OB Exam

A pregnant woman in her first trimester is undergoing her initial prenatal assessment. According to the recommended screening guidelines for this stage, which test is designed to assess the risk of Trisomy 21, 18, and 13?

A patient is undergoing prenatal screening at 16 weeks gestation. The Maternal Serum AFP (MSAFP) test is ordered. What specific condition is this test primarily designed to screen for?

A pregnant woman did not receive first-trimester screening and is now at 17 weeks gestation. Which of the following screening tests is most appropriate to assess her risk for chromosomal abnormalities at this stage?

A quad screen result indicates 'High' for hCG, 'Low' for estriol, 'Low' for AFP, and 'High' for inhibin A. Based on these results, which of the following conditions is most likely indicated as high risk?

What is the fundamental difference between prenatal screening tests and diagnostic tests as described in the provided content?

For a pregnant woman at risk of pregnancy loss, what is the primary goal of a Biophysical Profile (BPP)?

After what gestational week is the Biophysical Profile (BPP) typically performed for women at risk?

Which of the following is NOT a measurement included in a Biophysical Profile (BPP)?

What is the recommendation regarding strenuous lifting for a pregnant woman as part of antepartum patient education?

What is the recommended duration and intensity of daily exercise for a pregnant woman?

Why should pregnant women avoid supine exercises after the first trimester?

What is the typical recommended weight gain during pregnancy for a woman with a normal BMI?

A pregnant woman reports cravings for ice, clay and dirt. What condition is most associated with these cravings?

Until what gestational week is air travel generally considered safe for pregnant women?

Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, specifically hyperemesis gravidarum?

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) develops primarily due to what physiological response of the pancreas?

A woman with a history of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) should be screened for prediabetes or diabetes at what frequency?

During a 1-hour Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT) for gestational diabetes screening, what glucose level is generally considered abnormal, necessitating a 3-hour GTT?

In a 3-hour Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT), what constitutes a diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) based on the reference values provided?

What is generally considered the first-line therapy for managing Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) after diagnosis?

A pregnant woman is diagnosed with hypertension for the first time at 28 weeks gestation. This scenario is most consistent with which classification of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy?

Which of the following conditions represents the most severe manifestation of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, characterized by the onset of seizures in a woman with preeclampsia?

HELLP syndrome is recognized as a severe complication associated with preeclampsia. What does the acronym HELLP specifically stand for regarding the physiological abnormalities observed?

In comparing chronic hypertension and gestational hypertension, which of the following is a key distinguishing factor in their diagnosis?

Considering the objectives related to hypertension and gestational diabetes in pregnancy, what is a primary goal when managing a pregnant woman with either condition?

A pregnant patient with Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) is reviewing her blood glucose monitoring log. Which set of readings demonstrates that her GDM is within the recommended target ranges?

When considering oral medications for Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM), the provided information classifies Metformin as Pregnancy Category B and Glyburide as Pregnancy Category C. What is the key distinction between these classifications in terms of potential risk during pregnancy?

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) is associated with several maternal risks. Which of the following groups of conditions represents a cluster of interconnected risks for a mother with GDM, potentially arising from similar underlying physiological changes?

A patient with well-controlled Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) without complications is being evaluated at 38 weeks of gestation. Considering the guidelines for delivery timing in GDM, under which circumstance would immediate Cesarean section be MOST indicated?

A woman with a history of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) is being counseled about her future health risks and those of her child. Which statement accurately reflects the long-term implications of GDM for both the mother and her child, based on the provided content?

A patient presents with elevated blood pressure first documented at 28 weeks gestation but without proteinuria. Her blood pressure returns to normal 6 weeks postpartum. Which type of hypertension is most consistent with this clinical presentation?

A pregnant patient with a known history of hypertension is being evaluated at her first prenatal visit at 8 weeks gestation. Which classification of hypertension is most appropriate for this patient?

For a pregnant patient diagnosed with chronic hypertension, what is the primary therapeutic goal regarding blood pressure management?

A pregnant patient at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gestational hypertension. Which of the following blood pressure readings, taken on two separate occasions at least 4 hours apart within one week, confirms this diagnosis?

Which of the following antihypertensive medications is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of fetal renal and cardiac abnormalities?

A breastfeeding mother requires antihypertensive medication. Which of the following medications should be avoided according to the recommendations provided?

What is the minimum proteinuria level required in a 24-hour urine collection to diagnose preeclampsia?

In the diagnosis of preeclampsia, how far apart should the two elevated blood pressure measurements be to meet the criteria?

A pregnant patient at 30 weeks gestation is diagnosed with mild preeclampsia. According to the management guidelines, what is a recommended medication option for blood pressure control?

A patient with severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery. Which of the following is the most critical immediate management step?

What distinguishes eclampsia from severe preeclampsia?

In the management of eclampsia, what is the primary immediate action following a seizure?

HELLP syndrome is characterized by preeclampsia and which triad of laboratory abnormalities?

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criterion for HELLP syndrome based on the information provided?

Which maternal complication is specifically associated with HELLP syndrome?

What is the expected timeframe for the uterus to return to its non-pregnant location postpartum?

Why is Ilotycin (erythromycin) ointment administered to a newborn's eyes?

Which of the following organisms is Ilotycin effective against in preventing neonatal conjunctivitis?

What is the recommendation regarding breastfeeding initiation after delivery?

What is the recommended frequency of breastfeeding in the first few weeks postpartum??

What is the primary reason for examining the placenta after its delivery?

Why is IV oxytocin (Pitocin) administered postpartum?

What is the definition of 'involution' in the context of postpartum maternal care?

Approximately how long does it typically take for the uterus to return to its normal size postpartum?

What is the primary purpose of closely monitoring the amount of blood on perineal pads and the mother’s blood pressure post-delivery?

Postpartum hemorrhage is a significant concern in maternal care. When is 'early' postpartum hemorrhage defined as occurring?

Where is the fundus typically located on postpartum day 6?

How quickly does the fundus descend postpartum?

What instructions should be given to a new breastfeeding mother regarding nipple care?

Which of the following is a known benefit of exclusive breastfeeding for 6 months?

Which medication is contraindicated during breastfeeding?

By when does the uterus typically return to its normal size after birth?

What is lochia rubra?

Compared to non-lactating women, how long does it take for lactating women to ovulate on average?

What is the recommended length of hospital stay following a vaginal delivery without complications?

What is recomended for breast engorgement in a postpartum patient who does NOT want to breastfeed?

Why are combined oral contraceptives (OCs) generally avoided immediately postpartum in breastfeeding mothers?

What percentage of women are affected by postpartum blues?

What is the primary route of administration for Brexanolone (Zulresso) when treating postpartum depression?

Why is careful and repeated assessment of a mother’s symptoms emphasized in the context of postpartum anxiety and depression?

What is the most common route of infection leading to metritis?

A patient is diagnosed with metritis after a C-section. She is being treated with IV antibiotics and is now afebrile and asymptomatic for 30 hours straight. What is the next appropriate step in her treatment?

What is the recommendation for performing a Pap smear during the postpartum follow-up visit around 6 weeks after delivery?

Which non-medical factor significantly influences health outcomes, highlighting the impact of where individuals live, learn, work, and age?

How do social determinants of health primarily affect health outcomes?

Considering the broad impact of ‘social determinants of health,’ which of the following scenarios exemplifies their influence on perinatal health outcomes?

What is the most comprehensive way to address the impact of social determinants on obstetrical care?

How do race and socioeconomic status, as components of social determinants of health, most significantly influence maternal health outcomes?

A primigravid patient at 39 weeks gestation reports experiencing contractions that are irregular, less intense than previous contractions, and primarily felt in her lower abdomen and groin. She states that walking around seems to lessen the discomfort. Based on this description, which type of contractions is she most likely experiencing?

Which of the following best describes cervical effacement during the late stages of pregnancy and early labor?

A patient at 38 weeks gestation calls the triage line reporting a sudden gush of clear fluid. Which of the following instructions is MOST appropriate based on this report?

During an initial labor evaluation, Leopold maneuvers are performed. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this assessment technique?

A patient presents to labor and delivery reporting regular contractions. To differentiate between true and false labor, which finding on cervical examination would be MOST indicative of true labor?

A pregnant woman at term is experiencing 'bloody show'. What physiological process is directly associated with the occurrence of bloody show?

A multiparous woman at 39 weeks gestation reports feeling 'lighter' and noticing a change in the shape of her abdomen. This sensation is most likely due to which physiological change in late pregnancy?

During the initial evaluation of a patient presenting in labor, fetal heart tones are assessed. What is the PRIMARY reason for monitoring fetal heart tones during labor?

In the context of initial labor assessment, what is the significance of reviewing a patient's prenatal records and labs?

A patient at term is admitted for labor. She is having regular contractions every 4 minutes lasting 60 seconds. Which aspect of the contraction pattern is described by the 'every 4 minutes' measurement?

During the initial evaluation of a patient in labor, what information is gathered using Leopold maneuvers?

What is the primary risk associated with an external cephalic version (ECV) procedure?

A laboring patient exhibits recurrent late decelerations. After repositioning the mother and administering IV fluids, what is the next appropriate step?

During the initial evaluation, a vaginal exam is typically performed to determine cervical dilation and effacement, but under which circumstance should a vaginal exam be avoided?

What does it mean when the fetal presenting part is at zero station?

In a high-risk pregnancy, or following the administration of analgesia/anesthesia, how often should vital signs typically be monitored?

What is the primary difference between spinal anesthesia and epidural anesthesia in labor?

When might general anesthesia be considered necessary during labor and delivery?

Which of the following characterizes the latent phase of the first stage of labor?

What occurs during the second stage of labor?

During which stage of labor is the mother at the highest risk for complications as her body readjusts to a non-pregnant state?

Why is it important to ensure the placenta is delivered completely intact?

Which of the following is typically evaluated during the assessment of the placenta after delivery?

After delivery of the placenta, what critical step helps to evaluate maternal well-being and prevent complications?

Why is a local block, such as a bilateral pudendal nerve block, administered during labor?

When a labor abnormality is diagnosed, what are the '3 Ps' that should be evaluated?

What is the MOST common problem that leads to dystocia, or difficult labor?

Which of the following characteristics BEST describes adequate uterine contractions during labor?

What are the two methods used to measure the strength, duration and frequency of uterine contractions?

A patient's estimated fetal weight is 4600g. Which complication is MOST closely associated with this scenario?

Which of the following scenarios best describes a situation where the 'passenger' component of the 'Three Ps' of labor is the primary contributing factor to abnormal labor progress?

Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is a potential complication of labor related to the 'passage'. Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to contribute to CPD?

A primiparous woman at 41 weeks gestation is undergoing labor induction with oxytocin. After several hours, she is experiencing adequate contraction frequency and strength, but cervical dilation remains unchanged at 4 cm for 4 hours. This scenario is MOST consistent with which type of labor abnormality?

Following a prolonged second stage of labor and a vaginal delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia, a patient develops postpartum hemorrhage. Initial management includes fundal massage and uterotonic medications. If the hemorrhage continues despite these measures, which of the following should be considered NEXT in the stepwise management of postpartum hemorrhage?

Which of the following social determinants of health is MOST directly associated with increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage due to limited access to timely and appropriate prenatal and intrapartum care?

Which finding indicates a 'favorable' cervix for labor induction?

What is a potential complication associated with oxytocin administration during labor induction?

When using misoprostol (Cytotec) for cervical ripening, how often should the 25 mcg dose be administered?

What is the maximum duration a transcervical balloon (Foley catheter) should be left in place during labor induction if it is not spontaneously expelled?

Before performing membrane stripping, what criterion regarding Group B Streptococcus (GBS) status must be met?

Between which gestational weeks is routine screening for vaginal Group B Streptococcus (GBS) recommended?

Which factor increases the risk of a newborn contracting GBS infection?

What is the MOST common neonatal complication of GBS infection if untreated?

Why is continuous fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring crucial during and immediately after amniotomy?

Which of the following is a common indication for Cesarean delivery?

Which factor is a contraindication for a Trial of Labor After Cesarean (TOLAC)?

What constitutes a normal finding during placental delivery?

What is the MOST important step immediately following delivery of the placenta?

Which method of labor induction is most appropriate for a patient with a favorable cervix?

A patient with a history of one low transverse Cesarean section is considering a VBAC. Which factor would automatically disqualify her from attempting a VBAC?

What is a key difference between ethinyl estradiol and estetrol in oral contraceptives?

A contraception patch should be placed on which of the following areas?

A patient using the contraceptive patch weighs over 198 lbs. What should the provider counsel?

How often is a contraception ring replaced?

Which of the following is the MOST effective reversible method of pregnancy prevention?

What is the recommended duration for leaving a diaphragm in place after intercourse?

What is a key instruction regarding the use of talcum powder with a diaphragm?

What is a primary mechanism by which progestin prevents pregnancy?

For how long can a contraceptive sponge remain in place?

Why is estrogen included in most combination oral contraceptives?

A 36-year-old patient who smokes presents to your office requesting combined oral contraceptives. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

What is a risk associated with leaving the contraceptive sponge in place for longer than the recommended time?

When should a hormonal IUD be placed to prevent pregnancy?

Which of the following is a known benefit of combination oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)?

What is the recommended interval for administering depot medroxyprogesterone (DepoProvera)?

A patient on low-dose oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding. What is the MOST likely course of action?

Which of the following is a key characteristic of progestin-only pills (mini-pills)?

What action is considered as mechanism of action for Copper IUDs?

A 42-year-old patient is seeking contraception but has a history of migraines with aura, which is the MOST appropriate contraceptive method?

What is a contraindication for using etonogestrel implants?

Within what timeframe after unprotected sexual intercourse should emergency contraception be used to be effective?

A patient taking oral contraceptives reports sudden loss of vision in one eye. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A patient taking oral contraceptives reports severe headache. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

What is the difference between Plan B and ellaOne in terms of effectiveness based on weight?

A patient taking oral contraceptives reports new-onset right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

What is the primary action of emergency contraception pills?

A patient is prescribed Nextstellis, this drug combines drospirenone with what?

What percentage of all pregnancies in the US are unintended?

What is the MOST common reason for unintended pregnancies?

What is an important aspect of patient education regarding contraception?

Following a vasectomy, approximately how long is required before complete azoospermia is typically achieved?

Which of the following is NOT explicitly listed as a potential complication of male sterilization procedures?

Among the listed female sterilization methods, which technique is specifically highlighted as the most reversible?

What is identified as the most common surgical approach for performing female sterilization?

Which female sterilization system involves the hysteroscopic placement of stainless steel and nickel-titanium coils into the fallopian tubes?

For women under 35 years of age, infertility is clinically defined as the inability to conceive after how long of frequent, unprotected intercourse?

Among the primary female factors contributing to infertility, which condition is cited as the most common cause?

In the initial evaluation of male infertility, which diagnostic test is considered the primary and most informative?

Which of the following is NOT listed as a standard method for evaluating the uterus in a female infertility workup?

For women experiencing anovulation or oligo-ovulation undergoing Intrauterine Insemination (IUI), which medication is most frequently used for ovarian stimulation?

Which Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) procedure is noted to constitute the vast majority, over 99%, of all ART procedures performed?

In the process of In Vitro Fertilization (IVF), which of the following steps immediately follows the retrieval of oocytes and their fertilization in the laboratory?

In Intrauterine Insemination (IUI), how is the prepared semen sample introduced into the woman's reproductive system?

A crucial aspect of pre-sterilization counseling is ensuring the patient understands which fundamental characteristic of the sterilization procedure?

According to the presented information on infertility, approximately what percentage of cases are primarily attributed to male factors?

A patient presents with vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain in early pregnancy. According to the provided information, which of the following broad categories is NOT considered in the differential diagnosis for these symptoms?

A 17-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the emergency department with a 6-hour history of bright red vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping. She suspects she is pregnant but has not confirmed with a test and believes her last normal menstrual period was over 3 months ago. Based on the information provided, which of the following signs and symptoms is LEAST likely to be associated with her presentation?

A patient presents with vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain, reporting a last normal menstrual period '3+ months ago' but has not confirmed pregnancy. Which of the following initial diagnostic considerations is MOST directly supported by the information that her LNMP was '3+ months ago'?

A patient experiencing a spontaneous abortion might report 'loss of pregnancy symptoms'. Which of the following best describes what constitutes 'loss of pregnancy symptoms' in this context?

The provided material defines 'spontaneous abortion' as the 'Passing of pregnancy at'. Based on common obstetrical definitions, what gestational age is generally implied, although not explicitly stated in this text excerpt, as the upper limit for this definition?

MFM's role

Referral Indications for MFM

MFM Workup Tools

First Trimester Screening

Maternal serum (MS) AFP

Biophysical Profile (BPP)

BPP Measures

Antepartum Employment Advice

Antepartum Exercise Advice

Recommended Weight Gain During Pregnancy

Iron Intake During Pregnancy

Pica in Pregnancy

Air Travel During Pregnancy

Substance Avoidance

Medication Use

Chronic HTN

Pregnancy Induced HTN

Pre-eclampsia

Eclampsia

HELLP Syndrome

GDM treatment

GDM goal

Metformin Category

Glyburide category

GDM & Delivery

GDM Development

GDM Screening Guidelines

Postpartum GDM Screening

1-hour GTT Abnormal Threshold

Transient Hypertension

Chronic Hypertension

Gestational Hypertension (PIH)

Chronic HTN Goal

Mild Chronic HTN

Severe Chronic HTN

Chronic HTN Meds

Major Risk of Chronic HTN

PIH Definition

HTN Drugs to Avoid

Preeclampsia Definition

Mild Preeclampsia

Severe Preclampsia

Postpartum (PP)

Placenta Delivery & Exam

Incomplete Placenta Delivery Risks

Umbilical Cord Exam

Maternal Evaluation

IV Oxytocin (Pitocin)

Involution

Postpartum Monitoring

Uterus Location Postpartum (PP)

Neonate Assessment

Ilotycin*

Ilotycin* Targets

Colostrum

Brexanolone (Zulresso)

Brexanolone Administration

Metritis Definition

Metritis Symptoms

6-week PP Exam

Post-Feeding Care

Lanolin/A&D Ointment

Breastfeeding Duration

Breastfeeding Benefits

Oxytocin's Effect

Breastfeeding Contraindications

Puerperium

Uterine Involution

Lochia

Postpartum Cervix

Leopold Maneuvers

Fetal lie

Most common fetal lie

Presentation

Position

External cephalic version (ECV)

Fetomaternal hemorrhage

Reassuring Fetal Heart Tones

Nonreassuring patterns

Management: Variable decels

Management: Early decels

Late decels management

Vaginal exam

Station

Stage I of Labor

Social Determinants of Health

Influence on Health

Behavior & Social Determinants

"Social determinants"

Social Determinants time frame

Uterine Contractions (Late Pregnancy)

Effect of Uterine Contractions

"Lightening" in Late Pregnancy

Ruptured Membranes (ROM)

Bloody Show

True Labor

Braxton Hicks Contractions

True Labor Contractions

Cervical Effacement

Diagnostic Cervical Change

Dystocia

The 'Three Ps'

Powers (Labor)

External Tocodynamometry

Internal (IUPCs)

Labor Induction

Favorable Cervix

Unfavorable Cervix

Oxytocin (Pitocin/Syntocinon)

Uterine Hyperstimulation

Prostaglandins

Misoprostol (Cytotec)

Dinoprostone (Cervidil)

Transcervical Balloon (Catheter)

Membrane Stripping

Amniotomy (AROM)

Common C-Section Indications

TOLAC

VBAC

VBAC Contraindications

OCPs (Oral Contraceptive Pills)

Combined Pill Action

Classic Combined Pill Regimen

Contraindications for Combined Pills

Benefits of Combination Pills

Progestin-Only Pills Function

Good Candidates for Progestin-Only Pills

Pt education for Progestin-Only Pills

What to do if you are late taking a Progestin-Only Pill

Loss of vision, diplopia with OCPs

What should you start when D/C OCPs?

Slurring of speech with OCPs

Severe chest/neck pain with OCPs

Hemoptysis, acute SOB with OCPs

Nextstellis

Ethinyl Estradiol

Estetrol

Transdermal Patch Use

Contraception Patch Efficacy

Contraception Ring Use

Condom Use (Female)

Diaphragm Description

Diaphragm Insertion Time

Diaphragm Side Effect

Cervical Cap

Cervical Cap Removal Timing

Cervical Cap Risks

Contraceptive Sponge

Sponge Effectiveness

Contraceptive Sponge TSS Risk

Vasectomy Effectiveness Timeline

Vasectomy Complications

Female Sterilization Methods

Hulka Clip

Female Sterilization Surgical Approach

Essure System

Essure Complications

Pre-Sterilization Counseling: Key Points

Infertility Definition

Infertility Evaluation – Age 35+.

Requirements of Conception

Infertility Causes

Most Common Female Infertility Factor

Infertility Evaluation Overview

Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)

Spontaneous Abortion

Abortion symptoms

Signs and Symptoms of Abortion

Vaginal Bleeding and Abdominal Pain

Bleeding Causes (Non-Ectopic/Abortion)