Neurology and Neurosurgery for PLAB-1 and AKT Doctors
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Questions and Answers

A 35-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of progressive numbness and weakness in her left arm and leg. She has a past medical history of thyroid cancer and has had recent radiation therapy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Metastatic spinal cord compression
  • Radiation-induced brachial plexus neuropathy (correct)
  • Thoracic disc herniation
  • Cervical spondylotic myelopathy
  • A 40-year-old man presents with a history of headaches, seizures, and right hemiparesis. Imaging reveals a left frontal lobe tumor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Oligodendroglioma (correct)
  • Metastatic melanoma
  • Glioblastoma multiforme
  • Meningioma
  • A 25-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. Imaging reveals a 5-mm aneurysm of the anterior communicating artery. What is the most appropriate management?

  • Observation with serial imaging
  • Stenting
  • Endovascular coiling (correct)
  • Surgical clipping
  • A 50-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of progressive gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, and lower back pain. Imaging reveals a compressive lesion at L1. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Cauda equina syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of severe headache, fever, and stiff neck. Imaging reveals meningitis. What is the most appropriate management?

    <p>IV antibiotics and steroids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 60-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of cognitive decline, memory loss, and gait disturbance. Imaging reveals a non-enhancing, low-density lesion in the frontal lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Normal pressure hydrocephalus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 25-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. Imaging reveals a 5-mm aneurysm of the anterior communicating artery. What is the most appropriate initial management?

    <p>Endovascular coiling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 45-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of progressive numbness and weakness in his left arm and leg. Imaging reveals a C5-C6 herniated disk. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Cervical spondylosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 20-year-old woman presents with a 1-day history of sudden onset of severe headache, confusion, and seizures. Imaging reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

    <p>Berry aneurysm rupture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 70-year-old man presents with a 2-month history of progressive weakness in his right arm and leg. Imaging reveals a compressive lesion at C3-C4. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Cervical spinal stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 40-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of progressive weakness in his right arm and leg. He has a past medical history of HIV infection. Imaging reveals a space-occupying lesion in the spinal cord at T10. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Intraspinal lymphoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 60-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of progressive cognitive decline, memory loss, and gait disturbance. Imaging reveals a non-enhancing, low-density lesion in the frontal lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Normal pressure hydrocephalus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 35-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. Imaging reveals a 7-mm aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery. What is the most appropriate initial management?

    <p>Endovascular coiling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 50-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of progressive numbness and weakness in her left arm. Imaging reveals a C6-C7 herniated disk. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Cervical radiculopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 30-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of severe headache, fever, and stiff neck. Imaging reveals meningitis. What is the most appropriate empirical antibiotic regimen?

    <p>Ceftriaxone and vancomycin</p> Signup and view all the answers

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