emergency requiring immediate treatment?

<p>Myocardial Infarction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'brady-' refer to in medical terminology?

<p>Slow (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which airway adjunct is contraindicated in a patient with suspected skull fractures?

<p>Nasopharyngeal airway (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of assessing the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) in airway management?

<p>To evaluate the likelihood of airway obstruction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of ventilation, what does positive pressure ventilation primarily do?

<p>Inflates the lungs against atmospheric pressure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common indicator of a pulmonary embolism during assessment?

<p>Cyanosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While performing cardiac arrest management, what is the primary focus during the first few cycles of CPR?

<p>Provide high-quality chest compressions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the airway anatomy is primarily responsible for preventing aspiration during swallowing?

<p>Larynx (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What commonly observed sign indicates the involvement of accessory muscles in respiration?

<p>Retractions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of monitoring end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) during advanced airway placement?

<p>To confirm endotracheal tube placement (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of mechanical ventilation is typically used for patients experiencing respiratory failure and requires continuous pressure?

<p>Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure (BiPAP) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which trimester does fetal viability begin to increase significantly?

<p>Second Trimester (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct order of the stages of labor?

<p>Dilation, Delivery of the fetus, Delivery of the placenta (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vital sign measurement is particularly important in monitoring maternal health during pregnancy?

<p>Blood pressure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessment is performed immediately post-delivery to evaluate a neonate's condition?

<p>Neonatal Assessment (Apgar score) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the primary focus of the first stage of labor?

<p>Cervical dilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the SAMPLE acronym stand for in patient history taking?

<p>Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last oral intake, Events (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common complication to assess for during maternal assessment?

<p>Gestational diabetes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of EMS operations, what is critical for maintaining scene safety?

<p>Ensuring personal and patient safety (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be the focus of documentation standards in EMS?

<p>Maintaining accurate and complete patient records (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is NOT part of the core body systems studied in anatomy and physiology?

<p>Telecommunication (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the earliest signs on an EKG of an acute myocardial infarction as it progresses?

<p>Hyperacute T waves (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not considered a STEMI imposter?

<p>Acute pericarditis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Elevations in leads II, III, and AVF with reciprocal changes in leads I and AVL are commonly caused by which type of myocardial infarction?

<p>Inferior MI (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the presence of an inferior STEMI, which coronary artery is most likely to have an occlusion?

<p>Right coronary artery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The septal wall is primarily fed by which coronary arteries?

<p>LAD and RCA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which coronary arteries supply the lateral wall of the left ventricle?

<p>Circumflex and LAD (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Brugada syndrome is characterized by which of the following?

<p>Is commonly misdiagnosed until a major cardiac event (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

On an EKG, electrical alternans appears as:

<p>Alternating high and low amplitude of QRS complexes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sign is typically associated with an early repolarization pattern on an EKG?

<p>Concave upward ST elevation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of STEMI types, which of the following best describes an inferior STEMI?

<p>Often presents with ST elevations in leads II, III, and AVF (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first item in the AHA chain of survival?

<p>Activation of emergency response (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does receiving bystander CPR prior to EMS arrival have on patient survivability?

<p>Significantly improves survivability (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what rate should chest compressions be performed on adult patients during CPR?

<p>100 to 120 per minute (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should you instruct an EMT performing chest compressions who is compressing to approximately half the patient’s AP diameter?

<p>Compress deeper (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which year were external chest compressions discovered by a group of physicians from Johns Hopkins University?

<p>1933 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What recent changes have been recommended in assisted ventilation techniques during CPR?

<p>Emphasis on minimizing interruptions for ventilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding the history of resuscitation methods?

<p>Modern techniques are based on historical experimental practices (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During CPR, what is the primary concern regarding perfusion during compressions?

<p>Maintaining consistent depth and rate of compressions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How has the perception of bystander CPR changed over time?

<p>It is recognized as critical for improving outcomes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key feature of the AHA recommendations for CPR techniques?

<p>Principle of 'compressions first' without interruption (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is allowing full recoil between compressions during CPR important?

<p>It ensures proper coronary perfusion occurs during diastole. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should you do if there is a sudden increase in ETCO2 during CPR?

<p>Increase the respiratory rate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended breath rate during CPR?

<p>8-10 breaths per minute. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding short interruptions in chest compressions?

<p>They significantly disrupt perfusion until normal compressions resume. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct technique for delivering breaths with a bag-valve-mask (BVM)?

<p>Ventilate only until you see the patient’s chest rise. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During CPR, why should a paramedic consider using an alternate airway device?

<p>For ease of placement during chest compressions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be the end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) goal during CPR?

<p>35-45 mmHg. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should a paramedic take when placing an airway during CPR?

<p>Continue compressions and allow for several attempts. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of hyperventilating a patient during CPR?

<p>It increases intrathoracic pressure significantly. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should paramedics do during CPR to avoid causing a back injury?

<p>Ensure proper body mechanics while compressing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical adjustment to make for a pregnant patient during cardiac arrest management?

<p>Displace the uterus to the left to improve venous return (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario is NOT an appropriate indicator for terminating resuscitation efforts in the field?

<p>High-quality bystander CPR provided prior to EMS arrival (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of post-resuscitation care, what vital sign indicates a need to reassess management?

<p>Blood pressure of 91/62 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a paramedic do immediately after obtaining ROSC if the blood pressure remains low?

<p>Prepare to initiate a vasopressor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using capnography during CPR, a sudden drop in end-tidal CO2 may indicate what?

<p>A potential loss of ventilation effectiveness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What reflects an appropriate oxygenation strategy for a patient with recent ROSC?

<p>Aim for oxygen saturation levels above 90% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding EKG interpretation post-ROSC?

<p>It can be utilized to determine resuscitation success (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which option best describes the frequency of epinephrine administration during cardiac arrest in pregnancy?

<p>It should remain the same as for non-pregnant patients (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended management for a patient with an end-tidal CO2 reading of 28 mmHg after ROSC?

<p>Increase PEEP from 5 to 15 cm H2O (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first-line pharmacologic agent used to treat anaphylaxis?

<p>Epinephrine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is characterized by a delayed second allergic response to the initial exposure?

<p>Biphasic allergic reaction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an allergic reaction, histamines primarily affect which part of the cardiovascular system?

<p>Both vasculature and myocardium (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of allergic reactions?

<p>Sight (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best describes an allergic reaction that is limited to a small area of the body?

<p>Local reaction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of leukotrienes during an allergic reaction?

<p>They increase vascular permeability (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might elderly patients be affected during allergic reactions?

<p>Are at increased chance of fatality from reactions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptoms could indicate airway involvement during anaphylaxis?

<p>Bronchospasm or laryngeal edema (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which description fits anaphylaxis best?

<p>A severe, life-threatening systemic allergic reaction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What impact do pruritis and urticaria have on the body’s systems during an allergic reaction?

<p>They are predominantly integumentary symptoms (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which federal organization is primarily responsible for collecting data on ambulance crashes?

<p>NHTSA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The main purpose of collecting and analyzing data on ambulance crashes is to:

<p>Develop future recommendations and policy changes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about data collection on ambulance safety is not true?

<p>Data is comprehensive and captures all crashes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant factor contributing to injuries and fatalities in ambulance crashes?

<p>Traffic conditions during response (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is essential for ensuring safety before an ambulance starts its shift?

<p>Ambulance pre-shift check (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The NHTSA aims to develop future recommendations based on analysis of:

<p>National data on ambulance crashes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary safety tips discussed regarding ambulance operation?

<p>Carefully manage response times and patient needs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of analyzing national data on ambulance crashes?

<p>To improve response protocols and reduce future incidents (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the NHTSA EMS mission statement?

<p>To support and enhance the safety of emergency medical services (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An important aspect of the data collection efforts on ambulance crashes includes:

<p>Analyzing crash causes and contributing factors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of on-the-job injuries for EMS personnel?

<p>Ambulance crashes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding supplies in the patient compartment is accurate?

<p>All items should be secured. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When checking an emergency vehicle or aircraft before putting it into service, which procedure is correct?

<p>The paramedic should check both the medical equipment and the vehicle/aircraft. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the primary focus be during pre-shift ambulance checks?

<p>Verifying the on-board oxygen supply and flow. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What trend does literature demonstrate regarding the use of lights and sirens in ambulances?

<p>There is a significant increase in crashes when using lights/sirens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the requirement for survival kits or equipment in emergency vehicles?

<p>They should be on every emergency vehicle/aircraft. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which group experiences the majority of fatalities in ambulance crash incidents?

<p>Occupants of other vehicles involved in the collision (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key aspect of walkarounds performed on ambulances?

<p>They should be done methodically at a consistent time each time. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is typically considered the most critical item to check during pre-shift ambulance inspections?

<p>The functional status of medical equipment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common sign that may indicate a person is experiencing domestic abuse?

<p>Multiple red flags over time (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario presents a higher likelihood of indicating domestic violence?

<p>A 36-year-old female who displays emotional distress after a fight with her husband (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which group is noted to have a decreased risk of exploitation?

<p>Straight men (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of questions should paramedics ask when assessing a patient for signs of abuse?

<p>Open-ended questions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which choice describes a common injury seen in infants who are victims of abuse?

<p>Burns due to microwaved formula (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What skills are essential for EMS personnel to identify potential victims of domestic abuse?

<p>Ability to remain unbiased (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When documenting in the medical record, what type of data should always be included?

<p>Always/objective (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of human trafficking involves the exploitation of individuals for sex-related services?

<p>Sex trafficking (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an indicator that may suggest abuse in a patient?

<p>Scars and mutilations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might EMS personnel struggle to identify cases of domestic violence?

<p>Limited time spent with patients (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant challenge for EMS providers when identifying victims of human trafficking?

<p>Fear of retribution from traffickers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following would be a potential red flag for abuse or exploitation?

<p>An adult patient consistently deferring answers to another adult (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which population is considered at-risk due to unique medical and social challenges?

<p>Geriatrics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a 76-year-old female who fell, what should the paramedic be alert to?

<p>The potential of elder abuse (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common psychological issue observed in victims of domestic violence?

<p>Depression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which initiative aims to enhance awareness of human trafficking within the U.S.?

<p>The Blue Campaign (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What might indicate that a pediatric patient is a victim of trafficking?

<p>Unexplained injuries and scars (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Victims of domestic abuse may present with which of the following characteristics?

<p>Multiple wounds in various stages of healing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The estimation of global victims of human trafficking by the International Labor Organization highlights which key concern?

<p>Estimates suggest millions are affected (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of injury pattern might be observed in victims of forced labor?

<p>Chronic conditions due to neglect (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is NOT essential for appropriate oxygenation?

<p>Serum calcium levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary composition of room air?

<p>Mostly nitrogen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is NOT associated with alveoli collapse?

<p>Poor perfusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal hemoglobin range for male patients?

<p>12 - 20 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A right shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve can be caused by which factor?

<p>Decrease in pH (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT classified as a type of hypoxia?

<p>Altitude associated (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

One potential danger of hyperoxia is:

<p>Free radical release (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The normal hemoglobin range for female patients typically falls within which values?

<p>12 - 15 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism causes a right shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

<p>Increased carbon dioxide levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions does NOT lead to alveolar collapse?

<p>Asthma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinction between ventilation and oxygenation?

<p>Ventilation involves the exchange of gases in the lungs, whereas oxygenation is about delivering oxygen to the blood. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a sudden increase in end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) generally indicate?

<p>Return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes capnography?

<p>It provides continuous monitoring of carbon dioxide levels as patients breathe. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary component that affects oxygen transport in the body?

<p>Cardiac output. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions can lead to hypocarbia in a patient?

<p>Excessive exercise. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a 'shark fin' waveform in capnography typically indicate?

<p>Airway obstruction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The ideal capnography reading during effective CPR should be approximately:

<p>10-20 mmHg. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the EtCO2 waveform is most closely associated with alveolar gas exchange?

<p>Phase III - plateau phase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which guideline from the American Heart Association focuses on oxygen therapy for post-cardiac arrest patients?

<p>Supplemental oxygen is indicated only in hypoxic patients. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the ejection of carbon dioxide from the body largely dependent on?

<p>Lung ventilation capacity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the core benefits of Crew Resource Management (CRM) in emergency medical services?

<p>Improving communication and reducing errors in patient care (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which principle of Crew Resource Management involves the continuous awareness of the environment and the team’s status?

<p>Situational Awareness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective team members in a Crew Resource Management environment?

<p>Ignoring input from teammates (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a misconception about the principles of Crew Resource Management?

<p>They focus solely on communication. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of advocacy and inquiry communication, which step is crucial for effective team interaction?

<p>Alerting all team members to a situation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an incorrect statement regarding the human factors addressed by Crew Resource Management?

<p>CRM states humans can always perform error-free. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key attribute of an effective team leader in a Crew Resource Management setting?

<p>Exhibits clear communication (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of Crew Resource Management is intended to enhance patient safety?

<p>Increased communication and error identification (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to principles of CRM, which of the following is considered essential for effective teamwork?

<p>Collective goal orientation and collaboration (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically included in the decision-making process of Crew Resource Management?

<p>Relying solely on the team leader's judgment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key sign a paramedic should identify in a patient with a suspected epidural brain bleed?

<p>Temporary lucid intervals followed by deterioration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In assessing a patient who fell from a height, which symptom would most likely suggest a severe concussion?

<p>Sustained period of unconsciousness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During your assessment of a patient at risk for subdural hematoma, which finding is most concerning?

<p>History of recent falls and extreme drowsiness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended approach when managing a patient showing symptoms consistent with a severe concussion?

<p>Perform a neurologic assessment and transport urgently (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of monitoring EtCO2 levels in patients with head injuries?

<p>It indicates the effectiveness of ventilation strategies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best exemplifies selective spinal immobilization practices for patients with suspected spinal injuries?

<p>Is based on a patient's mechanism of injury and clinical findings (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When transporting a patient with suspected TBI who shows signs of severe confusion, which strategy should be prioritized?

<p>Minimize conversation during transport (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The presence of a 'starfish sign' in head CT imaging commonly suggests what condition?

<p>Subarachnoid hemorrhage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What behavioral sign indicates a high-risk situation for a patient potentially suffering from a subdural hematoma?

<p>Prolonged sleep or drowsiness after injury (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a revised trauma score of 11 indicate about a patient's injuries?

<p>The patient has severe injuries that are likely unsurvivable. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of administering mannitol or hypertonic saline in acute brain injuries?

<p>To reduce ICP by osmotic reduction of cerebral edema. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a type of brain hemorrhage mentioned?

<p>Cortical bleed (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does slight hyperventilation have in the context of acute brain injury?

<p>It reduces cerebral blood flow, thus reducing ICP. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes the revised trauma score's role?

<p>It predicts the level of survivability in acute TBI patients. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of administering a traumatic intracranial pressure monitor in trauma care?

<p>To assess the pressure within the cranial cavity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is commonly the first indicator of serious brain injury in a trauma patient?

<p>Altered level of consciousness. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of trauma assessment is used for determining the necessary resources in a trauma case?

<p>Revised trauma score evaluation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main consequence of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) in a brain-injured patient?

<p>Reduction in consciousness levels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of establishing a culture of safety within EMS organizations?

<p>Prioritizing the safety of personnel and patients (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which element is NOT considered part of EMS safety?

<p>Training programs for effective communication (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a just culture emphasize in an EMS environment?

<p>Identifying system-wide issues rather than individuals (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the impact of working in EMS on workplace fatalities?

<p>Work in EMS significantly increases chances of workplace death (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of collecting data on EMS safety events?

<p>Designing recommendations for improving safety protocols (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which governmental organization is responsible for EMS safety research and data collection?

<p>NHTSA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should happen to reckless behavior in an EMS context according to just culture?

<p>It should be addressed based on the context and intentions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a suggested area for coordinated support and resources in EMS?

<p>Developing advanced technology for ambulances (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following practices has improved EMS safety based on data collection?

<p>Use of powered cots (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common misconception regarding culture of safety in EMS?

<p>It solely focuses on preventive measures without addressing errors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of conducting EMS research?

<p>Develop policies that facilitate safer patient outcomes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a method used in the scientific research process?

<p>Ignoring data limitations (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is evidenced-based medicine focused on?

<p>Clinical evidence to guide patient care (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which entity does NOT participate in EMS research initiatives?

<p>FDA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the National EMS Information System (NEMSIS) used for?

<p>Gathering information for research purposes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a misconception regarding correlation in research?

<p>Correlation can imply causation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which research method focuses primarily on numerical data?

<p>Quantitative research (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which step is NOT part of the scientific method?

<p>Gathering anecdotal evidence (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key responsibility of practitioners concerning evidenced-based medicine?

<p>Utilize current clinical evidence for decision-making (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of literature review is crucial for forming a hypothesis?

<p>Identifying gaps in existing research (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary benefit of applying evidence-based guidelines in EMS?

<p>They ensure the best possible patient outcomes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is primarily used to analyze the effectiveness of EMS policies and procedures?

<p>Data analysis gathered from NEMSIS. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of quantitative research in EMS?

<p>Rates of peri-intubation hypoxia in prehospital intubations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'correlation' indicate in a research context?

<p>It signifies two variables occurring simultaneously. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How have changes in EMS research affected community practices?

<p>By promoting advanced techniques like ketamine administration for excited delirium. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant drawback of requiring that all EMS recommendations must be adopted by each region?

<p>It may be impractical due to different regional needs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the focus of community education initiatives like bystander CPR?

<p>To improve immediate patient survival rates. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about drug trials and medical research in EMS is true?

<p>They contribute to improving patient outcomes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary concern when introducing changes based on research findings in EMS?

<p>Resistance to change from staff. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best defines the role of the Surgeon General's preference in EMS policy changes?

<p>It is a minor consideration compared to evidence-based guidelines. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) from hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS)?

<p>Presence of urine ketones (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a patient with hyperglycemia, which lab value would be most relevant to identify severity?

<p>Anion gap (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of continuous glucose monitors in diabetes management?

<p>To provide real-time glucose level readings (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is most commonly associated with hypoglycemia?

<p>Confusion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of severe hyperglycemia, what is typically the first priority for treatment?

<p>Start fluid resuscitation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is commonly prescribed for managing Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

<p>Insulin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common emergency treatment for Addisonian crisis?

<p>Hydrocortisone injection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an emergency, what should a paramedic prioritize for a patient in myxedema coma?

<p>Warming the patient (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which demographic is most often at risk for developing metabolic syndrome?

<p>Middle-aged adults with obesity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primary factor determines the appropriate administration of an insulin drip?

<p>Blood glucose levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first action to take when responding to a patient with an insulin pump?

<p>Calibrate the insulin pump with the glucometer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected ETCO2 level measured by nasal cannula in a patient with DKA and a bicarbonate level of 6?

<p>49 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition does metabolic syndrome NOT increase the risk for?

<p>Diabetes Insipidus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes diabetes insipidus?

<p>Total lack of antidiuretic hormone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment should NOT be expected in a patient with SIADH?

<p>Exogenous antidiuretic hormone administration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first-line treatment for an Addisonian crisis?

<p>Administer corticosteroids (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cushing's disease typically presents with which of the following symptoms?

<p>Hypoglycemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is NOT expected in a patient experiencing a thyroid storm?

<p>Bradycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient who has taken levothyroxine, which medication would a paramedic likely prepare to administer?

<p>Beta blockers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What electrolyte disturbance would a paramedic expect following an ERCP if the patient presents with upper abdominal pain?

<p>Hypocalcemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the acronym SALT in triage stand for?

<p>Sort, Assess, Lifesaving interventions, Transport (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the assessment phase of the SALT triage, which intervention is recommended?

<p>Bleeding control, ventilations, needle thoracostomy, and antidote administration should be performed if indicated (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which category of patients should be prioritized first during the treatment phase of triage?

<p>Red (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method should be used to assess perfusion during MCI triage?

<p>Capillary refill and presence of radial pulse (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is found apneic, what should be the next step according to the START triage algorithm?

<p>The airway should be positioned (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one key tip for successful MCI triage?

<p>Create redundant systems (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What approach is used for needle thoracostomy in the SALT triage process?

<p>Lateral approach: second intercostal space, anterior axillary line (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is regarded as the single most important factor in successfully navigating a mass casualty incident?

<p>Communication (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which categories are patients sorted into during the SALT triage process?

<p>Black, Red, Yellow, Green (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does after-action debriefing play in MCI triage preparedness?

<p>Helps to identify weaknesses and improve future response (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of permissive hypotension in trauma management?

<p>Achieve adequate perfusion without disrupting clot formation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment is NOT typically used to evaluate organ perfusion?

<p>Systolic blood pressure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the pH of normal saline solution?

<p>6.5 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which risk is NOT associated with excessive crystalloid administration?

<p>Increased blood viscosity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct formula for calculating Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?

<p>[(2 x diastolic blood pressure) + systolic blood pressure]/3 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During fluid administration, what is the perfusion goal in terms of MAP for trauma patients?

<p>MAP of &gt;70 mmHg (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mean arterial pressure is significant because it is a weighted average of blood pressure emphasizing which value more?

<p>Diastolic blood pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would be the most appropriate fluid to administer to a patient suffering from acute hemorrhagic shock?

<p>Whole blood (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The practice of permitting specific patients to maintain some degree of hypotension during treatment to prevent clot disruption is known as?

<p>Permissive hypotension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first line treatment for severe hemorrhage?

<p>Tourniquet application (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where should tourniquets be placed in relation to the injury?

<p>As proximal as the limb allows (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a contraindication for tourniquet use?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the blue stripe on hemostatic gauze indicate?

<p>Visualization when saturated with blood (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

TXA must be administered within how many hours of injury to be effective?

<p>Three hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes TXA's function?

<p>Inhibits clot breakdown to support newly formed clots (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an emergent surgical intervention discussed as a temporizing measure for hemorrhage control?

<p>REBOA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is characterized by what condition?

<p>Simultaneous bleeding and consumption of clotting factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of hemorrhage is NOT classified among the types mentioned?

<p>Acidotic (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done after applying hemostatic gauze for bleeding control?

<p>Hold direct pressure for 3 minutes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors contributes to the adaptation of microbes to resist medications?

<p>High frequency of antibiotic use (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected effectiveness rate of the influenza vaccine?

<p>About 60% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best differentiates septic shock from sepsis?

<p>Septic shock presents with persistent hypotension despite appropriate fluid resuscitation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is appropriate for managing contact precautions for C-diff?

<p>Standard precautions, a gown, and gloves (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance might a disease re-emerge after being eradicated through vaccination?

<p>When vaccination rates fall below sufficient levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of EMS operations, which strategy can reduce the likelihood of healthcare-associated infections?

<p>Using appropriate skin cleansing preparation before venipuncture (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate action for an EMS provider when managing influenza patients?

<p>Utilize droplet precautions and educate on vaccination (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended fluid bolus dose for a sepsis patient with a lactate level greater than 4 mmol/L?

<p>30 mL/kg (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mode of transmission relates specifically to influenza?

<p>Droplet (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is vigilance important in the role of EMS providers regarding infectious diseases?

<p>Providers can influence patient health outcomes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the comparison of absorption rates between intramuscular and subcutaneous medication administration?

<p>Intramuscular administration is absorbed more quickly. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication cannot be delivered via the intranasal route?

<p>Fluid bolus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following options does NOT represent a 'right' of medication delivery?

<p>Right of refusal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Intranasal medication administration is favored for what key reason?

<p>Increased bioavailability compared to IV or IM. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a patient shows signs of an allergic reaction, what is the priority intervention?

<p>To stop the medication delivery. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect is most affected by the difficulty of administration for medications?

<p>Patient comfort. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential risk when administering look-alike medications?

<p>Higher likelihood of adverse effects. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is commonly associated with altered mental status?

<p>Poor perfusion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered a definitive treatment for altered mental status?

<p>Identification and treatment of underlying cause (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a type of seizure?

<p>Peripheral (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which complication is not typically associated with seizures?

<p>Hypertrophy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between oxygen reserves and brain perfusion?

<p>Limited/intermittent (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended sequence of interventions for seizure treatment?

<p>Stabilization, benzodiazepine administration, antiepileptic administration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a known cause of seizures?

<p>Chronic fatigue syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should agitation be managed in a patient?

<p>Treat it as a symptom of hypoxia until proven otherwise (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which complication is most likely to occur if seizures are poorly managed?

<p>Hypoxic brain injury (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition could lead to status epilepticus?

<p>Medication non-compliance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common fetal presentation during delivery?

<p>Vertex (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the immediate action to take when a prolapsed cord is observed during delivery?

<p>Insert a sterile gloved hand and hold the presenting part up off the cord (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a delivery where the fetus is in a breech position, what should be done if the feet present first?

<p>Support the feet and allow the patient to deliver the remainder of the fetus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Typically, what is the time delay between the delivery of twins?

<p>3 minutes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When dealing with a prolapsed cord, which action is NOT indicated?

<p>Pull the cord out as much slack will allow to assist delivery of fetus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sign might be observed during a case of shoulder dystocia?

<p>Turtle sign (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What maneuver is used to help deliver the fetus in cases of shoulder dystocia?

<p>McRobert’s maneuver (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which situation is neonatal resuscitation necessary during delivery?

<p>If there is an abnormal fetal heart rate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common management principle for neonatal resuscitation?

<p>Immediate thermal stabilization (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct approach for delivering O2 to a mother in distress during delivery?

<p>Place the mother in trendelenburg position and deliver O2 via 15L NRB (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which option describes the typical routine care for a newborn who does not require resuscitation?

<p>Monitoring and maintaining warmth (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a paramedic do if a mother feels her pelvis is full after delivering a neonate?

<p>Assess for postpartum hemorrhage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does HELLP stand for in the context of pregnancy complications?

<p>Hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the percentage of deliveries that typically require resuscitation?

<p>5-10 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an indication of nuchal cord around the fetus's neck?

<p>Common and should be treated by correcting its position (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'postpartum hemorrhage' refer to?

<p>Blood loss exceeding 500mL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should delayed cord clamping ideally be performed?

<p>30 seconds after delivery of the neonate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After delivery, where should the baby remain until the cord has been clamped?

<p>Below the level of the placenta (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key differentiator between preeclampsia and eclampsia?

<p>Seizure activity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the pharmacological intervention for managing postpartum hemorrhage?

<p>Oxytocin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of pain is characterized by pain resulting from damage to the nervous system?

<p>Neuropathic (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically an indicator of pain?

<p>Nausea and vomiting (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the OPQRST pain assessment, what does the 'R' stand for?

<p>Region or radiation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is described as an exaggerated response to a mildly painful stimulus?

<p>Hyperalgesia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term is used to describe the phenomenon where repeated stimulation of a localized area leads to increased sensitivity in neurons?

<p>Wind-up phenomenon (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among the following, which is NOT considered a pharmacological option for pain management?

<p>Physical therapy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should pain levels be documented before and after an intervention?

<p>Pre-and post-intervention levels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect of pain management emphasizes the involvement of medical directors and quality assurance?

<p>QA/QI value (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pain assessment scale is most appropriate when working with pediatric patients?

<p>FACES pain scale (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which non-pharmacological intervention may help manage pain in acute situations?

<p>Cold or heat application (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT included in the pediatric assessment triangle?

<p>Vaccination status (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the appropriate IV/IO epinephrine dose for a pediatric patient weighing 18 kg in cardiac arrest?

<p>0.18mg (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using a bag-valve-mask (BVM) on a pediatric patient, which statement is true?

<p>Use the most appropriately sized mask for the patient (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following pediatric resuscitation resources involves a bag system?

<p>Handtevy app/bag system (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?

<p>IM epinephrine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common offender in pediatric airway obstruction?

<p>Tums tablets (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

RSV outbreaks typically occur during which time of year?

<p>In late fall through winter (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When ventilating a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation, the paramedic should primarily focus on:

<p>Extending the expiratory time (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pertussis in infants has what hospitalization rate?

<p>50% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the compression rate for infant resuscitation?

<p>100-120 compressions per minute (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which option correctly identifies a unique cause of pediatric cardiac arrest?

<p>Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In single rescuer pediatric CPR, what is the compression to breath ratio?

<p>30:2 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a two-month-old patient, how should compressions be performed?

<p>Using two fingers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vital signs of a 14-year-old patient differ from those expected in an adult?

<p>Higher pulse and lower blood pressure than an adult patient (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the components of the pediatric assessment triangle?

<p>Neurological response (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the Braslow tape in pediatric care?

<p>To determine correct medication dosages (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a pediatric cardiac arrest, which element is crucial in the AHA Pediatric Cardiac Arrest Algorithm?

<p>Airway management (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which approach is recommended for dual rescuer CPR on a child?

<p>One rescuer performs compressions while the other manages ventilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What technique should be employed for administering blow-by oxygen to an infant?

<p>Gentle flow near the infant’s mouth and nose (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a paramedic recognize when assessing a 3-month-old patient with a pulse of 155?

<p>The pulse is within normal limits (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should NOT be done when transporting pediatric patients in an ambulance?

<p>Transport them in the lap of any adult (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the limitations of current recommendations for pediatric ambulance transport?

<p>Lack of evidence from simulated ambulance crashes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding the LATCH system is correct?

<p>It consists of anchors built into vehicles for car seat attachment (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When transporting more than one pediatric patient, the best practice is to:

<p>Use a different ambulance for each patient (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical factor for transport personnel when dealing with pediatric restraint systems?

<p>They should be well trained in all restraint systems used by their agency (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended action when a well child needs to accompany a pediatric patient in transport?

<p>Have them transported separately in another vehicle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true about neonatal restraint systems during transport?

<p>Only designated neonatal transport ambulances must carry them (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding pediatric restraints in EMS transport is accurate?

<p>Child restraint laws do not apply due to the emergency status (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organization recommends evidence-based practices for the safe transport of pediatric patients for EMS providers?

<p>National Association of State EMS Officials (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common indicator that return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) has occurred?

<p>Sudden increase in ETCO2 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Post-ROSC oxygenation goals recommend maintaining levels between which percentages?

<p>92 - 98% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest?

<p>To minimize neurologic injury (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment tool is NOT used for neuroprognostication post-cardiac arrest?

<p>Liver function tests (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the target mean arterial pressure (MAP) post-ROSC for optimal hemodynamic management?

<p>MAP &gt;60 mmHg (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a patient reaches the target temperature for therapeutic hypothermia, how long should they remain cooled?

<p>24 - 48 hours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a sign of hemodynamic instability that needs to be actively managed post-ROSC?

<p>Persistent hypotension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When considering potential causes for a patient’s cardiac arrest, what is essential to guide clinical decision-making?

<p>Evaluate the full clinical context (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings might lead the paramedic to consider that a patient has a significant cardiac compromise?

<p>PEA on the monitor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the AHA algorithm for post-ROSC care, which management strategies are included in the initial stabilization phase?

<p>Airway, respiratory, and hemodynamic management (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not considered acceptable for hand washing?

<p>Using gloves as a substitute for hand washing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum alcohol concentration required for effective use of alcohol-based hand sanitizers?

<p>60% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding eye protection in healthcare settings is incorrect?

<p>Eye protection is not needed for patients with no infectious disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a CDC recommendation for hand washing?

<p>Clean underneath fingernails (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an unacceptable form of eye protection?

<p>Contact lenses (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vaccine is not recommended for healthcare workers in the US?

<p>Yellow fever vaccine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is it acceptable to use alcohol-based hand sanitizers?

<p>When soap and water are unavailable (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Eye protection is specifically recommended in which circumstance?

<p>When there is a risk for infectious disease transmission (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a proper procedure for handwashing?

<p>Turning off the faucet with bare hands (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended action before eating in a healthcare setting?

<p>Wash hands thoroughly with soap and water (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key reason synthetic THC is considered more dangerous than natural THC?

<p>Synthetic THC often contains unknown ingredients. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the primary assessment of a patient with suspected alcohol toxicity, which assessment would be the most appropriate?

<p>Measure bilateral blood pressures. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In managing a patient exhibiting signs of excited delirium, what technique is most beneficial?

<p>Establishing rapport with the patient. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a component of a mental status examination?

<p>Respiration rate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an effective de-escalation technique when dealing with a distressed patient?

<p>Validate their concerns. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one potential behavioral change associated with excited delirium?

<p>Aggressive and hostile behaviors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does opioid use typically influence a patient's mental state?

<p>Causes potential drowsiness and confusion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial consideration when applying physical restraints to a patient?

<p>Continue assessment and monitoring during restraint. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of effective patient restraint methods?

<p>To ensure the patient is not a danger to themselves or others. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important step when assessing a patient for suicide risk?

<p>Identifying protective factors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mnemonic is used for conducting a mental status exam?

<p>COASTMAP (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient scenario is appropriate for the use of restraints?

<p>A drunk patient who cannot follow commands. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most accurate statement regarding instructing a patient to 'calm down'?

<p>It works 0% of the time. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is NOT commonly associated with excited delirium?

<p>Global weakness. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do the suicide rates among EMS providers compare to the general public?

<p>Significantly higher. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT considered a risk factor for suicide?

<p>Accepting a new job. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, what is the lowest level of needs?

<p>Physiologic needs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which psychologist is associated with a well-known theory of behavior that was discussed?

<p>Ivan Pavlov. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which option is NOT considered a non-pharmacologic de-escalation technique?

<p>Placing the patient under arrest. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is treated by addressing a patient's acute pain?

<p>A physiologic need. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following patients is not considered to have special needs?

<p>Pediatric patient with fractured humerus from jumping from a swing set (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When transporting a patient with special needs, which item is not important to bring?

<p>The patient’s own shoes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best course of action regarding the caregiver of a special needs patient during transport?

<p>Transport the caregiver if protocols allow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In caring for a patient with special needs, how should a paramedic approach learning about the patient’s condition?

<p>Be open to learning from the patient’s caregiver (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the assessment of a special needs patient be adapted?

<p>It should accommodate the patient’s individual circumstances and needs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a paramedic do when caring for a patient with a tracheostomy?

<p>Maintain a minimum of 2l/minute of supplementary oxygen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a type of equipment commonly encountered in special needs patients?

<p>Ventricular assist devices (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using a central venous catheter, what is a critical step for the paramedic?

<p>Aspirate for blood return before infusing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key consideration when caring for patients with special needs?

<p>Involving caregivers and familiar individuals in the process. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the urine collection bag be managed during transport for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?

<p>Ensure the bag remains below the bladder level (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of a special needs patient may need adjustment in clinical settings?

<p>The amount of time spent with the patient. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An external ventricular drain monitoring intracranial pressure should be leveled to which anatomical landmark?

<p>The tragus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about special needs patients is true?

<p>Special needs patients can vary significantly in their requirements and conditions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding the communication with special needs patients is correct?

<p>It should be tailored to the individual's cognitive or emotional capacity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes a common limitation in special needs patients?

<p>Cognitive impairment affecting decision making. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary role of caregivers for special needs patients in the context of EMS?

<p>To provide critical information about the patient’s history and needs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In general, what should EMS professionals consider when assessing a special needs patient?

<p>Adjust techniques based on the patient’s individual needs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately what percentage of the general population has been diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder?

<p>5% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to understand the physical limitations of patients with special needs?

<p>It helps in providing appropriate accommodations for care. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for brain ischemia caused by a thrombus or emboli that inhibits adequate perfusion to a portion of the brain?

<p>Occlusive Stroke (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient population is at an increased risk of hemorrhagic stroke?

<p>Patients on anticoagulant therapies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An episode that includes deficits resolving in less than 24 hours is referred to as what?

<p>Transient Ischemic Attack (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When encountering a patient with stroke-like symptoms, what is the first imperative action for a paramedic?

<p>Check glucose level (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a stroke?

<p>Decreased cardiac output (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it critical to establish the last known well time for a patient exhibiting stroke symptoms?

<p>For potential TPA administration purposes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary benefit of performing the Cincinnati Stroke Scale in the prehospital setting?

<p>Speed (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a patient has received TPA, what blood pressure level should be maintained?

<blockquote> <p>185/110 (C)</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary concerns during the prehospital assessment of a patient suspected of having a stroke?

<p>Timely transportation to a stroke center (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment tool is commonly used to evaluate stroke symptoms in the prehospital environment?

<p>Cincinnati Stroke Scale (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect do stimulants typically have on the body?

<p>They cause tachycardia and hypertension. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the care of a patient with suspected synthetic overdose prioritize?

<p>Symptom control. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a case of THC ingestion, what is the understanding of a dose of 250mg THC?

<p>It is too high and should be treated as an overdose. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are THC electronic cigarettes particularly hazardous to users?

<p>They can cause overdose in small volumes due to concentrated oils. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following substances is not classified as an opioid?

<p>PCP. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first line treatment for suspected opioid overdose?

<p>Narcan. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for toddler overdoses?

<p>Curiosity leading to ingesting visually appealing substances. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Anticholinergic overdose typically presents with which of the following symptoms?

<p>Red as a beet, dry as a bone, mad as a hatter. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a pediatric overdose from a lawn chemical, what is the likely initial response?

<p>Seek advanced medical care. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is NOT typically associated with opioid overdose?

<p>Increased heart rate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which trauma center designation is considered the highest level?

<p>Level I (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus during Step 1 of the trauma triage process?

<p>Evaluating vital signs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which combination of factors is included in the Revised Trauma Score?

<p>GCS, Systolic BP, and Respiratory Rate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Revised Trauma Score is best described as which of the following?

<p>A continuum of likelihood of survivability (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition does NOT require trauma services according to the guidelines?

<p>Severe lacerations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism of injury in vehicle accidents indicates a need for trauma services?

<blockquote> <p>18 inches of intrusion in the vehicle (A)</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

Which circumstance is NOT considered special when evaluating the need for trauma services?

<p>Trauma patient with mild head injury (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following does NOT form part of the trauma triad of death?

<p>Hypotension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In actively bleeding trauma patients, which factor should be prioritized in treatment considerations?

<p>Fluid resuscitation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be assessed to determine if a patient requires admission to a trauma center in Step 2?

<p>The mechanism of injury (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does cardiac output represent in terms of heart function?

<p>Heart rate x stroke volume (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Positive pressure ventilation primarily impacts blood pressure by imposing on which part of the circulatory system?

<p>Pulmonary vasculature (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario is respiratory distress considered less severe than respiratory failure?

<p>As compared to respiratory failure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of respiratory distress?

<p>Yawning or sighing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Respiratory failure in a patient will typically present with what kind of pH level?

<p>Acidosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism by which a patient's native respiratory effort provides ventilation?

<p>Negative pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does decreased afterload have in the context of pulmonary hypertension?

<p>Improves cardiac output (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of intrathoracic pressure, what does hypertension typically result in?

<p>Decreased lung perfusion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the formula for calculating minute ventilation?

<p>Respiratory rate x tidal volume (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can increased preload in pulmonary hypertension affect the respiratory system?

<p>Worsens pulmonary vascular resistance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does positive pressure ventilation affect venous return?

<p>Decreases preload (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately defines alveolar ventilation?

<p>Air entering the alveoli for gas exchange (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common complication associated with delivering breaths using a bag-valve-mask (BVM)?

<p>Exceeding the patient's lung capacity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately what should a paramedic expect as a minute ventilation for a 5'5" female patient with normal pH?

<p>5.7 liters per minute (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects adequate ventilation?

<p>Patient's age (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding respiratory distress versus respiratory failure?

<p>Respiratory failure always includes poor oxygenation and ventilation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal range for adult cardiac output?

<p>4-8 liters per minute (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect does minute ventilation NOT account for?

<p>Oxygen saturation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements correctly describes Bi-level Positive Airway Pressure (BiPAP)?

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What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing acute COPD exacerbation with a GCS of 15 and SpO2 of 84%?

<p>Bipap (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary concern when utilizing an automated transport ventilator?

<p>Barotrauma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In order to properly size a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA), which measurement should a paramedic take?

<p>Nare to tragus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition contraindicates the use of an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)?

<p>Alert patient (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the positioning guideline for a patient during intubation regarding the ear-to-sternal notch line?

<p>At a slight incline, head elevated by 30 degrees (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main benefit of ramping a patient before intubation?

<p>Improves visualization of vocal cords (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of airways such as the King or iGel requires more extensive training compared to endotracheal intubation?

<p>Requires more training than ETT insertion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of oxygen delivery is considered appropriate for passive or apneic peri-intubation?

<p>EtCO2 nasal cannula (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which age group do pediatric patients typically possess unique airway characteristics?

<p>Anterior airways (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What precaution should be taken regarding difficult airway indicators prior to intubation?

<p>For education of the intubating paramedic (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of automated transport ventilators in patient management?

<p>To deliver controlled mechanical ventilation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which airway adjunct is NOT typically indicated for neonates?

<p>Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a disadvantage of using Bi-level Positive Airway Pressure (BiPAP)?

<p>It requires intensive patient monitoring (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which technique is essential for effective bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation?

<p>Maintaining a proper mask seal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement concerning neonatal airway interventions is accurate?

<p>Suctioning neonates should be performed carefully to avoid trauma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which advanced airway adjunct is appropriate for a backup airway management?

<p>Combitube (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key step in mitigating the risks of difficult airways?

<p>Assessing predictors of difficult intubation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is effective for improving airway control in patients?

<p>Using the ramping position correctly (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of utilizing backup airways such as King or i-gel?

<p>To provide an easy-to-insert alternative for patients (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the critical steps in endotracheal intubation procedures?

<p>Correct positioning of the patient’s head (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does VAD stand for?

<p>Ventricular assist device (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes the primary function of a VAD?

<p>It augments the movement of blood from the ventricle to the artery. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT an expected abnormality in a VAD patient?

<p>Presence of AICD (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should always be done with the batteries and accessories of VADs during patient transport?

<p>They should always be transported with the patient. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Indications for VAD placement mainly include:

<p>Congestive heart failure refractory to medical therapy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true regarding the VAD controller's RPM setting?

<p>It will not fluctuate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following represents a common complication in VAD patients?

<p>Cardiac arrest. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of patient care, which individuals are NOT considered experts on a patient's VAD?

<p>The ED physician (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chest compressions in a CAD patient are considered:

<p>An absolute contraindication. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The development of VADs was primarily for which purpose?

<p>As a bridge to a heart transplant. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the firing rate of Purkinje fibers when acting as a backup pacemaker?

<p>20-40 beats per minute (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by ST-segment elevation greater than 1mm in two or more contiguous leads?

<p>ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be prioritized when placing electrodes for a 12-lead EKG?

<p>Ensure electrode placement is accurate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following would disrupt ion movement and potentially lead to arrhythmias?

<p>Electrolyte imbalances (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are reciprocal changes in EKG interpretation?

<p>Inversely related findings in opposite leads (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is crucial for interpreting a 12-lead EKG accurately?

<p>Focusing on each lead's morphology and patterns (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor could lead to emergencies related to cardiac function?

<p>Disruption in the conduction cycle (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pacemaker of the heart responsible for initiating cardiac conduction?

<p>Sinoatrial node (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure acts as the backup pacemaker if the primary pacemaker fails?

<p>Atrioventricular node (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the cardiac conduction system in the heart?

<p>Generate electrical impulses to regulate heartbeat (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is automaticity in cardiac muscle cells?

<p>The ability to generate their own electrical impulses (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what part of the heart does the sinoatrial node reside?

<p>Right atrium (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes the path of conduction from the AV junction after failure of the SA node?

<p>Through the bundle of His and into ventricles (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical firing rate of the sinoatrial node under normal conditions?

<p>70-100 beats per minute (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the cardiac conduction system splits into left and right bundle branches?

<p>Bundle of His (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of early defibrillation in cases of shockable rhythms?

<p>To restore effective circulation quickly (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the importance of high-quality bystander CPR?

<p>It provides a chance for ROSC before hospital arrival (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What metric is used to determine effective chest compression depth during CPR?

<p>One-third of the chest's AP diameter (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How much does each minute without compressions affect survival chances?

<p>Decreases survival by 10% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about chest compression rates is correct?

<p>Compressions should be between 100-120 per minute (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern regarding interruptions during chest compressions?

<p>Maintaining effective perfusion pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the typical roles in a two-rescuer CPR scenario?

<p>One rescuer performs compressions and the other provides breaths or manages the airway (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What was a significant advancement in CPR practices in the mid-20th century?

<p>Development of portable defibrillators (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors significantly improves survival rates of patients post-cardiac arrest?

<p>Early defibrillation for shockable rhythms (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What historical significance does mouth-to-mouth resuscitation have in CPR evolution?

<p>It was introduced in the 1740s as an important resuscitation technique (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Clinical Skills for Paramedics

Crucial core skills for paramedics, including IV therapy, medication administration, intubation, wound care, and cardiac monitoring.

Primary Assessment

Initial rapid assessment focusing on ABCDE (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure).

Secondary Assessment

More detailed exam to gather information, including taking a history (SAMPLE) and physical examination.

SAMPLE History

System for evaluating patient history (Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last oral intake, Events leading up to event).

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Vital Signs

Essential measurements like blood pressure, pulse, respiratory rate, and temperature to evaluate the patient's condition.

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Drug Classifications

Categorization of medicines, including opioids, vasopressors, diuretics, etc.

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Dosage Calculations

Calculating the correct amount of medication based on patient weight and protocols.

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Airway Management

Techniques for maintaining and securing a patient's airway, including head-tilt/chin-lift and jaw-thrust.

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Advanced Airway Devices

Devices like endotracheal tubes (ETT) and supraglottic airways (SGAs) to aid breathing.

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Airway Compromise

Signs like stridor or wheezing indicating airway obstruction.

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Respiratory Anatomy

Understanding the structure and parts of the respiratory system, including upper and lower airways.

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Mechanics of Breathing

Concepts of inhalation and exhalation involving gas exchange.

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Ventilation

Exchange of gases within the lungs.

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Positive Pressure Ventilation

Using mechanical breaths to force air into the lungs.

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Negative Pressure Ventilation

Use of a vacuum to draw air into lungs.

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Capnography

Monitoring ventilation via carbon dioxide levels in exhaled air.

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Pulse Oximetry

Measuring blood oxygen saturation using a probe.

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Shock

Life-threatening condition due to inadequate blood flow.

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Stroke

Brain injury from disrupted blood flow.

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Myocardial Infarction

Heart attack; disruption of blood flow to the heart.

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Respiratory Distress

Difficulty breathing.

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Medical Terminology

Understanding of medical word parts, terms, and abbreviations.

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Automaticity

The ability of cardiac muscle cells to generate their own electrical impulses, allowing the heart to beat even without external stimulation.

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Sinoatrial (SA) Node

The primary pacemaker of the heart, located at the top of the right atrium, responsible for initiating electrical impulses at a rate of 70-100 beats per minute.

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Atrioventricular (AV) Junction

The secondary pacemaker of the heart, located between the atria and ventricles, taking over if the SA node fails, with a slower rate of 40-60 beats per minute.

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Bundle of His

A specialized group of fibers that conduct electrical impulses from the AV junction to the ventricles, ensuring coordinated contraction.

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Left and Right Bundle Branches

Branches of the Bundle of His that carry electrical impulses to their respective ventricles, enabling synchronized contraction.

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Purkinje Fibers

Specialized muscle fibers that carry electrical impulses from the bundle branches to the myocardium of the ventricles, ensuring efficient electrical activity.

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What is the role of the cardiac conduction system?

The cardiac conduction system coordinates the electrical activity of the heart, ensuring a synchronized and efficient contraction of the atria and ventricles, resulting in effective blood pumping.

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Why is understanding cardiac electrophysiology essential for paramedics?

Understanding how the heart's electrical system works helps paramedics interpret EKGs, recognize cardiac emergencies, and make informed treatment decisions.

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Idioventricular Rhythm

A heart rhythm that is generated by the Purkinje fibers when the SA node and AV node fail. This rhythm is slower, typically 20-40 beats per minute.

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Electrolyte Imbalances and Cardiac Conduction

Imbalances in electrolytes, like potassium or sodium, can disrupt the movement of ions within the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms (arrhythmias).

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12-Lead EKG Placement

Proper placement of the 12 electrodes on the chest and limbs is essential for accurate EKG readings. Improper placement can lead to misinterpretations.

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Interpreting a 12-Lead EKG

Always analyze the EKG yourself, considering each lead's morphology and patterns. Don't rely solely on computer interpretations.

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ST-Segment Elevation

A key indicator of a STEMI (ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction), characterized by an elevation greater than 1 mm in two or more contiguous leads.

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Reciprocal Changes in EKG

Changes in the EKG that show opposite findings in leads examining different parts of the heart. This helps pinpoint the location of the problem.

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STEMI Imitators

Conditions that can mimic the EKG findings of a STEMI but are not actually heart attacks. Careful assessment is crucial for correct diagnosis.

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Chain of Survival

A sequence of actions that improves the chances of survival for a cardiac arrest patient. It emphasizes early recognition, immediate action, and timely care.

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High-Quality CPR

CPR performed with the correct depth and rate of compressions, minimizing interruptions, to maximize the chance of survival for the victim.

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Early Defibrillation

Prompt use of a defibrillator to deliver an electrical shock to the heart in cases of shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia, restoring a normal heartbeat.

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Bystander CPR

CPR performed by a layperson or someone not medically trained, before professional EMS arrives.

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ROSC (Return of Spontaneous Circulation)

When the heart starts beating again on its own after a cardiac arrest. It's a major milestone in resuscitation.

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Chest Compression Rate

The speed at which compressions are performed during CPR, typically between 100-120 compressions per minute.

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Chest Compression Depth

The depth of compressions during CPR, approximately one-third of the chest's diameter. This ensures proper blood flow.

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Compression Interruptions

Any pause in CPR compressions, which reduces blood flow to the brain and organs, decreasing survival chances.

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Single-Rescuer CPR

CPR performed by a single person typically with 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths.

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Two-Rescuer CPR

CPR performed by two people, allowing for specialized roles that maximize efficiency and effectiveness.

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