OB Exam 2
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Questions and Answers

During a routine prenatal visit at 28 weeks gestation, a patient reports feeling less fetal movement than usual over the past 24 hours. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

  • Instruct the patient to come to the clinic immediately for an urgent ultrasound.
  • Educate the patient on fetal kick counts and instruct her to perform them at home. (correct)
  • Schedule a non-stress test (NST) within the next week to assess fetal well-being.
  • Reassure the patient that fetal movement naturally decreases in the third trimester.

A pregnant woman with pre-existing hypertension is being monitored closely. Which laboratory finding would be most indicative of superimposed preeclampsia rather than just chronic hypertension?

  • Platelet count of 90,000/μL (correct)
  • Elevated systolic blood pressure above 140 mmHg
  • Proteinuria of 300 mg in a 24-hour urine collection
  • Serum creatinine level of 0.9 mg/dL

Using Nägele's rule, if the first day of a woman's last menstrual period (LMP) was July 10th, what is her estimated date of delivery (EDD)?

  • April 17th of the following year (correct)
  • April 3rd of the following year
  • May 17th of the following year
  • May 3rd of the following year

During the immediate postpartum period, a nurse assesses a client and finds a boggy uterus that is displaced to the right of the umbilicus. What is the priority nursing intervention?

<p>Assist the client to the bathroom to empty her bladder. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In fetal circulation, the ductus arteriosus plays a crucial role by shunting blood away from the lungs. Which of the following best describes the path of blood flow through the ductus arteriosus?

<p>From the pulmonary artery to the aorta, bypassing the fetal lungs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of folic acid supplementation during preconception and the first trimester?

<p>To prevent neural tube defects (NTDs). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman reports her last menstrual period (LMP) started on July 10, 2024. Using Nägele's rule, what is her estimated date of delivery (EDD)?

<p>April 17, 2025 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cardiovascular change is NOT a typical finding during a normal pregnancy?

<p>Decreased blood volume. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what gestational age is the fundus typically palpable at the level of the umbilicus?

<p>20 weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following integumentary changes is commonly associated with pregnancy?

<p>Striae gravidarum (stretch marks). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the left lateral decubitus position recommended for pregnant women, especially after 20 weeks of gestation?

<p>To prevent supine hypotensive syndrome caused by aortocaval compression. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the ductus venosus in fetal circulation?

<p>To shunt oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava, bypassing the liver. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of identifying 'quickening' during a prenatal physical exam?

<p>It represents the mother's first perception of fetal movement. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically assessed during the first prenatal visit?

<p>Group B Streptococcus (GBS) screening. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of measuring nuchal translucency between 11-14 weeks gestation?

<p>To assess the risk of chromosomal abnormalities such as Down Syndrome (trisomy 21). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation presents with new onset facial edema, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Preeclampsia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to a non-pregnant state, pregnancy induces a hypercoagulable state with an increased risk of thromboembolism. Which of the following best describes the physiological rationale for this change?

<p>To prevent excessive bleeding during and after delivery. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following fetal structures is responsible for shunting blood away from the fetal lungs?

<p>Patent ductus arteriosus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a routine prenatal ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation, the sonographer notes the presence of only one umbilical artery instead of the normal two. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Counsel the patient regarding the increased risk of fetal anomalies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman with a history of intravenous drug use is in her first trimester. Which of the following prenatal labs is MOST critical to order due to her history?

<p>HIV and Hepatitis C screening. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient at 34 weeks gestation is diagnosed with transient hypertension. Which of the following characteristics best describes this condition?

<p>Hypertension that resolves spontaneously postpartum without other features of preeclampsia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient with chronic hypertension is being managed to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. According to the provided information, which blood pressure readings would classify her hypertension as 'severe'?

<p>Systolic BP of 165 mmHg and diastolic BP of 105 mmHg. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Gestational hypertension is typically diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation. Which of the following is a KEY differentiating factor between gestational hypertension and preeclampsia?

<p>Absence of proteinuria. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for preeclampsia?

<p>History of hypotension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient at 32 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg and 400 mg of protein in a 24-hour urine collection. These findings are most consistent with which condition?

<p>Mild preeclampsia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with preeclampsia begins to experience visual disturbances such as blurred vision and spots (scotomata). What is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?

<p>Vasospasm and ischemia in the brain's occipital lobe. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best explains why multiple gestations increase the risk of pregnancy-induced hypertension and preeclampsia?

<p>Exaggerated inflammatory response due to the presence of multiple placentas. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 36-year-old primigravida patient is diagnosed with severe preeclampsia at 34 weeks gestation. Besides pharmacological interventions, which of the following is the MOST definitive management?

<p>Delivery of the fetus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic hypertension is being actively managed during pregnancy. Which of the following antihypertensive medications is generally CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy due to its potential teratogenic effects?

<p>ACE Inhibitors (e.g., Enalapril) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of preeclampsia, HELLP syndrome is a severe complication. What does HELLP stand for?

<p>Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention, assuming fetal lung maturity is not yet confirmed?

<p>Administering magnesium sulfate and corticosteroids, followed by expectant management if stable. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with HELLP syndrome reports sudden onset epigastric pain. What is the MOST likely cause of this symptom?

<p>Impending rupture of the liver. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A postpartum patient who had gestational diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up glucose tolerance test. When should this screening typically occur?

<p>2-4 months postpartum. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when managing a patient with gestational diabetes during pregnancy?

<p>Achieving optimal glycemic control to reduce the risk of fetal macrosomia and associated complications. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following blood pressure readings confirms a diagnosis of severe preeclampsia, requiring immediate intervention?

<p>160/110 mm Hg on two occasions at least four hours apart while the patient is on bed rest. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman with a history of gestational diabetes is concerned about her child's future risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). What is the approximate increased risk for the child to develop T2DM as a teenager or young adult?

<p>8 times more likely. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 26-year-old primigravida is diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 26 weeks gestation. Besides diet and exercise, what is another MOST likely treatment if glycemic control is not achieved?

<p>Insulin therapy. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following assessment findings would MOST strongly suggest magnesium toxicity?

<p>Absent deep tendon reflexes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient at 35 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Despite dietary changes, her fasting blood glucose levels remain elevated. Which medication is MOST likely to be prescribed initially?

<p>Insulin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A previously healthy 28-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit with a severe headache, blurred vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate intervention?

<p>Administer IV magnesium sulfate, control blood pressure, and expedite delivery. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An NST shows two fetal heart rate accelerations of 12 beats per minute above baseline, lasting 12 seconds each, within a 20-minute period. How should the nurse interpret this result?

<p>The result is non-reassuring and warrants immediate further evaluation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient at 35 weeks gestation is undergoing a contraction stress test (CST). Which finding would indicate a positive CST result?

<p>Late decelerations occurring with more than 50% of contractions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A biophysical profile (BPP) assesses five components. Which of the following components is NOT assessed in a BPP?

<p>Maternal blood pressure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient at 12 weeks' gestation is considering amniocentesis for genetic testing due to advanced maternal age. What information should the nurse include in counseling regarding the procedure?

<p>Amniocentesis carries a lower risk of fetal loss when performed after 15 weeks of gestation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a non-stress test (NST), which finding is MOST indicative of fetal well-being?

<p>Two fetal heart rate accelerations of 15 beats per minute above baseline lasting 15 seconds in 20 minutes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately reflects current recommendations regarding air travel during pregnancy?

<p>Air travel is generally considered safe up to 36 weeks gestation in uncomplicated pregnancies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant woman reports experiencing frequent heartburn. What is the MOST appropriate recommendation?

<p>Eat small, frequent meals and avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after eating. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman at 38 weeks gestation reports a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina. What is the priority nursing intervention?

<p>Assess fetal heart rate and characteristics of the amniotic fluid immediately. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient at 30 weeks gestation presents with new onset dependent edema, hypertension, and proteinuria. Which of the following is most crucial to assess immediately to differentiate between gestational hypertension and preeclampsia?

<p>Platelet count (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement BEST describes the physiological rationale behind the recommendation for supplemental iron during pregnancy, considering the hemodilutional effects and increased oxygen demands?

<p>Iron supplementation is crucial due to the expanded maternal blood volume, preventing iron-deficiency anemia which could compromise oxygen delivery to both mother and fetus, especially given the limited bone marrow response during pregnancy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A primiparous woman at 39 weeks gestation reports feeling like her 'baby has dropped' and that she can breathe easier, but is experiencing increased urinary frequency. Which physiological change is MOST likely occurring?

<p>Lightening (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST indicative characteristic of true labor contractions, as opposed to Braxton Hicks contractions?

<p>They lead to cervical dilation and effacement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient at 38 weeks gestation calls the triage line reporting a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina. According to the provided information, what is the MOST appropriate advice to give this patient?

<p>Come to the hospital immediately for evaluation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an initial labor evaluation, a nurse performs Leopold maneuvers. What is the PRIMARY purpose of these maneuvers?

<p>To determine fetal position, presentation, and lie. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term BEST describes the relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother?

<p>Fetal lie (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is reviewing a fetal heart rate tracing. Which of the following patterns is considered a NON-reassuring fetal heart tone pattern?

<p>Recurrent late decelerations (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery. During Leopold maneuvers, the nurse palpates a hard, round, movable part in the fundus, a long, smooth contour on the mother’s left side, small parts on the right side, and a soft, irregular shape just above the symphysis pubis. Which fetal presentation is MOST likely?

<p>Cephalic presentation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A multiparous woman in early labor reports the passage of 'bloody show'. Which of the following physiological processes BEST explains this finding?

<p>Normal expulsion of the mucus plug and cervical capillary rupture as the cervix begins to dilate and efface. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios would warrant immediate hospital evaluation for a patient in late pregnancy, based on the provided guidelines?

<p>A noticeable decrease in usual fetal movement over several hours. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a fetal heart rate assessment, a nurse notes moderate variability, accelerations to 15 bpm above baseline lasting 15 seconds, and no decelerations. When interpreting these findings collectively, which conclusion is MOST appropriate?

<p>The fetal heart rate pattern is reassuring, indicating adequate fetal oxygenation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary goal of labor induction?

<p>To stimulate uterine contractions and achieve a vaginal birth when indicated. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A prolonged second stage of labor carries several risks. Which of the following is a potential maternal risk?

<p>Maternal exhaustion and infection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of meconium-stained amniotic fluid during labor?

<p>It increases the risk of meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for labor induction?

<p>Placenta previa. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which transcervical balloon catheters promote cervical ripening?

<p>Mechanically dilating the cervix through pressure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial requirement for performing membrane stripping?

<p>Cervical dilation sufficient to permit the procedure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common complication associated with oxytocin infusion during labor induction?

<p>Uterine hyperstimulation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is cervical readiness an important consideration before initiating labor induction?

<p>To increase the likelihood of a successful vaginal birth. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind the recommendation to avoid labor induction in a patient with a history of previous cesarean section or uterine surgery?

<p>Potential for uterine rupture at the site of the prior scar. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient at 41 weeks gestation with oligohydramnios is scheduled for labor induction. Her Bishop score is 3. Which intervention would MOST likely be initiated, considering the unfavorable cervix?

<p>Cervical ripening with misoprostol or a transcervical balloon catheter. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes a hydatidiform mole?

<p>Gestational trophoblastic disease resulting from aberrant fertilization. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic finding on ultrasound is most suggestive of a complete hydatidiform mole?

<p>A 'snowstorm' or 'cluster of grapes' appearance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following evacuation of a hydatidiform mole, what is the MOST important aspect of follow-up care?

<p>Serial quantitative beta-hCG monitoring. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a partial hydatidiform mole. Which of the following is TRUE regarding future pregnancies?

<p>A normal pregnancy is possible after a waiting period of one year. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following BEST describes the genetic composition of a complete hydatidiform mole?

<p>Diploid karyotype (46, XX) with no fetal tissue, originating from a single sperm that duplicates its chromosomes after fertilizing an egg lacking DNA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum, and a uterine size larger than expected for her gestational age. Her beta-hCG level is significantly elevated. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Hydatidiform mole (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a D&C for a complete hydatidiform mole, a patient's beta-hCG levels plateau and then begin to rise. This is MOST indicative of what complication?

<p>Development of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended duration of contraception following the evacuation of a hydatidiform mole and why?

<p>1 year, to ensure beta-hCG levels remain undetectable and to avoid confusing a new pregnancy with GTN. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of a complete hydatidiform mole is being treated with single-agent chemotherapy for persistent GTN. She expresses concern about the impact on her future fertility. What is the MOST appropriate counseling?

<p>Chemotherapy may temporarily affect ovarian function, but fertility is usually preserved after treatment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In extremely rare cases, hyperthyroidism can be seen in patients with hydatidiform moles. What is the underlying mechanism for this phenomenon?

<p>The elevated levels of hCG in molar pregnancies have a structural similarity to TSH and stimulate thyroid hormone production. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Artificial rupture of membranes (AROM) is performed to potentially induce labor. Which of the following is a critical nursing assessment immediately following AROM?

<p>Fetal heart rate pattern (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A primigravida at term is undergoing labor induction. The cervix is assessed as firm, posterior, 1 cm dilated, and less than 50% effaced. According to the provided information, what is the MOST appropriate next step before attempting induction with oxytocin?

<p>Administer prostaglandins to promote cervical ripening. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation is being screened for Group B Streptococcus (GBS). According to the standard protocol mentioned, which anatomical sites should be swabbed for accurate GBS detection?

<p>Vagina and rectum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following maternal conditions is NOT explicitly listed as an indication for a Cesarean section in the provided text?

<p>Gestational diabetes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the immediate postpartum period, a nurse observes signs of placental separation. Which of the following is NOT recognized as a typical sign of placental separation?

<p>Sudden cessation of vaginal bleeding (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A postpartum patient is diagnosed with a retained placenta. If manual removal is unsuccessful, which of the following procedures is MOST likely to be considered next for management, according to the provided text?

<p>Dilation and Curettage (D&amp;C) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Placenta accreta, increta, and percreta are conditions characterized by abnormal placental attachment. What is the KEY differentiating factor between placenta increta and placenta percreta?

<p>Placenta increta penetrates the uterine muscle, while percreta extends beyond the uterine serosa to adjacent organs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) due to uterine atony. Which of the following interventions is considered the FIRST-LINE pharmacological management for uterine atony according to the provided text?

<p>Oxytocin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to increase the risk of uterine atony, a major cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

<p>Nulliparity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman with a history of a previous classical Cesarean incision is considering her delivery options for her current pregnancy. Based on the information provided, which delivery method is CONTRAINDICATED?

<p>Vaginal Birth After Cesarean (VBAC) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary anatomical location for the majority of ectopic pregnancies?

<p>Fallopian tube (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when evaluating a female patient of reproductive age presenting with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding?

<p>Ectopic pregnancy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Severe abdominal pain with peritonitis, accompanied by syncope and orthostatic hypotension, MOST likely indicates what complication of ectopic pregnancy?

<p>Ruptured ectopic pregnancy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Serial hCG measurements are crucial in the diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. What is the expected trend of hCG levels in a normal, viable early pregnancy, compared to an ectopic pregnancy?

<p>hCG levels double every 1-2 days in normal pregnancy, rise much slower in ectopic pregnancy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 36-year-old patient with a history of PID and prior ectopic pregnancy presents with amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding, and right-sided abdominal pain. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals no intrauterine pregnancy. Which serum progesterone level would be MOST indicative of a nonviable pregnancy?

<p>$&lt;5 ng/mL$ (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient being evaluated for a suspected ectopic pregnancy has a positive urine pregnancy test. Serum quantitative hCG is drawn, and a transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS) is performed, which does not visualize an intrauterine pregnancy. The physician considers medical management with methotrexate. Which of the following MUST be ruled out FIRST before considering methotrexate as a treatment option?

<p>Ruptured ectopic pregnancy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a female patient of reproductive age presenting with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, what condition should always be considered?

<p>Ectopic pregnancy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST common anatomical location for ectopic pregnancies?

<p>Fallopian tube ampulla (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with severe abdominal pain, syncope, and orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following is the MOST likely underlying cause?

<p>Ruptured ectopic pregnancy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which historical factor would MOST significantly increase a patient's risk for ectopic pregnancy?

<p>History of pelvic inflammatory disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Identify the symptom triad MOST commonly associated with an unruptured ectopic pregnancy.

<p>Amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of early pregnancy monitoring, which serum progesterone level would strongly suggest a nonviable pregnancy (either intrauterine or ectopic)?

<p>$&lt;5 ng/mL$ (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of combination oral contraceptive pills?

<p>Prevents ovulation and thickens cervical mucus to inhibit sperm migration, also creating an unfavorable endometrial environment for implantation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 38-year-old woman who smokes 1 pack of cigarettes daily is seeking contraception. Considering the contraindications for combination oral contraceptives, which of the following options is MOST appropriate for her?

<p>Progestin-only pills (mini-pill). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient using combination oral contraceptives reports experiencing new onset, severe, unilateral leg pain and tenderness. What is the MOST appropriate immediate action?

<p>Instruct the patient to discontinue the contraceptive immediately and switch to a nonhormonal method, seeking immediate medical evaluation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a primary benefit associated with the use of combination oral contraceptive pills, beyond pregnancy prevention?

<p>Lower incidence of ectopic pregnancies, endometrial and ovarian cancers. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman using progestin-only pills ('mini-pill') is instructed to take her pill at the same time daily. If she usually takes her pill at 9:00 AM and remembers at 2:00 PM the following day, what is the MOST appropriate advice regarding contraceptive effectiveness?

<p>She should take the missed pill now and use a barrier method of contraception for the next 48 hours. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical complication associated with kernicterus?

<p>Increased bone density (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn is diagnosed with jaundice. How frequently should the nurse assess the infant for jaundice in the first 48 hours?

<p>Every 8-12 hours (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Preterm labor is defined as delivery with associated cervical changes occurring before how many weeks of gestation?

<p>37 weeks (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended course of action if a woman experiences spontaneous rupture of membranes (SROM) and labor does not begin within 24 hours?

<p>Induction of labor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing rupture of membranes (ROM)?

<p>Pooling of fluid in the vagina or leakage of fluid from the cervix (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation is at risk for preterm labor. What medication is recommended to promote fetal lung development?

<p>Betamethasone or dexamethasone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient at 32 weeks’ gestation presents with preterm labor. Besides betamethasone, which of the following would be LEAST beneficial in managing preterm labor, if all other options were viable?

<p>Strict ambulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding chorioamnionitis is MOST accurate?

<p>It results from bacteria ascending into the uterus due to prolonged rupture of the amniotic sac. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST common causative agent of metritis within 10 days postpartum?

<p>Escherichia coli (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A preterm infant is born at 32 weeks gestation. Which of the following physiological factors primarily contributes to the development of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

<p>Inadequate surfactant production (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the management of metritis, which antibiotic regimen would be MOST appropriate?

<p>Ampicillin and gentamicin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides fever, which of the following is a significant sign and symptom indicating chorioamnionitis?

<p>Purulent-smelling fluid from the cervical os (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An infant exhibits respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). What is the primary rationale for administering continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)?

<p>To prevent alveolar collapse (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diagnostic tests is LEAST likely to be performed when evaluating a patient for metritis?

<p>Electrocardiogram (ECG) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn is diagnosed with bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) following treatment for RDS. Which of the following best describes the underlying cause?

<p>Prolonged mechanical ventilation and oxygen exposure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman is diagnosed with metritis following a cesarean section. Beyond antibiotic therapy, what other intervention is crucial in preventing complications of the condition?

<p>Early ambulation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of pregnancies in the United States are estimated to be unintended?

<p>45% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does surfactant reduce the risk of alveolar collapse?

<p>Decreasing alveolar surface tension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient using the contraceptive patch should be instructed to:

<p>Apply a new patch weekly for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who weighs over 200 lbs (90.7 kg) is interested in using the contraceptive patch. What is the MOST appropriate counseling point?

<p>The effectiveness of the patch may be reduced. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often is the vaginal ring typically replaced?

<p>Monthly (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient using a diaphragm should be instructed to:

<p>Use the diaphragm in combination with a spermicidal jelly or cream. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential side effect associated with diaphragm use?

<p>Increased risk of UTIs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient using a cervical cap should be aware of the increased risk of:

<p>Toxic shock syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long can a contraceptive sponge remain in place after intercourse?

<p>24 hours. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs)?

<p>High effectiveness and rapid return to fertility (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP), which patient population has the potential to be ideal candidates for IUDs?

<p>Adolescents (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client calls concerned about a barrier method that has been left for too long; A client who used the contraceptive sponge for 36 hours is MOST at risk for:

<p>Increased risk of TSS (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of an intrauterine device (IUD)?

<p>Current active pelvic infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient using depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-Provera) for contraception should be aware of which potential side effect that necessitates careful monitoring?

<p>Decreased bone density (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an advantage of etonogestrel implants (Nexplanon) compared to estrogen-containing contraceptives?

<p>Can be used safely in patients with thromboembolism history (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after unprotected intercourse 48 hours ago. Assuming no medical contraindications, which is the MOST appropriate action?

<p>Offer emergency contraception, as it is effective within 72 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman with a history of breast cancer is seeking contraception. Which of the following methods is generally contraindicated?

<p>Etonogestrel implant (Nexplanon) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of the copper IUD (ParaGard)?

<p>Interference with sperm motility and fertilization (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings necessitates immediate evaluation prior to prescribing combined hormonal contraception?

<p>Unexplained vaginal bleeding (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old patient reports experiencing irregular bleeding and spotting after IUD insertion. What is the MOST appropriate initial counseling?

<p>Reassure her that irregular bleeding is a common side effect, especially in the initial months (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who has been using Depo-Provera for two years expresses concern about bone density loss. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate management strategy?

<p>Obtain a DEXA scan to assess bone mineral density and discuss risk-benefit ratio (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of cerebral vascular disease is seeking contraception. Which of the following methods is the MOST appropriate?

<p>Copper IUD (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common cause of female factor infertility?

<p>Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which male factor is LEAST likely to be a cause of Infertility?

<p>Sperm agglutination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 37-year-old woman has been trying to conceive for 7 months without success. Initial fertility evaluation should include which of the following?

<p>Semen analysis for her partner (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is MOST commonly used for ovarian stimulation in artificial insemination procedures?

<p>Clomiphene citrate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of clomiphene citrate in promoting ovulation?

<p>Blocks estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, increasing GnRH release (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ART procedure accounts for the VAST majority of all ART procedures performed?

<p>In vitro fertilization (IVF) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A couple undergoing IVF expresses concern about the possibility of multiple gestations. What counseling point is MOST relevant regarding this risk?

<p>Multifetal pregnancy reduction is available but carries its own risks (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 32-year-old woman with a history of irregular menstrual cycles is undergoing fertility evaluation. Which initial diagnostic test would be MOST helpful in assessing ovulatory function?

<p>Basal body temperature (BBT) charting (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a semen analysis revealing severe oligozoospermia, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the evaluation of male infertility?

<p>Referral to a urologist or reproductive endocrinologist specializing in male infertility (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 39-year-old woman is undergoing IVF. After oocyte retrieval and fertilization, the embryologist observes fragmented embryos with poor morphology. Which of the following interventions is LEAST likely to improve the outcome of the next IVF cycle?

<p>Switching to a different IVF clinic (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action for Plan B One-Step and Next Choice emergency contraceptives?

<p>Preventing ovulation and fertilization. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman presents 7 days after unprotected intercourse requesting emergency contraception. Which of these options is MOST appropriate?

<p>Insertion of a copper IUD. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman with a BMI of 35 requests emergency contraception. Which method's effectiveness is LEAST affected by her BMI?

<p>Copper IUD. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key patient counseling point regarding the timing of complete sterilization following a vasectomy?

<p>Semen samples must be analyzed after 10 weeks to confirm complete occlusion of the vas deferens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST common surgical approach for female sterilization?

<p>Minilaparotomy. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sterilization method is MOST likely to be potentially reversible?

<p>Hulka clip. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which the Essure system, now discontinued, achieved sterilization?

<p>Inducing a fibrotic reaction that occluded the fallopian tubes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define Infertility.

<p>Inability to conceive after 12 months of unprotected intercourse (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important thing to consider when counseling couples about sterilization as a means of contraception?

<p>Sterilization should be seen as a permanent solution. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An intensely difficult question for experts: In the context of contraception and sterilization, consider a scenario where a novel, hypothetical 'Sono-Pulse' technology emerges that utilizes focused ultrasound to non-invasively occlude the fallopian tubes with pinpoint accuracy and theoretically allows for future restoration of tubal patency via a counter-ultrasound procedure. Assuming this technology is proven safe and effective, which of the following statements would BEST represent the ETHICAL considerations surrounding its use?

<p>The theoretical reversibility necessitates stricter informed consent processes, emphasizing the uncertainty of regaining fertility to prevent future regret. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Intrapartum

The period from the start of labor to delivery of the placenta.

Postpartum

The period beginning immediately after the delivery of the placenta and continuing for six weeks.

Gestational Hypertension

Elevated blood pressure during pregnancy.

Gestational Diabetes

Diabetes that develops during pregnancy.

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Postpartum Care

Care provided to the mother after childbirth.

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Folic Acid in Pregnancy

Supplementation to prevent neural tube defects, especially during the first trimester.

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Quickening

Patient's initial perception of fetal movement, usually between 16-20 weeks, felt as flutters.

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Chadwick's Sign

Bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia, an early sign of pregnancy.

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Hegar's Sign

Softening of the cervix, occurring around 6 weeks of gestation.

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CV Changes in Pregnancy

Cardiac Output increases by 30-50% and blood volume increases significantly.

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Aortocaval Compression

Manage pregnant patients in left lateral position to alleviate aortocaval compression.

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Hematologic Changes in Pregnancy

Increased plasma and red cell volume and coagulation factors (VII, VIII, IX, XII).

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Pregnancy & Hypercoagulability

Adaptive to reduce risk of hemorrhage during/after delivery, increases risk 5.5x.

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Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)

Connects main pulmonary artery to the proximal descending aorta, shunting blood away from non-functioning fetal lungs.

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Foramen Ovale

Allows blood to enter the left atrium from the right atrium, bypassing pulmonary circulation

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Ductus Venosus

Shunts a portion of umbilical vein blood flow directly to the IVC, bypassing the liver.

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Umbilical Cord Vessels

There should be 2 umbilical arteries and 1 umbilical vein.

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Naegele's Rule

Determine gestational age by LMP + 1 year - 3 months + 7 days.

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Routine U/A During Prenatal Visits

Screen for glucose and protein at every prenatal visit.

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First Trimester Screening

Screens for trisomy 21, 18 & 13 by measuring fetal nuchal translucency, PAPP-A, and free or total B-hCG by end of 1st trimester.

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HELLP Syndrome

Preeclampsia with Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count.

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HELLP Syndrome Risks

Life-threatening condition linked with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, potentially occurring shortly after delivery.

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HELLP Syndrome S&S

Headache, N/V that worsens, RUQ pain/tenderness, fatigue, malaise, visual disturbances.

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HELLP Syndrome Treatment

Delivery is the most effective treatment, either naturally or via C-section, depending on gestational age.

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GDM Pathophysiology

Insulin resistance during pregnancy due to placental hormones.

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GDM Result

Postprandial hyperglycemia and carbohydrate intolerance.

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GDM Development

Beta cell deficits, a pancreas can't compensate for resistance.

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GDM Screening

50-g 1 hour oral glucose challenge at 24-28 weeks.

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GDM Risk Factors

Obesity (BMI >25), personal or FH of DM, previous GDM, advanced maternal age, non-white ethnicity.

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Postpartum GDM Screening

Glucose tolerance screening 2-4 months postpartum.

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Transient Hypertension

Hypertension occurring late in pregnancy without preeclampsia features, normalizing postpartum.

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Chronic Hypertension in Pregnancy

BP >140/90 mmHg before pregnancy or before 20 weeks gestation, or persisting >12 weeks postpartum.

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Mild Chronic Hypertension

SBP 140-159 mmHg or DBP 90-109 mmHg in chronic hypertension.

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Severe Chronic Hypertension

SBP >160 mmHg or DBP >110 mmHg in chronic hypertension.

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Pregnancy-Induced Hypertension (PIH)

Hypertension developing in the 2nd half of pregnancy, after 20 weeks, without proteinuria.

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Pre-eclampsia

New onset hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation.

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Mild Pre-eclampsia

SBP >140 mmHg or DBP >90 mmHg, and proteinuria 300 mg in 24 hr urine.

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Severe Pre-eclampsia

SBP >160 mmHg or DBP >110 mmHg, and >5 g protein in 24 hr urine.

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Risk Factors for Pre-eclampsia

Nulliparity, age >35, family history of eclampsia, pre-existing hypertension, renal disease, multiple gestation, pre-gestational DM, obesity.

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Signs and Symptoms of Pre-eclampsia

Headache, visual disturbances, weight gain, edema.

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Amniocentesis

A procedure to withdraw amniotic fluid for prenatal genetic studies or to assess fetal lung maturity.

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Fetal Kick Counts

Maternal perception of fetal movements; monitor for a set number of movements within a given time frame.

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Non-Stress Test (NST)

Noninvasive test using an external monitor to record fetal heart rate in response to fetal movements.

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NST Accelerations

Fetal heart rate accelerates >15 BPM above baseline for 15 seconds, indicating fetal well-being.

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Contraction Stress Test (CST)

Test measuring fetal heart rate in response to induced contractions, usually after an abnormal NST.

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Biophysical Profile (BPP)

Assessment using ultrasound during NST to evaluate fetal breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume.

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VEAL CHOP

Mnemonic to correlate fetal heart rate patterns with possible causes: Variable, Early, Acceleration, Late; Cord compression, Head compression, Okay, Placental insufficiency.

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Pregnancy Weight Gain

Recommended weight gain during pregnancy for women with a normal BMI.

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Pica

Craving non-food substances, often associated with iron deficiency anemia.

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Hyperemesis Gravidarum

Severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.

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"Lightening"

Changes in abdominal shape and a sensation that the baby is lighter, as the fetal head descends into the pelvis.

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Ruptured Membranes (ROM)

Sudden gush or constant leakage of amniotic fluid.

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Bloody show

Passage of blood-tinged mucus as the cervix thins (effacement), and the mucus plug is expelled.

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True Labor

Regular, painful uterine contractions that cause cervical dilation and lead to birth.

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Braxton Hicks Contractions

They are irregular & painless uterine contractions. Unlike true labor, they do not cause cervical dilation.

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Spontaneous Labor

Most patients undergo it spontaneously between 37-42 weeks gestation.

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When to Go to Hospital (Labor)

Contractions every 5 mins X 1 hour, water breaking, significant bleeding, or decreased fetal movement.

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Leopold Maneuvers

A series of 4 palpations of the uterus & fetus through the abdominal wall.

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Fetal Lie

The relation of long axis of fetus to the maternal long axis. Longitudinal is most common

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Reassuring Fetal Heart Tones

The fetal heart rate's baseline variability, accelerations, and absence of decelerations.

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Hydatidiform Mole

Also known as a molar pregnancy, it's an abnormal fertilization leading to gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD).

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Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD)

A spectrum of conditions from the placenta, involving abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic tissue.

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Hydatidiform Mole (Molar Pregnancy)

Most common type of GTD, usually benign.

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Invasive Mole

Mole extending into the uterus or vagina.

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Choriocarcinoma

Malignant transformation of a hydatidiform mole.

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Complete Hydatidiform Mole

No fetal tissue, fertilization of egg w/ no DNA.

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Partial Hydatidiform Mole

Fetal tissue plus molar degeneration; fertilization of normal egg w/ 2 sperm

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Presentation of Hydatidiform Mole

Vaginal bleeding and uterine size discrepancy.

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Ultrasound Findings: Complete Mole

"Snowstorm" or "cluster of grapes" appearance on ultrasound.

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Treatment for Hydatidiform Mole

D&C with suction curettage, serial Beta-hCG monitoring, and contraception for 1 year.

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Abnormal Labor

Prolonged 2nd stage of labor without time limit if mother and fetus are stable, emphasizing support and alternative positions.

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Meconium

Thick, greenish substance lining the fetal intestines; aspiration can cause respiratory distress.

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Labor Induction

Stimulation of uterine contractions to achieve vaginal birth before spontaneous labor.

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Induction Indications

Post-term pregnancy, PPROM, chorioamnionitis, fetal growth restriction, oligohydramnios, diabetes, hypertension, abruption.

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Induction Contraindications

Previous C-section, uterine surgery, active herpes, placenta previa, cord prolapse, transverse lie.

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Cervical Ripening

Softening, effacement, and dilation of cervix before active labor.

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Induction Methods

Oxytocin infusion, prostaglandin analogs, cervical balloon, membrane stripping, amniotomy.

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Oxytocin Use

Preferred method for labor induction when the cervix is favorable.

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Prostaglandins Use

Enhance success of induction when cervix is unfavorable.

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Membrane Stripping

Sweeping amniotic sac off the cervix without rupture.

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Nipple stimulation in labor

Stimulates oxytocin release to initiate contractions.

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Amniotomy (AROM)

Artificial rupture of membranes to induce or augment labor.

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Favorable (Ripe) Cervix

Cervix is open 2-3 cm, 80+% effaced, soft, and anteriorly positioned.

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GBS Treatment During Labor

Antibiotics (PCN IV) during delivery to prevent GBS transmission.

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C-Section Indications

Failure to progress, non-reassuring fetal status, malpresentation, placenta issues, or uterine rupture.

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Placental Separation Signs

Apparent lengthening of cord, increased vaginal bleeding, uterus changes shape, placenta expulsion.

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Retained Placenta

Placenta fails to fully separate or expel, preventing uterine contractions.

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Placenta Accreta

Attaches deeply to uterine wall, but does NOT penetrate the uterine muscle.

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Postpartum Hemorrhage Definition

Blood loss needing transfusion or 10% Hct decrease.

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Uterine Atony

Uterus fails to contract after delivery, feels boggy on palpation.

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Ectopic Pregnancy

Implantation of a pregnancy outside the uterine cavity, most commonly in the fallopian tubes.

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Ectopic Pregnancy: Risk Factors

History of PID, abdominal/tubal surgery, previous ectopic pregnancy, fertility treatments, maternal age >35, and smoking.

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Ectopic Pregnancy: S/S

Amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and possible cervical motion tenderness. May also have an adnexal mass.

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Ruptured Ectopic Pregnancy: S/S

Severe abdominal/shoulder pain with peritonitis, syncope, and orthostatic hypotension.

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Ectopic Pregnancy: Dx

Urine and serum pregnancy tests (hCG levels), TVUS, and progesterone levels.

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Ectopic Pregnancy: hCG levels

hCG rises much slower in abnormal pregnancies. In early normal pregnancy, the hCG doubles every 1-2 days.

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Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

Abnormal activation of clotting leading to depletion of platelets and clotting factors, causing bleeding.

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Isoimmunization

Development of maternal antibodies against fetal red blood cell antigens.

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Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN)

Fetal RBC destruction by maternal antibodies, leading to anemia, jaundice, and hydrops fetalis.

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Abruptio Placenta

Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall.

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Placenta Previa

Placenta implanted in the lower uterine segment, partially or completely covering the cervical os.

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Septic Abortion

Infection of the uterus after a spontaneous or induced abortion.

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Kernicterus

Bilirubin-induced brain dysfunction, leading to athetoid cerebral palsy, hearing loss, and vision/dental problems.

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Preterm Labor

Delivery and cervical changes before 37 weeks gestation.

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SROM

Spontaneous rupture of membranes before the onset of labor.

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PROM

Membrane rupture after 37 weeks gestation.

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PPROM

Membrane rupture before 37 weeks gestation.

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Diagnosis of ROM

Pooling of fluid in the vagina, ferning of dried fluid, and alkalinity of fluid.

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Betamethasone/Dexamethasone

Corticosteroids given to the mother to promote fetal lung development. Decreases risk of fetal respiratory distress syndrome.

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Chorioamnionitis

Inflammation and infection of the amniotic sac.

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Metritis

Infection of the uterus, including the endometrium, myometrium, or parametrium.

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Metritis Causes

E.coli, staph, group A/B strep (occurs w/in 10 days post abortion or delivery).

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Metritis S&S

Fever, chills, malaise, abd pain, uterine cramping & tenderness, foul-smelling lochia, tachycardia.

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Metritis Dx

CBC (WBC > 20k); blood cx; UA & urine cx; lochia cx.

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Metritis Rx

Broad spectrum abx, Antipyretics (Tylenol), pain meds.

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Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS)

Infant lung disease caused by lack of surfactant, leading to alveolar collapse.

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RDS Cause

Occurs in infants whose lungs have not fully developed (born before 37-39 wks). Caused by lack of surfactant in lungs.

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RDS Infant Assessment

Assess them immediately after birth for appearance, color and breathing efforts (APTGAR).

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RDS Diagnosis

Chest x-ray of lungs, blood gas levels (possible low O2 and high CO2), echocardiography (to r/o PDA).

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RDS RX

Can receive surfactant therapy immediately after birth (instilled down the trachea via artificial airway).

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Hormonal Contraceptives

Most effective pregnancy prevention; includes pills, injectables, implants, IUDs, patches and rings.

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Hormonal Contraceptive: Danger Signs

Loss of vision, unilateral numbness, severe chest pain, or severe leg pain.

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Combined Oral Contraceptives

Primarily prevents ovulation; thickens cervical mucus and creates an unfavorable endometrium.

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Combined Pill Contraindications

Women >35 who smoke, history of thromboembolism, CAD, CVA, or migraine with aura.

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Progestin-Only Pills

Thickens cervical mucus, must be taken at the same time daily.

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Contraceptive Patch

A contraceptive patch applied weekly for 3 weeks, followed by a patch-free week for menstruation. It should be placed on clean, dry skin (butt, upper outer arm, or lower abdomen).

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Contraceptive Ring

Releases hormones daily, inserted into the vagina once a month, left in place for 3 weeks, removed for a week to allow withdrawal bleeding.

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Diaphragm Contraceptive

A dome-shaped latex barrier placed over the cervix before intercourse; insert with spermicide and leave in place for 6-8 hours after sex, but no more than 24 hours.

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Cervical Cap

A barrier device covering only the cervix; insert with spermicide prior to intercourse and leave in place for at least 6 hours, but no more than 48 hours.

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Contraceptive Sponge

A small sponge containing spermicide that fits over the cervix, remaining effective for up to 24 hours; more effective in women who have not given birth.

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Long Acting Reversible Contraceptives (LARCs)

Highly effective, long-term birth control methods including IUDs and subdermal implants; suitable for those unable to use estrogen or desiring quick return to fertility.

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IUDs

Small devices inserted into the uterus, must be checked for placement in weeks

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Contraceptive Patch considerations

Hormonal, has decreased efficacy in those >198lbs

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Cervical cap considerations

Must remain in place 6 hrs post sex but not >48 hrs. Higher incidence of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) and cervicitis

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Contraceptive sponges considerations

Can remain in place for 24 hrs, more effective in nullip women

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Infertility Definition (>35)

Infertility after 6 months of trying for women over 35

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Female Infertility Cause

Ovulatory dysfunction, often PCOS.

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Male Factor Infertility

Varicocele, sperm issues (count, motility, morphology)

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Ovarian Stimulation Use

Anovulation or oligo-ovulation treatment

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Common Ovulation Drug

Clomiphene citrate.

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Gonadotropins

Injectable hormones that grows multiple follicles

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IVF Steps

Oocyte retrieval, in vitro fertilization, embryo transfer.

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Infertility Counseling Focus

Managing risks, multi-fetus reduction, stress, adoption

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ART risks

Risk of multiple gestations, multifetal pregnancy reduction, stress.

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Emergency Contraception (EC)

Methods used to prevent pregnancy after unprotected intercourse.

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Plan B One Step/Next Choice

OTC emergency contraceptive that contains only one pill.

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Copper IUD (as EC)

Most effective emergency contraception if inserted within 5 days of intercourse.

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Ella (Ulipristal Acetate)

Emergency contraceptive effective up to 5 days after unprotected sex; requires a prescription.

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Sterilization

A permanent method of birth control, more common than female sterilization.

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Vasectomy

Surgical occlusion of the vas deferens to prevent sperm transport.

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Tubal Ligation

Female sterilization via occlusion of fallopian tubes using clips, rings, or cautery.

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Minilaparotomy

Common surgical approach for tubal ligation.

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Infertility

Inability to conceive after 12 months of regular, unprotected intercourse.

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Hysteroscopy (for sterilization)

Accessing fallopian tubes via the cervix for sterilization.

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IUD Contraindications

Congenital uterine malformations, active pelvic infections, or pregnancy.

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IUD Risks

PID, expulsion, perforation, embedding in uterine wall.

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Levonorgestrel IUDs

Thickens cervical mucus.

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Copper IUD (ParaGard)

Interferes with sperm motility/fertilization.

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Depo-Provera

Injectable progestin given every 3 months.

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Depo-Provera Side Effect

Decreased bone density.

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Nexplanon Side Effects

Irregular bleeding/amenorrhea, weight gain.

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Emergency Contraception

For unprotected sex used within 72 hours.

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Emergency Contraception

They do not terminate existing pregnancies.

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Study Notes

Amniocentesis

  • Possible after 11 weeks gestation.
  • Procedures performed before 15 weeks, are associated with fetal loss.
  • Common indications: prenatal genetic studies and assessment of fetal lung maturity.
  • Amniocentesis involves withdrawing amniotic fluid by needle via a transabdominal approach.

Gestational Hypertension PIH

  • A.K.A. gestational HTN.
  • Typically on the 2nd half of pregnancy, after 20 weeks but has *no proteinuria
  • Can develop in 5-10% of pregnancies, 30% in multiple gestations, and 50% can progress into preeclampsia Causes 20% of maternal deaths, as associated w/ high perinatal M&M for the mother and fetus

Pre Eclampsia

  • New onset HTN w/ *proteinuria, occurring after 20 weeks gestation with BP that measure >140/90 If it gets bad it turns into : HA, visual disturbances, and edema







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