Musculoskeletal System: OA, RA & Assessments

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson
Download our mobile app to listen on the go
Get App

Questions and Answers

Which of the following is the most common orthopedic injury, accounting for 40% of all athletic injuries?

  • Meniscus tear
  • ACL tear
  • Wrist fracture
  • Ankle sprain (correct)

What is the primary difference between a strain and a sprain?

  • A strain is always more severe than a sprain.
  • A strain involves muscles or tendons, while a sprain involves ligaments. (correct)
  • A sprain is an injury that only occurs in the ankle.
  • A strain involves ligaments, while a sprain involves tendons.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a second-degree or moderate strain?

  • Severe muscle spasms, extensive inflammation, and ecchymosis. (correct)
  • Complete rupture of the muscle or tendon.
  • Minimal inflammation and pain with unaffected range of motion.
  • Ability to ambulate with slight discomfort.

The RICE acronym is commonly used in the treatment of first- and second-degree strains and sprains. What does RICE stand for?

<p>Rest, Ice, Compress, Elevate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential complication of strains and sprains that involves excessive pressure within a limited space, leading to neurovascular compromise?

<p>Compartment syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following chronic bone disorders is NOT associated with an increased risk of pathological fractures?

<p>Osteoarthritis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of fracture involves pieces of bone protruding through the skin, creating an external wound?

<p>Open (compound) fracture (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes a fracture in which bone fragments are well approximated within the site of disruption?

<p>Nondisplaced (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of using irrigation and debridement in the surgical management of fractures?

<p>To prevent osteomyelitis and other wound infections (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following interventions is most important in preventing muscle atrophy and contractures after definitive fracture treatment?

<p>Movement and function of the injured area (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of traction in fracture treatment?

<p>To reduce the fracture and relieve muscle spasms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the 'six Ps' of compartment syndrome are considered late findings?

<p>Paralysis and Pulselessness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for administering intravenous fluids to a patient with rhabdomyolysis secondary to a crush injury?

<p>To &quot;flush&quot; myoglobin through the kidneys (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following assessment findings would MOST strongly suggest the presence of a pulmonary embolus in a patient recovering from a fracture?

<p>Tachycardia, tachypnea, and decreased pulse oximetry with chest pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY reason for avoiding the use of a pillow under the stump of a lower extremity amputation?

<p>To prevent flexion contractures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common symptom of phantom limb pain following an amputation?

<p>Sharp, burning pain perceived in the removed limb (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY rationale for wrapping a residual limb with a compression dressing postoperatively?

<p>To minimize edema and aid in fitting a prosthesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk factor specifically associated with acute meniscus injuries?

<p>Insufficient quadriceps muscle control (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports experiencing a sudden onset of sharp knee pain, followed by an insidious onset of effusion. Which assessment finding is MOST indicative of a meniscal tear?

<p>Joint line tenderness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the purpose of an arthroscopic surgical repair of a meniscus tear?

<p>To remove or repair the damaged meniscus through small incisions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which jobs have a higher occurrence of carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test involves having the patient relax their hand in the flexed position for 60 seconds to aid in diagnosing Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

<p>Phalen's test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does TENS unit stand for?

<p>Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes aseptic nonunion?

<p>Due to tobacco and nicotine usage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When there is a suspected crushing injury on a patient, what is the correct protocol?

<p>Do not elevate the limb because elevation reduces arterial pressure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are possible sources of edema that can increase swelling and compress blood vessels?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What stimulates increased capillary permeability, causing more blood and fluid to leak into the already restricted compartmental space?

<p>Hypoxia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following can be caused by compartment syndrome?

<p>Neurovascular Compromise (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What electrolytes are part of multiple electrolyte disorders that are frequently complicated by rhabdomyolysis?

<p>Both A and B (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following sports is least associated with a high frequency of ankle sprains?

<p>Swimming (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports pain, inflammation, and ecchymosis after a sports injury, but can still move the affected joint with some discomfort. Which degree of sprain is most consistent with these findings?

<p>Second-degree (moderate) sprain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When educating a patient on the use of ice for a mild ankle sprain, which instruction should be included?

<p>Apply ice for no more than 30 minutes, three to five times per day for 24 to 72 hours. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings would be most concerning and warrant immediate notification of the provider in a patient being treated for a lower extremity strain?

<p>New onset of numbness and tingling in the foot (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient is diagnosed with a fragility fracture attributed to decreased bone density. Which of the following chronic conditions would most likely contribute to this type of fracture?

<p>Osteoporosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a fracture in which a bone fragment is forced inward. Which type of fracture is this?

<p>Depressed (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When obtaining a history from a patient with a suspected fracture, what information is most critical for the nurse to gather regarding the injury?

<p>Specific mechanism of force that caused the injury (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a closed reduction for a fractured tibia, the patient is placed in a cast. Which of the following nursing interventions is most important to prevent complications associated with immobilization?

<p>Teaching the patient to perform isometric exercises and encouraging frequent position changes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a fractured femur is placed in skeletal traction. What is the primary rationale for this intervention?

<p>To reduce the fracture and relieve muscle spasms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient recovering from a fractured humerus reports severe pain that is unrelieved by pain medication, along with increasing swelling and numbness in the fingers. Which complication should the nurse suspect?

<p>Compartment syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a crush injury is at risk for rhabdomyolysis. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see in this patient?

<p>Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When caring for a patient with a long bone fracture, the nurse should be vigilant for signs and symptoms of fat embolism syndrome (FES). Which assessment finding is MOST indicative of FES?

<p>Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and petechiae (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to prevent flexion contracture after a patient has a lower extremity amputation?

<p>Positioning the patient prone several times a day (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who underwent an amputation reports persistent burning pain in the absent limb. Which intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest?

<p>Initiating mirror therapy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After an above-the-knee amputation, what is the primary purpose of wrapping the residual limb with a figure-eight compression bandage?

<p>To facilitate wound healing and minimize edema (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors contributes most significantly to the occurrence of acute meniscus injuries?

<p>Sudden twisting or pivoting of the knee (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with a meniscal tear is scheduled for arthroscopic surgery. What should the nurse explain as the primary goal of this procedure?

<p>To visualize and repair or remove the torn portion of the meniscus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following occupations carries the highest risk for developing carpal tunnel syndrome?

<p>Construction worker (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Phalen's test is performed to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. A positive test is indicated by:

<p>Numbness and tingling in the fingers when the wrists are flexed (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following treatments is considered a nonoperative measure for managing carpal tunnel syndrome?

<p>Steroid injections (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the initial stage of bone healing following a fracture?

<p>Hematoma formation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a fracture that has failed to heal, and cultures reveal no infection. What type of nonunion is this considered?

<p>Aseptic nonunion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale for administering intravenous fluids to a patient diagnosed with rhabdomyolysis secondary to a crush injury?

<p>To dilute the myoglobin in the kidneys and prevent acute tubular necrosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a tibial fracture reports increased pain and pressure in the lower leg despite receiving pain medication. On assessment, the nurse notes pallor and decreased sensation in the foot. What is the priority nursing intervention?

<p>Notify the health care provider immediately. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following complications is most likely to be associated with fractures in the pelvis due to its high vascularity?

<p>Hemorrhagic shock (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory finding would the nurse anticipate in a patient experiencing rhabdomyolysis as a complication of a fracture?

<p>Elevated serum myoglobin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key nursing intervention in preventing complications associated with immobilization devices such as casts and splints?

<p>Ensuring the device is secure and not compromising circulation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a late sign of compartment syndrome that a nurse should be aware of when assessing a patient with a fracture?

<p>Pulselessness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are women at a higher risk for ACL tears compared to men?

<p>Women generally have a greater degree of valgus knee torques, less muscular strength, and more knee laxity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A football player experiences a twisting injury to the knee that causes immediate, severe pain and the inability to bear weight. Which type of injury is most likely?

<p>Third-degree sprain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a knee injury, a patient has pain, mild edema, and no loss of joint function, although ambulation is slightly uncomfortable. How would this injury be classified?

<p>First-degree sprain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a third-degree strain of the hamstring muscle. What treatment approach is most likely?

<p>Surgical repair of the torn muscle or tendon (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind the recommendation to apply ice to a sprain?

<p>To reduce pain and inflammation through vasoconstriction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does compression help in the management of sprains and strains?

<p>By minimizing further swelling that can delay healing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for elevating an injured extremity in the treatment of sprains and strains?

<p>To promote venous return and minimize dependent swelling (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient recovering from a second-degree ankle sprain is prescribed exercise therapy. What is the primary focus of these exercises?

<p>To facilitate neuromuscular control and proprioception (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What potential long-term complication can arise from recurrent strains and sprains?

<p>Chronically unstable joints (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the initial step in bone healing?

<p>Hematoma formation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient has a Colles' fracture as a result of a fall. What underlying condition is most likely to have contributed to this fracture?

<p>Osteoporosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a fracture in which the bone is broken into multiple fragments. How would this type of fracture be described?

<p>Comminuted (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child falls from a tree and sustains a fracture in which one side of the bone is bent and the other is fractured. What type of fracture is this?

<p>Greenstick (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is a fracture in which bone fragments have pierced the skin classified?

<p>Open (compound) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of fracture management, what does closed reduction refer to?

<p>Nonsurgical manipulation and realignment of fractured bone segments (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary purpose of using casts or splints in the treatment of fractures?

<p>To provide rigid immobilization to maintain alignment of bone fragments (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the priority nursing action when compartment syndrome is suspected?

<p>Notifying the provider immediately to relieve pressure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it essential to manage pain effectively in patients with fractures?

<p>To facilitate participation in physical therapy and regain function (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for administering anticoagulants to patients with fractures?

<p>To reduce the risk of venous thromboemboli and pulmonary emboli (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What pulmonary complication is the nurse monitoring for when assessing a patient with fat embolism syndrome (FES)?

<p>Pleuritic chest pain and abnormal breath sounds (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of administering intravenous fluids to a patient diagnosed with rhabdomyolysis as a complication of a crush injury?

<p>To flush myoglobin through the kidneys and prevent renal failure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a symptom of rhabdomyolysis?

<p>Tea-colored urine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key risk following a traumatic amputation?

<p>Hemorrhage in traumatic amputations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What class of medication has demonstrated effectiveness in treating phantom limb pain?

<p>Antidepressants and anticonvulsants (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most sensitive and reliable physical finding indicative of a meniscal tear?

<p>Joint effusion combined with joint line tenderness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a suspected meniscal tear undergoes the McMurray's test. What finding would indicate a positive test for a meniscal injury?

<p>Audible or palpable 'click' with manipulation of the knee (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient population may benefit from a synovectomy during a carpal tunnel release?

<p>Patients with CTS exacerbated from rheumatoid arthritis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In assessing a patient who reports symptoms of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, which of the following would be the MOST important?

<p>Obtaining a detailed patient history (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with compartment syndrome requires a fasciotomy. What does this procedure involve?

<p>Incision into the fascia to relieve pressure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of connective tissue facilitates cellular adhesion and the movement of substances between capillaries and cells?

<p>Ground substance (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of osteophytes in the context of osteoarthritis?

<p>Repairing damaged cartilage by forming new bone and cartilage projections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does synovium contribute to joint function in a healthy joint?

<p>By producing fluid that lubricates the joint (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST common initial clinical manifestation in patients with osteoarthritis?

<p>Progressive pain that increases with joint use (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What radiographic finding is MOST indicative of osteoarthritis in the affected joints?

<p>Joint-space narrowing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is monitoring renal function particularly important when using NSAIDs to treat osteoarthritis?

<p>NSAIDS can lead to renal impairment by interfering with prostaglandins that maintain renal blood flow. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for using intra-articular hyaluronan injections in the treatment of osteoarthritis?

<p>To provide lubrication to the articular surfaces within the joint (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What instruction should the nurse provide to a patient taking analgesics and anti-inflammatories for osteoarthritis regarding medication use?

<p>Take medications only as prescribed to avoid potential side effects and dangers. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following activities is MOST directly linked to promoting joint mobility, muscle strength, cardiac health, and reducing stress in patients with osteoarthritis?

<p>Regular physical activity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does joint irrigation and débridement serve in the surgical management of osteoarthritis?

<p>Irrigating and expanding the joint to remove debris and reduce inflammation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary immunological process involved in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) that leads to damage of the synovial tissue?

<p>An autoimmune response where the body attacks the synovium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis reports increased joint pain, visible swelling, and prolonged morning stiffness. What finding would be MOST indicative of synovitis?

<p>Objective swelling detected with joint palpation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To effectively manage rheumatoid arthritis, which laboratory values are MOST important to monitor alongside clinical manifestations?

<p>Rheumatoid factor, CRP, and ESR (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with RA is prescribed methotrexate. What key information should the nurse emphasize regarding alcohol consumption?

<p>Alcohol must be avoided to prevent the risk of hepatotoxicity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for routinely monitoring liver enzymes in patients receiving methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Methotrexate has been known to cause liver damage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately reflects the action of glucocorticoids in managing rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Glucocorticoids reduce pain and inflammation but may not alter the disease process. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is early diagnosis and treatment with DMARDs crucial for patients with rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Early DMARD use halts inflammation and joint destruction, preventing disability. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of nonbiological DMARDs like methotrexate in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Altering the immune system to decrease inflammation and slow disease progression (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing intervention is MOST important for patients on anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive therapy for rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Monitoring for signs and symptoms of infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with RA has an elevated platelet count during a routine checkup. What is the MOST likely reason for this finding?

<p>Active disease with inflammation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes a 'diarthrosis' joint?

<p>Joints that permit a variety of movements. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a patient's posture, which anatomical landmarks should ideally align with a plumb line?

<p>Anterior ear, shoulder, hip, patella, and ankle. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a musculoskeletal assessment, what is the BEST method for assessing muscle strength?

<p>Having the patient resist force applied by the examiner. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it crucial to avoid using the thumb when assessing a patient's peripheral pulses?

<p>The thumb has its own pulse, which may be misleading. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory finding is MOST indicative of increased fracture risk due to reduced bone integrity or density?

<p>Low calcium levels. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When preparing a patient for a CT scan with IV contrast, which nursing action is MOST important regarding the patient's medication history?

<p>Verifying use of metformin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing intervention is MOST crucial when preparing a patient for an MRI to ensure patient safety and test accuracy?

<p>Ensuring the patient has removed all metal foreign objects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is preparing a patient for an arthrogram. Which action is MOST relevant to ensure patient safety and accurate examination results?

<p>Confirming the patient has not had an arthrogram in the previous 10 days on the affected joint. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for a bone mineral density study. Which statement indicates the patient requires further teaching prior to the procedure?

<p>I should avoid taking calcium supplements for 24 hours before the test. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What instruction is MOST important for the nurse to provide to a breastfeeding mother who needs to undergo a bone scan with radioactive tracers?

<p>The breast milk should be discarded for the next 48 hours. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In an electromyography (EMG) test, what is the expected finding when a muscle is at rest?

<p>No electrical activity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which preoperative instruction is MOST important for a patient scheduled for an arthroscopic examination?

<p>Discontinue medications like aspirin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best explains sarcopenia?

<p>A medical term often used to describe a decline in muscle mass and strength associated with aging. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale for advising older adults to exercise regularly to prevent falls?

<p>Regular exercise increases bone density, muscle strength, and balance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following age-related changes contributes MOST directly to an increased risk of fractures in older adults?

<p>Decreased bone mineral content. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes joint changes associated with aging?

<p>Joints become stiffer and less flexible because fluid often decreases in the joint spaces. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient has been diagnosed with Dowager's hump. What age-related condition most likely contributed to this condition?

<p>Osteoporosis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important consideration when reviewing medications as a fall prevention strategy for older adults?

<p>Identifying medications that may increase dizziness or drowsiness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of conducting annual eye examinations to prevent falls in older adults?

<p>To maximize vision and decrease the possibility of falls due to visual impairment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings in a patient presenting with joint pain would be MOST indicative of osteoarthritis rather than rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Pain that increases with joint use and improves with rest (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with osteoarthritis is prescribed acetaminophen for pain relief. What is the MOST important instruction for the nurse to provide regarding the use of this medication?

<p>Avoid alcohol consumption due to the risk of liver damage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following nonpharmacological interventions would be MOST appropriate to recommend to a patient with osteoarthritis to improve joint mobility and reduce stiffness?

<p>Range-of-motion exercises and muscle-strengthening exercises (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is starting methotrexate therapy. Which of the following instructions is MOST critical for the nurse to emphasize?

<p>Report any signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An older adult patient is being evaluated for falls. Which age-related musculoskeletal change is MOST likely to contribute to an increased risk of falls?

<p>Decreased joint cartilage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of connective tissue aids in cellular adhesion and facilitates substance movement between capillaries and cells?

<p>Ground substance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST accurate description of the role that obesity plays in the development of osteoarthritis?

<p>Obesity correlates most closely with the development of knee osteoarthritis; however, it has also been shown to correlate with the development of hand osteoarthritis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to monitor kidney function in osteoarthritis patients who are taking NSAIDs regularly?

<p>NSAIDs use carries an increased risk of renal complications and can exacerbate renal problems that are common in older patients. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA), what finding during joint palpation is the MOST indicative of synovitis?

<p>Objective evidence of edema and warmth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When initiating methotrexate for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, what education should be provided?

<p>Patients who are of childbearing age should use proper birth control methods because of the significant risk of teratogenicity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are a tuberculin skin test and hepatitis testing performed before initiating biological therapies for rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?

<p>Because some biological therapies have the potential to reactivate dormant infections. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying process that leads to the increased risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis?

<p>Deterioration of bone tissue and density. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor contributes to the higher incidence of osteoporosis and related fractures in small-framed women of European descent?

<p>Lower body weight. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do changes in parathyroid hormone levels contribute to the pathophysiology of osteoporosis?

<p>It increases osteoclastic activity and bone turnover, leading to bone loss. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is osteoporosis often referred to as a 'silent disease'?

<p>Patients are typically asymptomatic until a fracture occurs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind recommending weight-bearing exercises for individuals at risk of osteoporosis?

<p>To build and maintain strong bones. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) in diagnosing osteomyelitis?

<p>It serves as an indicator of inflammation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are radiographs (X-rays) not generally the first-line diagnostic tool for acute osteomyelitis?

<p>Bone deformities are not commonly noted until 2 to 3 weeks after the onset of osteomyelitis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of surgical debridement in the management of osteomyelitis?

<p>To remove infected and/or necrotic tissue and bone. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to provide nutritional support with a high-protein diet for patients with osteomyelitis?

<p>To support and aid in wound healing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of using a cemented approach in total joint arthroplasty (TJA), especially in older patients?

<p>To provide a stable fixation in patients with poor bone quality. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of monitoring temperature and white blood cell (WBC) count postoperatively in patients undergoing TJA?

<p>To detect and prevent possible wound site infection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST accurate definition of heterotrophic ossification (HO) as a complication of total hip arthroplasty (THA)?

<p>A disorder in which there is a formation of extraskeletal bone in the muscle or soft tissue that can limit the range of motion of a joint. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is vitamin D intake important for maintaining bone health and preventing osteoporosis?

<p>Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption in the gut, which is essential for bone mineralization. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of osteomyelitis, what does a 'positive periosteal elevation' indicate?

<p>Pus has formed under the periosteum, causing the bone to enlarge. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor primarily determines the choice of antibiotic for the treatment of osteomyelitis?

<p>Culture and sensitivity results of the infection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Bone Health and Osteoporosis Foundation (BHOF), approximately how many Americans are estimated to have osteoporosis or low bone density?

<p>64.2 million (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the estimated overall mortality rate within the first year after a hip fracture related to osteoporosis?

<p>20% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes how osteomyelitis spreads exogenously?

<p>Through direct inoculation from an open wound or surgery. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately reflects the pathophysiology of bone loss (osteopenia) in osteoporosis?

<p>Bone resorption exceeds bone rebuilding (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are X-rays not typically used for osteoporosis screening and assessment?

<p>The changes need to be greater than 25-40% bone demineralization. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which population is most commonly affected by acute hematogenous osteomyelitis?

<p>Children and those less than 1 year of age. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a patient diagnosed with osteomyelitis because of an unknown bacteria, and awaiting culture and sensitivity results, what is the recommended first step in antibiotic therapy?

<p>Initiate a broad-spectrum antibiotic intravenously. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory finding is considered conclusive data to confirm Osteomyelitis?

<p>Positive blood culture with a positive periosteal elevation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is surgical debridement a crucial component in the management of osteomyelitis?

<p>To remove infected and necrotic tissue, promoting healing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered a common clinical manifestation of acute osteomyelitis?

<p>Edema, fever, nausea, and chills (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of total joint arthroplasty (TJA), what is one of the MOST concerning immediate postoperative complications?

<p>Hypovolemia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A surgeon may order prophylactic antibiotics for a patient with a total joint replacement until which of the following occurs?

<p>The surgical drain has been removed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a cemented approach to joint replacement typically favored for older adults?

<p>It provides more stable fixation for those with poor bone quality. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism behind heterotrophic ossification (HO) as a complication of total hip arthroplasty (THA)?

<p>The formation of bone within muscle or soft tissue that limits joint movement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What statement is true regarding Total Joint Arthroplasty(TJA)?

<p>Neurological functions in the affected extremity can be performed if functioning prior to surgery. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best explains why PPIs are considered more effective than H2RAs in reducing gastric acid secretion?

<p>PPIs block the final step in gastric acid production, inhibiting acid pumps directly. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking a PPI for an extended period is advised to monitor for bone fractures. Which of the following mechanisms explains this potential side effect?

<p>PPIs reduce acid-mediated calcium and magnesium absorption, potentially leading to bone weakening. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to time the administration of sucralfate (Carafate) in relation to antacids?

<p>Sucralfate requires an acidic environment to bind to the ulcer site effectively, and antacids can interfere. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of GERD is prescribed metoclopramide (Reglan). What is the primary mechanism by which this medication helps to manage GERD symptoms?

<p>Enhancing gastric emptying and increasing lower esophageal sphincter pressure. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a triple therapy regimen for H. pylori eradication. Which of the following medication combinations is most likely to be included in this regimen?

<p>PPI, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin or metronidazole (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking cimetidine chronically needs monitoring for potential drug interactions. Which of the following drugs has a known interaction with cimetidine?

<p>Theophylline (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When initiating therapy with misoprostol (Cytotec) for a patient taking NSAIDs, what key monitoring parameter should the nurse prioritize?

<p>Epigastric or abdominal pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a PPI for long-term GERD management. What potential long-term adverse effect should the nurse educate the patient about?

<p>Increased risk of hip fractures (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with GERD is prescribed ranitidine. What is the MOST important education to provide to this patient?

<p>Monitor for symptoms of diarrhea, nausea, and constipation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An older adult patient is prescribed calcium carbonate (TUMS) for GERD. Given the patient's age, what is the most important nursing consideration related to this medication?

<p>Monitoring serum calcium levels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications requires monitoring of kidney and liver function serum levels?

<p>Cimetidine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following instructions should be provided to a patient prescribed sucralfate (Carafate) for peptic ulcer disease?

<p>This medication should be taken on an empty stomach. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI). What is the MOST significant difference between PPIs and H2-receptor antagonists (H2RAs) regarding their mechanism of action?

<p>PPIs reduce the last step in gastric acid secretion, while H2RAs block histamine-2 at one of the first steps of acid production. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a medication to increase gastric emptying for GERD. Which of the following medications is MOST likely prescribed?

<p>Metoclopramide (Reglan) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed misoprostol (Cytotec) while taking NSAIDs. What is the primary reason for prescribing misoprostol in this case?

<p>To reduce gastric acid secretion and prevent ulcers caused by NSAIDs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a triple therapy regimen for H. pylori eradication. Which of the following instructions is MOST important for the nurse to emphasize?

<p>Continue the medication even if symptoms improve to ensure complete eradication. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with GERD is prescribed ranitidine. Which of the following should the nurse include in patient teaching regarding this medication?

<p>Ranitidine may cause constipation, but diarrhea, and nausea should be reported to your health care provider. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has H. pylori and is allergic to penicillin. What is a likely first-line therapy?

Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking omeprazole reports persistent heartburn despite taking the medication daily for the past four weeks. What is the MOST appropriate action?

<p>Contact the provider to discuss alternative or additional treatment options. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on long-term omeprazole therapy is advised to have their serum magnesium levels checked regularly. What condition is the provider MOST concerned about?

<p>Hypomagnesemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed both sucralfate and an antacid for peptic ulcer disease. Which instruction regarding the timing of these medications is MOST accurate?

<p>Take the antacid 30 minutes before sucralfate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following BEST describes the rationale for utilizing a combination of antibiotics, such as clarithromycin and amoxicillin, along with a PPI when treating H. pylori infections?

<p>The PPI increases gastric pH, creating an environment where antibiotics are more effective. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cimetidine is prescribed to a patient with heartburn. The patient also takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. What concern is MOST relevant with this drug combination?

<p>Cimetidine increases the risk of warfarin toxicity by interfering with its metabolism. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A female patient is prescribed misoprostol while taking high doses of NSAIDs for arthritis. Which information is MOST crucial to review with the patient?

<p>Misoprostol is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its abortifacient properties. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with GERD is prescribed metoclopramide (Reglan). Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

<p>Extrapyramidal symptoms (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of GERD has been taking ranitidine for several years but reports that it is no longer effectively controlling symptoms. What alternative medication class might be considered?

<p>Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is TRUE regarding antacids?

<p>Antacids may cause diarrhea. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being evaluated for GERD. What diagnostic test will test gastric emptying?

<p>Gastric emptying study (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In osteoarthritis, how does the synovial membrane contribute to the pathophysiology of the disease?

<p>It thickens, restricting joint movement. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor that can significantly impact the progression of osteoarthritis?

<p>Obesity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with osteoarthritis reports experiencing crepitus in the knee. What physiological change is most directly associated with this symptom?

<p>Cartilage degradation in the joint (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with osteoarthritis is advised to undergo laboratory testing for diagnostic purposes. What is the purpose of ordering laboratory tests in this case?

<p>To rule out other causes of joint pain, such as rheumatoid arthritis or gout. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention should a nurse prioritize when caring for a patient with osteoarthritis experiencing chronic pain?

<p>Teaching nonpharmacological pain management techniques (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with osteoarthritis is prescribed acetaminophen. What information should the nurse emphasize when teaching the patient about this medication?

<p>Avoid exceeding the maximum daily dose to prevent liver damage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following nonpharmacological interventions would be most suitable for a patient with osteoarthritis to improve joint mobility and reduce stiffness?

<p>Regular, low-impact exercises like swimming or walking (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with osteoarthritis is scheduled for arthroscopic irrigation and débridement. What should the nurse explain as the primary goal of this procedure?

<p>To remove loose cartilage and debris from the joint. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing assessment finding would be most indicative of osteoarthritis rather than rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Pain that worsens with activity and improves with rest (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient newly diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) asks the nurse about the underlying cause of the disease. Which explanation is most accurate?

<p>It involves an autoimmune response that attacks the joint lining. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) in the management of rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Reduce inflammation and slow disease progression. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a significant risk factor for the development of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?

<p>Cigarette smoking (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis reports experiencing morning stiffness that lasts for several hours each day. How does this manifestation correlate with the pathophysiology of RA?

<p>Inflammation and edema in the synovial lining of the joints (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following laboratory findings is most indicative of active inflammation in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis develops swan-neck deformities in the fingers. What pathological process contributes most directly to this deformity?

<p>Weakening of tendons and ligaments (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of exercise is most beneficial for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis to maintain joint function and overall well-being?

<p>Range-of-motion and low-impact exercises (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Early diagnosis and treatment with DMARDs is crucial for patients with rheumatoid arthritis. What is the primary rationale behind this approach?

<p>To minimize irreversible joint damage and long-term disability. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A rheumatoid arthritis patient on anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive therapy should be taught about what nursing intervention?

<p>Avoiding crowds and reporting signs of infection promptly. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of Shannon Logan, a 32-year-old with complaints of multiple joint pain and swelling, fatigue, and morning stiffness, what is the most likely underlying condition?

<p>Rheumatoid Arthritis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory findings are MOST consistent with an initial diagnosis of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) in Ms. Logan?

<p>Elevated Rheumatoid factor, ESR, and CRP (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is the rheumatologist most likely to begin to use to try and decrease the disease progression for Ms. Logan?

<p>Methotrexate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a nursing assessment of Ms. Logan, what key lifestyle factor should the nurse prioritize related to planning her treatment?

<p>Fatigue towards the end of the workday (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of Ms. Logan, which nursing intervention would be most important when administering methotrexate?

<p>Monitoring her liver enzyme levels and kidney functions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ms. Logan has begun treatment for Rheumatoid Arthritis, the nurse should include which lifestyle modifications in her plan of care?

<p>Range-of-motion exercises (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding diagnostic criteria, what clinical manifestation differentiates Rheumatoid Arthritis from Osteoarthritis?

<p>Morning Stiffness (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A medication used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis is DMARDs, what does DMARD stand for?

<p>Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA), increased synovial fluid in the joints often leads to what subsequent symptoms?

<p>Impaired movement and pain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal of surgical management for patients with osteoarthritis?

<p>Decrease motion restriction and pain. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Rheumatoid Arthritis, what are the four primary clinical manifestations?

<p>Irreversible joint damage &amp; Disability, Joint pain &amp; Swelling, Morning Stiffness, Fatigue. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessment finding is most important for the nurse to focus on when a patient has rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Joint pain and mobility (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a nurse administers DMARD therapy to a patient, what teaching intervention should be included?

<p>Keep current with vaccinations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Before administering analgesics and anti-inflammatories for Rheumatoid Arthritis, the nurse should?

<p>Check that the medications are prescribed, (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient with Arthritis had a nursing diagnosis of self-care-deficit, what assessment finding is most likely?

<p>Unsteady Gait (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main goal when evaluating care outcomes surrounding Rheumatoid Arthritis?

<p>Have no adverse effects from pharmacological therapy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true regarding Rheumatic Arthritis?

<p>Females are more likely to have RA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are patients encouraged to participate in regular physical activity who are diagnosed with osteoarthritis?

<p>To report chest pain and abdominal pain. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of Rheumatoid Arthritis, is most likely affected by:

<p>Cartilage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Symptoms of Osteoarthritis include which of the following:

<p>Tenderness to touch. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pathophysiological process is most directly associated with the progression of osteoarthritis?

<p>Progressive loss of cartilage resulting in unprotected bone. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 60-year-old female presents with joint pain. Considering the risk factors of osteoarthritis, which factor from the patient's history would MOST significantly contribute to her risk?

<p>History of a sedentary lifestyle and obesity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with osteoarthritis reports increased pain and stiffness in the knees, especially in the morning. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate to suggest?

<p>Perform gentle range-of-motion exercises after a warm shower. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale for using radiographs (X-rays) in the diagnosis of osteoarthritis?

<p>To visualize cartilage damage and narrowing of joint space. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is teaching a patient with rheumatoid arthritis about managing fatigue. Which strategy is MOST likely to be beneficial?

<p>Planning regular rest periods and pacing activities. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ms. Logan, a 32-year-old with RA, has been started on methotrexate. Which statement indicates effective teaching about managing this medication?

<p>&quot;I should avoid becoming pregnant while taking this medication and use reliable contraception.&quot; (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After starting Ms. Logan on methotrexate, the nurse should prioritize monitoring for:

<p>Signs of liver damage, such as elevated liver enzymes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of red bone marrow within the skeletal system?

<p>Production of blood cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following hormones directly contributes to the regulation of calcium levels in the blood and bone remodeling?

<p>Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being assessed for musculoskeletal function. If the patient has a limited range of motion in the knee, which instrument would be MOST appropriate to quantify the joint's mobility?

<p>Goniometer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When documenting a patient's posture, what key anatomical landmarks should be considered to assess alignment?

<p>Alignment of the ears, shoulders, hips, and knees (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a musculoskeletal injury, a patient reports altered sensation in the affected limb. What underlying physiological process is MOST likely responsible for this symptom?

<p>Compression or damage to nerves (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a musculoskeletal assessment, diminished or absent pulses in an injured extremity suggest which of the following complications?

<p>Arterial insufficiency or compression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What age-related change in the musculoskeletal system contributes to decreased range of motion?

<p>Decreased elasticity of ligaments and tendons (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following imaging techniques provides the MOST detailed visualization of soft tissues, such as ligaments and tendons, in a musculoskeletal injury?

<p>Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for an arthrogram. What information regarding allergies is MOST critical for the nurse to obtain prior to the procedure?

<p>Allergies to shellfish or iodine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information is most important for the nurse to convey to the patient after an arthroscopic examination?

<p>Monitor for signs of infection or excessive bleeding at the incision sites. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the role of fascia within the musculoskeletal system, how does its decreased water content in older adults affect mobility?

<p>Restricted joint movement and flexibility (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What age-related change increases the risk of falls in older adults?

<p>Sarcopenia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What activity is MOST effective in preventing falls in older adults by improving strength, balance, and coordination?

<p>Regular exercise (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The physician orders lab work to test for Vitamin D, what function(s) is the physician trying to evaluate?

<p>Both A and B (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a physician is performing a joint mobility assessment, what would the physician be assessing?

<p>Range of motion only (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient comes in with a musculoskeletal injury, what question should the nurse ask during the past medical and present illness history assessment?

<p>How has the injury affected responses of treatment? (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When addressing age-related changes in older adults it is important for the nurse to educate on..

<p>Maintaining bone density, posture, and gait (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A male patient in his 30s presents to the clinic reporting pain and stiffness in his spinal column. Which follow-up question by the nurse will elicit the MOST useful information?

<p>&quot;How would you describe the pain, and when did it begin?&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is MOST important question to start with when assessing musculoskeletal systems of adults?

<p>Do you have any musculoskeletal stiffness, pain, or discomfort? (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of joint provides no movement?

<p>Nonsynovial (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The orthopedic surgeon requests a bone scan, what are they trying to evaluate?

<p>Tumors, progressive and regressive bone diseases; and obscure fractures (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the musculoskeletal system allow for movement of the body?

<p>The bone structures providing leverage and the muscles providing force (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of an arthrocentesis?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports new onset of pain in her left knee. What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing assessment?

<p>Ask the patient to rate the pain on a scale of 0 to 10. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse evaluates lab results of a patient complaining of joint pain and suspects it may be musculoskeletal related. Which result would the nurse question and inform the provider?

<p>Decreased joint mobility (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient is suspected of sarcopenia, what assessment finding goes with this diagnosis?

<p>Deceased muscle turgor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of palpating pulses when assessing the musculoskeletal system?

<p>Assess circulation to the extremities (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the musculoskeletal system contribute to the protection of vital organs?

<p>Bones acting as a barrier to external forces (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being assessed for musculoskeletal function. What is the MOST important reason to assess the patient's gait?

<p>To identify movement or range of motion dysfunction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a critical nursing consideration for patients completing diagnostic studies?

<p>Give clear instructions for the testing and report the current prescriptions or health disorders. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does sarcopenia primarily impact musculoskeletal function in older adults?

<p>It contributes to decreased mobility and increased risk of falls (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement from the patient requires immediate education regarding their musculoskeletal health?

<p>&quot;I sit for longer periods&quot; (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient has a flexion injury and the muscles are shortened, what will the physician ask the patient to do to evaluate the muscle?

<p>Extend (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of connective tissue connects muscle to bone?

<p>Tendons (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What component of the musculoskeletal system facilitates joint movement by providing a smooth, gliding surface where bones articulate?

<p>Cartilage (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The physician is inspecting the patient's feet. To ensure they are evaluating the muscles of the ankle and foot, what movement will the physician ask the patient to do?

<p>Inversion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of ligaments in the musculoskeletal system?

<p>Provide stability and support to joints (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the physical assessment of the musculoskeletal system, what does the nurse specifically evaluate when assessing joint mobility?

<p>Range of motion and joint stability (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While assessing a patient's medical history, which past medical condition is MOST likely to affect the musculoskeletal system?

<p>Hypothyroidism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering hormonal influences on bone density, which laboratory test would be MOST important to monitor in a postmenopausal woman?

<p>Estrogen levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following pathophysiological changes is MOST directly associated with bone loss in osteoporosis?

<p>Accelerated bone resorption exceeding bone formation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A primary healthcare provider is assessing an elderly patient at risk of developing osteoporosis. Which of the following is classified as a primary risk factor?

<p>Age-related decline in estrogen and testosterone. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing bone density testing using quantitative computed tomography (QCT) asks about the benefits of this method. Which of the following is an advantage of QCT over standard bone densitometry?

<p>Ability to assess trabecular and cortical bone separately. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale for recommending weight reduction as a lifestyle intervention for a patient diagnosed with osteoporosis?

<p>Excess weight increases stress on bones and joints, increasing fracture risk. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a patient with suspected osteomyelitis, which clinical manifestation should prompt the nurse to suspect a more advanced or complicated infection?

<p>Pain not relieved by rest and is accompanied by systemic fever and chills. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diagnostic findings is MOST indicative of osteomyelitis, requiring prompt intervention?

<p>Confirmation via bone biopsy and culture. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for utilizing thermal therapy as an intervention for patients with osteomyelitis?

<p>Thermal therapy increases circulation which aids in repair. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic osteomyelitis is being discharged with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line for long-term antibiotic administration. Which teaching point is most important?

<p>Report any signs of redness, swelling, or drainage at the insertion site. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary indication for total joint arthroplasty (TJA)?

<p>Advanced joint destruction primarily affecting weight-bearing activity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging modality is MOST useful in assessing and diagnosing a patient who is a candidate for total joint arthroplasty (TJA)?

<p>X-ray. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a total hip arthroplasty, a patient experiences hypotension, hypovolemia, and persistent bleeding. Which immediate postoperative complication does this presentation MOST strongly suggest?

<p>Significant blood loss. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing intervention is most important to implement as part of the turning schedule and proper positioning for a patient after joint replacement?

<p>Maintain proper alignment of the affected joint. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient being evaluated for musculoskeletal problems reports experiencing increased difficulty walking and has noticed a progressive rounding of the upper back. These signs suggest which condition?

<p>Kyphosis associated with osteoporosis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To evaluate musculoskeletal symptoms from a 55 year old female, which of the following actions is MOST important for the nurse to focus on?

<p>Assessing the patient's medications. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The healthcare provider has prescribed Ms. Doherty begin bisphosphonate therapy with ibandronate (Boniva) by mouth. How often is Boniva typically taken?

<p>Monthly. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for healthcare providers recommending that a osteoporosis patient takes calcium and vitamin D?

<p>Promote bone density. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In osteomyelitis, what accurately describes the pathophysiology of osteomyelitis?

<p>Invasion of bone tissue by a bacterial pathogen. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a MAJOR postoperative complication for a surgery like a total joint replacement?

<p>Blood loss. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a surgeon ordering prophylactic antibiotics for a patient with a total joint replacement until specific criteria are met?

<p>Drainage ceases. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse teaches Ms. Doherty that she may need to remove throw rugs in the house to reduce the risk of falls. Why is that an important intervention?

<p>Ms. Doherty may trip on them. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following joint replacement surgery, the nurse provides antiembolic stockings. What is the main purpose of antiembolic stockings?

<p>Promote venous return. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of bone resorption in the development of osteoporosis?

<p>Bone resorption breaks down bone. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the incidence of osteomyelitis associated with diabetes and foot puncture woulds?

<p>30% to 40%. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of osteoblasts in the development of Osteoperosis?

<p>Synthesize new bone matrix. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST accurate risk related to osteomyelitis?

<p>Sepsis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What instruction should the nurse provide to Ms. Doherty on calcium and vitamin D supplementation?

<p>Vitamin D aids in absorption of calcium. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY intervention for osteomylitis besides antibiotic therapy?

<p>Surgery. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When teaching a patient about osteoporosis, what intervention should the nurse include?

<p>Low-impact weight-bearing exercises. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Before a total knee arthroplasty, what information should the nurse seek from the patient?

<p>Medication history. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly is admitted to the hospital for management of osteomyelitis. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

<p>Elevating the extremity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is included in the plan of care for a patient being discharged after a total hip arthroplasty?

<p>Swimming in shallow water. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient presents to the hospital for severe fever following a puncture wound, what information should the nurse collect?

<p>Allergies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between clinical interventions based on lab data, weight baring, and bone mass in a patient with osteoporosis?

<p>Medication compliance improves bone mass, with the goal of minimizing fracture risk and improving lab values. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can an interprofessional team coordinate a treatment plan for Osteomyelitis, specifically antibiotics?

<p>Antibiotics can be adjusted in real time according to patient's lab and assessment, to minimize antibiotic resistance. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic result is MOST definitive in order to evaluate the presence of osteoporosis?

<p>Bone Density test. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What interprofessional care can be applied to a patient with osteomylitis?

<p>Physical Therapist will create safe movement regime for improved joint. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a high priority nursing intervention for a post operative patient one day out of total knee arthroplasty surgery?

<p>Encouraging range of motion exercises. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical finding provides the strongest indication that additional diagnostic testing and interventions are warranted for Ms. Doherty?

<p>An increase in level of pain when walking the floor. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If left unmanaged, what is a possible long term concern for Ms. Doherty's osteoporosis?

<p>Fractures are a high risk that can lead to hospitalization and affect lifestyle. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides weight support, what is osteoporosis's effect on bone tissue in the body?

<p>Decreased ability for bone matrix to regrow. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it essential for the nurse to assess for body image disturbance in patients with osteoporosis?

<p>To address potential psychological impacts related to postural changes and height loss. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention would be most appropriate for a patient with osteomyelitis who reports constant, unrelieved bone pain?

<p>Initiate around-the-clock intravenous antibiotic administration as prescribed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale for teaching patients with osteomyelitis about the importance of nutrition?

<p>To enhance the immune system and promote wound healing during treatment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is early mobilization considered a priority intervention following total joint arthroplasty (TJA)?

<p>To reduce the risk of thromboembolic complications and promote joint function. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops hypotension, bleeding, and hypovolemia following a TJA. What complication do these symptoms collectively suggest?

<p>Hemorrhage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessment finding should the nurse prioritize in a patient who has undergone a total hip arthroplasty?

<p>Neuromuscular integrity of the affected leg. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What teaching point would be most critical to emphasize to a patient starting oral bisphosphonates for osteoporosis?

<p>Drink a full glass of water and remain upright for 30-60 minutes after taking the medication. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with osteomyelitis suddenly develops altered mental status. What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing action?

<p>Assess vital signs and oxygen saturation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal for administering antiembolic stockings such as sequential compression devices (SCDs) after total joint replacement surgery?

<p>Prevent the formation of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of rehabilitation exercises initiated postoperatively following joint replacement surgery?

<p>To prevent muscle atrophy and promote circulation as well as facilitate joint mobility. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common mechanism by which a medial meniscus tear occurs?

<p>Excessive twisting or rotational force. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of carpal tunnel syndrome?

<p>Compression of the median nerve due to inflammation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following an amputation, why is a multidisciplinary approach, including psychological support, crucial for patient care?

<p>To address body image issues and promote effective coping. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient presents with a fracture after a minor fall. What assessment finding would most strongly suggest that the fracture is related to osteoporosis?

<p>History of long-term corticosteroid use. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing intervention is essential when caring for a patient with an external fixator to prevent infection?

<p>Using a strict sterile technique during pin care. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient education point is most important to emphasize to a patient being discharged after an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a fracture?

<p>Adhere to prescribed pain management and physical therapy schedules. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which strategy is most effective in preventing knee joint contractures following an above-the-knee amputation?

<p>Encouraging active range of motion exercises and prone positioning. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of applying a compression dressing to a residual limb following an amputation?

<p>To reduce edema and shape the residual limb for prosthetic fitting. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a patient with carpal tunnel syndrome. Which intervention is most likely to alleviate the patient's symptoms?

<p>Instructing the patient to wear a wrist splint at night. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a lower extremity fracture is at risk for fat embolism syndrome (FES). Which of the following findings would differentiate FES from a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

<p>Presence of petechiae on the chest and axillae. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young athlete is diagnosed with a second-degree ankle sprain. What nursing education should be provided regarding weight-bearing?

<p>Progress to partial weight-bearing as tolerated with support. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a patient with a confirmed meniscus tear, what is a primary focus in the immediate postoperative period following arthroscopic repair?

<p>Pain management and neurovascular assessment of the extremity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An industrial worker reports numbness and tingling in the hands bilaterally, particularly at night. What diagnostic test would the nurse anticipate to confirm carpal tunnel syndrome?

<p>Electromyography (EMG) and nerve conduction studies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What potential complication is most closely associated with injuries causing disruption of the blood supply in the pelvis?

<p>Hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following nursing assessments is most critical in the first 24 hours after a patient undergoes an amputation?

<p>Monitoring vital signs and assessing for signs of hemorrhage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with traumatic rhabdomyolysis. What goal is the highest priority when administering intravenous fluids?

<p>Preventing acute kidney injury. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When planning the care for a patient with a fracture, which intervention is most effective in minimizing the risk of venous thromboembolism?

<p>Applying sequential compression devices. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who had a recent knee arthroscopy for a meniscal tear is ready for discharge. What statement indicates a good understanding of discharge instructions?

<p>&quot;I should apply ice packs to my knee to reduce swelling and pain.&quot; (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important nursing intervention to include in the plan of care for a patient with an amputation related to trauma, to promote wound healing?

<p>Maintaining a sterile dressing change technique. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with acute pain, pallor, and pulselessness in the affected extremity. What condition is most closely associated with these symptoms?

<p>Compartment syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following assessment findings would be most indicative of a complication following application of a cast for a fractured extremity?

<p>Increasing pain unrelieved by analgesics and numbness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises in patients with musculoskeletal injuries?

<p>To prevent pneumonia and atelectasis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following instructions would the nurse provide to a patient being discharged after surgical repair of a meniscus tear?

<p>Follow the prescribed physical therapy regimen. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being treated for carpal tunnel syndrome with wrist splinting. What sign indicates that the splinting is effective?

<p>Reduced pain and improved sensation in the hand. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing intervention is most important when caring for a patient in skeletal traction?

<p>Ensure proper body alignment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A key nursing responsibility for a patient with an amputation includes:

<p>Wrapping the residual limb to promote shaping and reduce swelling. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a complete, displaced fracture of the radius and ulna. What nursing intervention would be performed?

<p>Prepare the patient for an open reduction internal fixation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient arrives in the ER, displaying signs of a fracture, what is the priority assessment?

<p>Neuromuscular status. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a musculoskeletal injury is being discharged with a prescription for opioid pain medication. What instruction is most important?

<p>Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking the medication. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary nursing intervention to assist the patient, after a traumatic amputation, to assist with psychosocial adaptation?

<p>Provide opportunities for the patient to express feelings and concerns. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing action is essential to provide when providing pin care to a patient with an external fixator?

<p>Ensuring to use a new swab for each pin site separate from others. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What statement accurately describes the epidemiology of fractures?

<p>Fractures occur in young people are normally caused by high-energy trauma. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessment would indicate to the nurse that the patient has compartment syndrome?

<p>Increasing pain that is unrelieved by opioid administration. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a fracture, the patient is started on medication, what information about the patients lifestyle should be asked?

<p>Any history of GERD? (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complication can fractures result in?

<p>Hypovolemia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After an amputation, what should be monitored?

<p>Wound/Incision site. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an ultrasound when splinting at night with signs and symptoms of carpal tunnel, what action is most needed?

<p>Exercise/ROM therapy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What statement describes rotator cuff injuries?

<p>Injury is to four muscles of the shoulder that stabilize the humeral head within the glenoid fossa. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a patient that may have a meniscus tear, what assessment would be performed?

<p>Steinman's test. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is presenting with muscle atrophy, what should you perform?

<p>Assess patient work or activity history. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is providing care to a patient with complaints of pain often presenting as a popping or clicking. What actions are needed during the nursing management?

<p>Nursing diagnosis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage range do musculoskeletal traumas account for of all unintentional injuries reported in the US?

<p>60% to 77% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most likely reason an adolescent between the ages of 12 and 21 would experience a fracture?

<p>High-energy trauma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which potential fracture complication involves the disruption of blood supply to the affected bone, leading to tissue death?

<p>Avascular necrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Surgical intervention is likely indicated for what fracture-related circumstance?

<p>Compound fracture (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a lower extremity fracture reports increased pain despite opioid administration, along with increasing swelling and numbness. What condition is most likely?

<p>Compartment syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most immediate risk following a traumatic amputation?

<p>Hemorrhage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should a pillow be avoided under the residual limb in the immediate postoperative period following a lower extremity amputation?

<p>To prevent hip flexion contracture (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing intervention is most important to include in the care plan for a patient with a new lower extremity amputation?

<p>Wrapping the residual limb with a compression dressing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which movement of the knee is most likely to cause a medial meniscal tear?

<p>Excessive twisting or rotational force (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following assessment findings would be most indicative of a meniscus injury during a physical examination?

<p>Joint line tenderness (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in the conservative management of meniscus injuries?

<p>To reduce pain and inflammation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports experiencing a sharp pain in their wrist that radiates up their arm when performing repetitive hand movements. What condition is most likely indicated?

<p>Carpal tunnel syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What pathological process primarily contributes to the development of carpal tunnel syndrome?

<p>Compression of the median nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the acute phase of a strain or sprain, what nursing intervention is most appropriate to apply?

<p>Ice compress (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best position for a patient with a sprain or strain?

<p>Elevated (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a fracture, what assessment finding should a nurse immediately report?

<p>Constant pain unrelieved by medication (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

3 million fractures occur annually in the US. Fractures in people 65 years of age or older are usually caused by what?

<p>Low-energy trauma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In addition to pain and physical deformity; swelling and ________ are to be expected when a patient obtains an injury such as a fracture.

<p>Ecchymosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one action, out of a variety of nursing interventions, a nurse would do for a patient with a bone fracture?

<p>Administer meds as ordered (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common compression neuropathy of the hands?

<p>Carpal tunnel Syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The lateral meniscus tears with sliding and/or what type of force?

<p>Subluxation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While range of motion exercises are important, what other nursing intervention is important for a patient with bone fractures?

<p>Providing hydration and nutrition (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the nursing interventions for an amputation, why would you contact an occupational therapist?

<p>To help the patient perform self-care (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessment is important for patients with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

<p>Patient work or activity history (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an appropriate action a nurse can take for a patient diagnosed with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

<p>Splinting at night or with symptoms (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the interventions for amputations, what should the nurse remember about applying ice?

<p>Apply ice for no longer than 15-20 minutes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a cause of fractures for young people ages 12-21?

<p>High-energy trauma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main difference between an open and closed fracture?

<p>If the bone is protruding through the skin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How would a nurse evaluate activity intolerance in a patient with a femur fracture?

<p>Monitor skin integrity after activity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can a nurse do to prevent respiratory problems related to bone fractures?

<p>Maintain pulmonary hygiene (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which meniscus tears with excessive twisting or rotational force?

<p>Medial (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an action the nurse initiates for a patient with a meniscus injury?

<p>Apply ice or cold compress (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is experiencing pain, decreased grip strength and muscle atrophy in their hand. What is their diagnosis?

<p>Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What part of the body is removed during an amputation?

<p>Body (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the 2 categories of amputations?

<p>Traumatic vs Elective (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What teaching is important for the nurse to initiate for a patient undergoing an amputation?

<p>Report signs and symptoms of infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which primary function is associated with the gastrointestinal system?

<p>Absorption of nutrients from digested food. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following anatomical structures is primarily where digestion begins?

<p>Mouth (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key function of the esophagus in the digestive system?

<p>Transporting food from the mouth to the stomach. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the primary role of the stomach in digestion?

<p>Storing and churning food, mixing it with gastric secretions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the main functions of the liver related to digestion?

<p>Synthesizing and secreting bile for fat emulsification. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What substances does the gallbladder primarily store and concentrate?

<p>Bile (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main digestive function of the pancreas?

<p>Producing and secreting enzymes for digestion of fats, proteins and carbohydrates. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process primarily takes place in the small intestine?

<p>Nutrient absorption (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What main role does the large intestine play in digestion?

<p>Absorbing water and electrolytes, forming and storing feces (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What components constitute a comprehensive assessment of gastrointestinal function?

<p>Interview, history, and nutritional assessment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool (MUST) incorporates what key parameters to assess nutritional risk?

<p>BMI, unplanned weight loss, and acute disease effect. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing a physical examination focusing on gastrointestinal function, what is the primary sequence of techniques used?

<p>Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the inspection phase of a gastrointestinal assessment, what specific aspects of the oral mucosa are crucial to examine?

<p>Color, moisture, and presence of lesions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by tympany during percussion of the abdomen?

<p>Air-filled structures, such as intestines (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During abdominal palpation, what is the primary purpose of assessing abdominal tone?

<p>Evaluating muscular resistance and involuntary contractions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely finding during palpation in a patient with splenomegaly?

<p>An enlarged spleen palpable below the left costal margin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In gastrointestinal diagnostics, what is the primary purpose of stool studies?

<p>Detecting the presence of pathogens, blood, or other abnormalities in the stool. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of diagnostic is ultrasonography?

<p>An imaging study (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of barium studies in the assessment of gastrointestinal function?

<p>To enhance visualization of the gastrointestinal tract using X-rays (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information from Ms. Mackey's case is MOST concerning and warrants immediate follow-up by the registered nurse?

<p>Hypoactive bowel sounds present in all four quadrants. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What subjective and objective data support the order for fecal occult blood testing in Ms. Mackey's case?

<p>Reports blood on toilet paper, difficulty with bowel movements. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a positive fecal occult blood test, what is the rationale for the healthcare provider ordering a colonoscopy for Ms. Mackey?

<p>To visualize the colon and detect any abnormalities such as polyps or tumors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on Ms. Mackey's current medication regimen (lisinopril, atorvastatin, furosemide) and her reports of lightheadedness and reduced fluid intake, what electrolyte imbalance would the nurse be MOST vigilant in monitoring?

<p>Hyponatremia and hypokalemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What dietary modification is MOST directly indicated by Ms. Mackey's history of adjusting to new dentures and reporting difficulty chewing?

<p>Suggest a soft food diet to ease chewing difficulties. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given Ms. Mackey's history and physical examination, which factor MOST likely contributed to the finding of 'dullness noted in left lower quadrant on percussion'?

<p>Sigmoid colon is full of stool (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would be the reasoning for Ms. Mackey's doctor to refer her for nutrition management and treatment for hemorrhoids, based on the case study?

<p>To implement dietary changes that regulate her gastrointestinal function. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ms. Mackey's diagnostic tests revealed a Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 9 g/dL and Hematocrit (HCT) of 27%. What is the MOST concerning aspect of these findings?

<p>Anemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ms. Mackey had a colonoscopy revealing several polyps. Which patient statement indicates an understanding of having polyps?

<p>&quot;I will need to wait for the biopsy results.&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ms. Mackey reports that she usually drinks prune juice for constipation, but it is not working at this point. What should the nurse suggest to Ms. Mackey to better help relieve her constipation?

<p>Combine prune juice with increased dietary fiber and adequate fluid intake. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ms. Mackey reports feeling light-headed when moving from sitting to standing, along with taking furosemide. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

<p>Check Ms. Mackey's blood pressure in both sitting and standing positions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following Ms. Mackey's colonoscopy, the nurse finds that there are several hemorrhoids. What should the nurse include when educating Ms. Mackey?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ms. Mackey returns to the unit after a colonoscopy procedure. The nurse will prioritize the interventions in which order?

<p>Focused physical assessment, vital signs, discontinue IV fluids, and start diet (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage range of the population in Western countries is estimated to have Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)?

<p>10% to 25% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pathophysiological factor directly contributes to the development of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)?

<p>Retrograde flow of gastrointestinal contents into the esophagus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a less common clinical manifestation of GERD?

<p>Increased appetite (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which lifestyle factor is known to increase the risk of developing GERD?

<p>Tobacco use (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected GERD is undergoing diagnostic testing. Which test involves monitoring esophageal pH over a 24-hour period?

<p>Twenty-four hour ambulatory esophageal pH monitoring (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which category of medications is commonly used in the management of GERD to reduce gastric acid production?

<p>Antacids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for a surgical procedure to correct GERD. Which surgical intervention involves wrapping the fundus of the stomach around the esophagus?

<p>Nissen fundoplication (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential complication of long-standing GERD involving changes in the esophageal lining?

<p>Barrett's epithelium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with GERD is experiencing respiratory symptoms. What nursing assessment is most relevant to this manifestation?

<p>Lung sounds (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is educating a patient with GERD on lifestyle modifications. Which of the following instructions is MOST appropriate?

<p>Limit consumption of irritating foods (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following interventions, what is a primary outcome to evaluate in the nursing management of a patient with GERD?

<p>Maintenance of quality of life and avoidance of complications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these signs and symptoms would the nurse correlate to a Type I hiatal hernia?

<p>Heartburn (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When teaching a patient about esophageal manometry, which statement by the nurse is most accurate?

<p>This test measures the pressure and action of the esophagus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a hiatal hernia and GERD asks which activity to avoid. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

<p>Sleeping with the HOB elevated 30 degrees (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When providing dietary education for a patient with GERD, which of the following should the nurse include?

<p>Maintain an ideal body weight and avoid spicy and fatty foods (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to epidemiological data, what age group accounts for the majority of hiatal hernia cases?

<p>Individuals aged 50 and older (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the pathophysiology of a hiatal hernia?

<p>A portion of the stomach protrudes upward through the esophageal hiatus. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Residing in which region is considered a risk factor for developing a hiatal hernia?

<p>Western countries (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which specific clinical manifestation is commonly associated with Type 2 hiatal hernias?

<p>Increased symptoms when lying flat (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic procedure involves using a contrast medium to visualize the esophagus and stomach?

<p>Barium swallow with fluoroscopy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of medications is prescribed to alleviate the symptoms of a hiatal hernia?

<p>Antacids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which surgical intervention is typically performed to correct a hiatal hernia?

<p>Hernia repair (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which potential complication is associated with hiatal hernias?

<p>Gastroesophageal reflux (GERD) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a Nissen fundoplication, what is the rationale for helping a patient to understand post operative education?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a nursing diagnosis that could affect a patient with a hiatal hernia?

<p>Impaired swallowing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing interventions are important for patients with a hiatal hernia?

<p>All of the above (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important action to implement for a patient with a hiatal hernia?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When teaching a patient with a hiatal hernia, what should the nurse empathize to reduce symptoms?

<p>All of the above (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is critical in evaluating care outcomes for a patient with a hiatal hernia?

<p>Free from pain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding is MOST indicative of a hiatal hernia?

<p>A portion of the stomach protrudes upward through the esophageal hiatus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is are MOST common clinical manifestations for GERD?

<p>Heartburn and Regurgitating acid (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is TRUE about the epidemiology of GERD?

<p>10 to 25% of Western population are diagnosed (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference in the pathophysiology of gastritis compared to gastroenteritis relating to fluid balance?

<p>Gastroenteritis involves increased luminal fluid, whereas gastritis primarily involves prolonged irritation of the stomach lining without fluid shifts. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with gastritis reports changes in the color of stool. Which of the following assessment findings would be most concerning and warrant immediate notification of the provider?

<p>Black, tarry stools accompanied by dizziness. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic test is most useful for confirming the presence of H. pylori in a patient with suspected gastritis?

<p>Urea breath testing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient admitted with acute gastritis is prescribed intravenous fluids. What assessment finding would indicate a therapeutic response to this intervention?

<p>Improved skin turgor and urine output. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient recovering from gastritis asks about dietary modifications to prevent recurrence. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?

<p>Avoid alcohol and caffeine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism behind the rapid onset of clinical manifestations in gastroenteritis?

<p>Increased luminal fluid that cannot be absorbed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When caring for a patient with suspected gastroenteritis, which assessment finding would be most indicative of severe dehydration?

<p>Poor skin turgor and dry mucous membranes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with gastroenteritis is diagnosed via stool culture with a bacterial infection. What treatment would the provider order?

<p>Rehydration via IV fluids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient recovering from gastroenteritis. Which instruction regarding food preparation is most important to emphasize?

<p>Thoroughly cook all meats and wash raw produce. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is assessing a patient recovering from gastroenteritis. Which outcome indicates effective management of fluid losses?

<p>Client reports less than 3 bowel movements per day. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pathophysiological process involved in peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

<p>Damage to the gastric mucosa due to corrosive action of gastric juice. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a peptic ulcer reports that the pain is triggered and worsened by eating. Where is ulcer most likely located?

<p>Stomach (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected PUD is undergoing an upper GI endoscopy. What is the primary purpose of this diagnostic procedure?

<p>To visualize the esophageal, gastric, and duodenal mucosal linings. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with PUD is prescribed antacids. What is the primary mechanism of action for antacids?

<p>Neutralizing gastric acid in the stomach. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with PUD develops a GI hemorrhage. Which assessment finding is most indicative of this complication?

<p>Tachycardia and hypotension. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being assessed for gastritis. Which factor in the patient's history is MOST likely associated with development of this condition?

<p>Chronic stress and overuse of NSAIDs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with acute gastritis is at risk for deficient fluid volume. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to include in the plan of care?

<p>Administer intravenous fluids as ordered. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient admitted with gastroenteritis is experiencing acute abdominal pain. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to provide comfort?

<p>Administering prescribed analgesics and promoting rest. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient is hospitalized with gastroenteritis. Which of the following demonstrates successful preventive behavior regarding transmission of infection?

<p>Exhibiting proper hand hygiene techniques. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is scheduled for a vagotomy. What mechanism explains how this procedure helps manage PUD?

<p>Reduces the stimulus to acid secretions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being taught about peptic ulcer disease and strategies to minimize symptoms. What information should be included in the teaching?

<p>Advise the patient to avoid risk factors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an interprofessional intervention for treating Gastritis, Gastroenteritis, and Peptic Ulcer Disease?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory assessment is crucial for a patient with gastritis or peptic ulcer disease who presents with coffee-ground emesis?

<p>Complete blood count. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the differential diagnosis of abdominal pain, what characteristic helps distinguish gastritis from gastroenteritis?

<p>Gastroenteritis is more likely to present with diarrhea and vomiting. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being discharged after treatment for gastroenteritis. What sign would the nurse teach the patient to report indicating poor oral intake tolerance?

<p>Urinating less frequently or in small amounts. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Peptic Ulcer Disease is evaluated for perforation of the ulcer. Which clinical manifestation would be most important to monitor?

<p>Sudden and severe epigastric pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient being treated for a peptic ulcer asks why their pain is worse when they haven't eaten. How does the nurse respond?

<p>Pain is caused by the ulcer being exposed to gastric juice. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the symptoms a patient should focus on reporting quickly to the provider when diagnosed with gastritis?

<p>Dark, tarry stools. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can a nurse teach a patient to reduce risk of Gastritis?

<p>How to take their medications. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is a goal a nurse wants to see for a patient recovering from gastritis?

<p>Full recovery. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can cause gastroenteritis?

<p>Ingestion of virus, bacteria, or parasite (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient prescribed medication for PUD is experiencing mild nausea. How should a nurse respond to a patient's concern about taking the medication?

<p>Take it with a light snack. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What intervention will a provider implement when a patient with PUD has chronic non-healing of ulcers?

<p>Surgical Intervention (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true about a duodenal ulcer?

<p>They're worst on an empty stomach. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are complications of peptic ulcer disease?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing assessment for PUD reports the use of alcohol and medication use. Which statement made by the patient can the nurse teach further to help with the condition?

<p>&quot;I don't eat within 2 hours of bedtime.&quot; (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable to a patient presenting with acute gastritis and persistent vomiting?

<p>Risk for deficient fluid volume (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with gastritis is prescribed a medication regimen. What key teaching point should the nurse emphasize regarding adherence?

<p>Medications must be taken exactly as prescribed to prevent resistance and promote healing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with gastroenteritis is being discharged. Which of the following instructions regarding dietary modifications is MOST appropriate for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

<p>Avoid lactose-containing products immediately following resolution of symptoms. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with peptic ulcer disease reports persistent epigastric pain, despite adhering to the prescribed medication and dietary restrictions. What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?

<p>Assess the patient’s adherence to the treatment plan and explore potential contributing factors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When caring for a patient with gastritis, what assessment finding would indicate the HIGHEST risk for deficient fluid volume?

<p>Persistent nausea and vomiting. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with gastroenteritis reports increased abdominal distention. What is the priority nursing intervention when assessing this patient?

<p>Assessing bowel sounds. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following complications is MOST likely to occur if a peptic ulcer perforates?

<p>Peritonitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information is essential for the nurse to include when teaching a patient about managing gastritis to prevent recurrence?

<p>Taking medications as prescribed and avoiding irritants associated with gastric episodes are important. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing persistent diarrhea due to gastroenteritis is at risk. Which Electrolyte should the nurse monitor most closely?

<p>Potassium (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following signs and symptoms are associated with a patient diagnosed with Peptic Ulcer Disease?

<p>Pain relieved or triggered by eating, located midline in the epigastrium near the xiphoid. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A healthcare provider explains to Mrs. Taylor that the endoscopy performed allows visualization of the esophageal, gastric, and duodenal mucosal linings, as well as allows for what else to occur?

<p>Tissue samples being obtained for biopsy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does obesity contribute to the risk of developing a hernia?

<p>It increases intra-abdominal pressure, which can strain abdominal openings and lead to hernias. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How would the nurse differentiate between a reducible and incarcerated hernia during a physical examination?

<p>Attempt to gently push the protruding tissue back into the abdominal cavity; a reducible hernia can be manually returned, while an incarcerated hernia cannot. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a hernia repair, why is it important for the nurse to discourage coughing in the patient?

<p>Coughing raises intra-abdominal pressure, potentially disrupting the surgical repair. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind advising patients with hemorrhoids to avoid straining during bowel movements?

<p>Straining increases pressure on the anorectal veins, which can worsen swelling and bleeding. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are stimulant laxatives generally discouraged for long-term management of hemorrhoids?

<p>They can lead to dependence and further bowel dysfunction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of monitoring bowel habits and intake/output postoperatively in a patient who has undergone hemorrhoidectomy?

<p>To evaluate the effectiveness of pain management and prevent complications like urinary retention and fecal impaction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying reason for the recommendation to keep a food diary for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

<p>To identify specific dietary triggers that exacerbate IBS symptoms. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for establishing a regular bowel routine as part of the nursing interventions for patients with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

<p>To help manage and regulate bowel movements, reducing unpredictable symptoms. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a psychosocial assessment an important component of the nursing assessment for patients with Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)?

<p>To evaluate the level of anxiety, stress, or depression that may exacerbate IBS symptoms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale for encouraging smaller, more frequent meals for patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

<p>To minimize stimulation of the gastrointestinal tract and reduce symptoms. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to provide meticulous skin care for patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) who are experiencing frequent diarrhea?

<p>To prevent skin breakdown and irritation from frequent bowel movements. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal of encouraging patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) to engage in mealtime with family?

<p>To promote social interaction and reduce feelings of isolation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for using a dishwasher as a nursing intervention when teaching patients with Celiac Disease?

<p>To avoid cross-contamination with gluten-containing food particles. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for patients with Celiac disease to have long-term follow-up and interdisciplinary management?

<p>To ensure that the patient is adhering to the necessary dietary and lifestyle changes and to detect and manage any complications. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of a Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scan in the assessment of a patient with Celiac Disease?

<p>To evaluate bone density and detect osteopenia or osteoporosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying cause of diverticulitis?

<p>Outpouching of the intestinal wall that becomes inflamed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is bowel rest, often achieved with NPO status, a common component of the medical management for acute diverticulitis?

<p>Bowel rest reduces intestinal motility, promoting healing of the inflamed diverticula. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information would the nurse provide to a patient regarding dietary recommendations for managing diverticulitis?

<p>To follow a high-fiber diet to promote regular bowel movements and prevent constipation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of appendicitis?

<p>Blockage of the opening to the appendix, leading to inflammation and potential infection. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it essential to keep a patient NPO prior to appendectomy?

<p>To reduce the risk of aspiration if surgery is required, and to minimize stimulation of the digestive system. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following an appendectomy, what instruction should the nurse provide to the patient regarding antibiotic use?

<p>To take the full course of antibiotics as prescribed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the pathophysiology of ulcerative colitis, how does colonoscopy aid in its diagnosis?

<p>It allows direct visualization of the colon, identifying inflammation and ulcerative lesions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In caring for a patient with ulcerative colitis and frequent bloody stools, which laboratory finding would be a priority to communicate to the healthcare provider?

<p>Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering that clinical manifestations of ulcerative colitis fluctuate, how should the nurse advise the patient regarding fluid intake during periods of heightened diarrhea?

<p>To increase fluid intake to replace losses from diarrhea. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following activities would have the greatest association with the development of a hernia?

<p>Lifting heavy objects with improper form (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a herniorrhaphy, which of these instructions are important for a nurse to give to a client?

<p>Avoid heavy lifting for several weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize in a client who is one day post-operative following a hemorrhoidectomy?

<p>Bowel habits and intake/output postoperatively (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal of encouraging regular exercise for patients who are suffering irritable bowel syndrome?

<p>Encourage weight loss (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

It is important to establish a therapeutic relationship with a patient with Inflammatory Bowel Disease because...

<p>It is important to encourage to patient to be engaged in mealtime with family (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important measure a nurse can take in order to assess the current knowledge a client has about the gluten-free diet for celiac patients?

<p>Stool characteristics (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In addition to broad spectrum antibiotics, which measure should the nurse prioritize for a patient who is diagnosed with diverticulitis?

<p>Intravenous (IV) fluids (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom should be prioritized by the nurse after a client receives antibiotics for diverticulitis?

<p>Completing the antibiotic therapy as prescribed (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A test to assess the abdomen demonstrates a blockage of the opening of the appendix. Which pathophysiological description describes this patient?

<p>Opening to appendix becomes blocked (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the overall evaluation goal a nurse should have for a patient being discharged from appendicitis?

<p>Resume normal activities in 2 to 4 weeks (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client presents with "droplets of fat" in the stool along with bloody stool. What cue indicates that this patient is experiencing?

<p>Droplets of fat (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client presents with high fever. A test is ordered and ulcerations are found in the test. Which other piece of data must be accounted for in order to diagnose ulcerative colitis?

<p>Review the clinical presentation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client has been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Should the nurse recommend a large meal at once or to "Spread out your meals to six times per a day."

<p>&quot;Spread out your meals to six times per a day.&quot; (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for an inguinal hernia repair. What preoperative teaching should the nurse prioritize to minimize postoperative complications?

<p>Demonstrating proper use of incentive spirometry and teaching effective coughing techniques. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with an incarcerated hernia reports severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Which nursing action is the MOST critical?

<p>Notifying the surgeon immediately to prepare for possible surgical intervention. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A post-operative hernia repair patient reports increased pain at the incision site and a low-grade fever. What is the priority nursing intervention?

<p>Assess the incision site for signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, or drainage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which instruction is MOST important for a patient being discharged after a hemorrhoidectomy?

<p>Maintain adequate hydration and consume a high-fiber diet to prevent constipation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hemorrhoids reports significant rectal pain and bleeding during bowel movements. Which intervention is most appropriate?

<p>Apply local anesthetics and encourage the use of sitz baths to promote comfort. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a routine assessment, a patient reports mild but persistent rectal itching. How should the nurse proceed to gather more data about potential hemorrhoids?

<p>Inquire about bowel habits, bleeding, pain, and conduct a visual inspection of the rectal area. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS) reports frequent abdominal bloating and gas. What dietary modification should the nurse recommend?

<p>Limit high-FODMAP foods such as certain fruits, dairy, and artificial sweeteners. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with IBS is experiencing increased stress, which exacerbates their symptoms. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?

<p>Encouraging the patient to maintain a detailed food diary and practice relaxation techniques. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS) is being discharged. What statement ensures the patient understands the self-management of their condition?

<p>&quot;I will avoid trigger foods, manage stress, and maintain a regular exercise routine.&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD) is prescribed sulfasalazine. What should the nurse emphasize regarding medication management?

<p>Consuming at least eight glasses of water daily to prevent crystal formation in the kidneys. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with IBD is experiencing an acute exacerbation of symptoms, including severe diarrhea and abdominal pain. What is the PRIORITY nursing intervention?

<p>Assessing fluid and electrolyte balance and administering prescribed IV fluids. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD) is scheduled for a colonoscopy. What pre-procedure information is MOST crucial for the nurse to review?

<p>The bowel preparation instructions to ensure adequate cleansing of the colon. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Celiac Disease is overwhelmed by the complexity of adhering to a gluten-free diet. Which nursing action is MOST helpful?

<p>Providing the patient with a list of safe foods and referring them to a registered dietitian. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment finding in a patient with Celiac Disease indicates the need for further intervention?

<p>Reports persistent diarrhea and weight loss despite adhering to a gluten-free diet. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Celiac Disease reports feeling socially isolated due to dietary restrictions. What intervention should the nurse suggest?

<p>Encouraging the patient to join a Celiac Disease support group and learn tips for dining out. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with diverticulitis is prescribed a clear liquid diet during the acute phase. Which food choice indicates the patient understands the dietary restrictions?

<p>A cup of broth and plain gelatin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for advising a patient with diverticulitis to avoid straining during bowel movements?

<p>To prevent increased pressure in the colon, which can lead to perforation or rupture. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with diverticulitis is being discharged. What dietary instruction is MOST appropriate?

<p>Adhere to a high-fiber diet consisting of whole grains, fruits, and vegetables. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents to the emergency department with suspected appendicitis. What assessment finding requires immediate notification of the healthcare provider?

<p>Sudden relief of abdominal pain followed by abdominal distension. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. What preoperative nursing intervention is of HIGHEST priority?

<p>Maintaining NPO status and administering IV fluids as prescribed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following an appendectomy, the patient reports pain and difficulty coughing. What BEST addresses this patient's needs?

<p>Instructing the patient on how to splint the incision while coughing or deep breathing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention is MOST effective for patients after an appendectomy to avoid post-operative complications?

<p>Implement turning, coughing, and deep breathing exercises every 2 hours. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Jack, a 17-year-old, has been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Which laboratory value directly correlates with ulcerative colitis?

<p>Increased C-reactive protein (CRP). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What diagnostic test is an appropriate test to evaluate 17-year-old Jack with a diagnosis of Ulcerative Colitis?

<p>Colonoscopy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ulcerative colitis may result in which complication?

<p>Megacolon. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information should the surgeon discuss with Jack, a 17-year-old with a diagnosis of UIcerative Colitis?

<p>Informed Consent on plan of care to follow Colectomy surgery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key element in Jack's plan of care post-colectomy surgery?

<p>Assess stoma color, output and peristomal skin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing orthostatic hypotension, diarrhea, weight loss, and anemia is MOST likely presenting with symptoms of which intestinal disease?

<p>Celiac Disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing abdominal pain, nausea, fever, and vomiting with rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is MOST likely experiencing clinical manifestations of which intestinal disorder?

<p>Appendicitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who presents with a bulge or visible swelling in the groin area, pain, nausea, vomiting, fever and tachycardia, is MOST likely presenting with symptoms of which intestinal disorder?

<p>Hernia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a previous history of Crohn's Disease is MOST likely considered to have which intestinal disorder?

<p>Inflammatory Bowel Disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with bloody stools, itching and irritation in the anal region, and experiencing pain with bowel movement is MOST likely suffering from:

<p>Hemorrhoids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing diarrhea, constipation, gas, and abdominal pain is MOST likely suffering from which intestinal disorder?

<p>Irritable Bowel Syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information provided, a patient who routinely strains during bowel movements might experience:

<p>Hemorrhoids. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is a primary cause of obstruction and restricted bloodlfow that leads to appendicitis?

<p>Venous Engorgement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information that a nurse is relaying to a patient, which of the following can increase the complications of a hernia?

<p>Lifting Heavy Objects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is MOST appropriate for a patient to take when admitted with Ulcerative Colitis?

<p>Anti-Diarrheal. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Knowing that the exact cause of IBD is unknown, what triggers an inappropriate response in the intestinal tract which causes inflammation?

<p>Immune System. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is creating a teaching plan for a patient with diverticulitis. What should be included in dietary instructions?

<p>Consume a low-fiber, low-residue during an acute event. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In regards to stool characteristics, which of the following most accurate in assessing for steatorrhea?

<p>Fatty stool. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a nurse include in the teaching instructions to a patient diagnosed with Celiac Disease?

<p>Read all food labels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the formula for calculating Body Mass Index (BMI)?

<p>Weight (kg) / [Height (meters)]^2 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the NIH classification, what BMI range is considered indicative of 'Obesity (class 2)'?

<p>35.0-39.9 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of adults aged 40-59 are estimated to be affected by obesity?

<p>44.8% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a BMI of 32 is considered to have which of the following?

<p>Obesity (class 1) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential effect of long-term obesity on an individual's health and well-being?

<p>Increased risk for comorbidities (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does leptin play in the pathophysiology of obesity?

<p>Regulating appetite and energy expenditure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with obesity is undergoing diagnostic testing. What is the primary purpose of these tests?

<p>To identify secondary causes of obesity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key component of the interprofessional management of obesity?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which surgical management approach for obesity involves creating a small gastric pouch and bypassing a portion of the small intestine?

<p>Combination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential complication following bariatric surgery?

<p>Pulmonary embolism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is two days post-op from bariatric surgery. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

<p>Monitor for signs of complications (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in the care plan of a patient following bariatric surgery?

<p>Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing assessment is crucial to include when caring for a patient after bariatric surgery?

<p>Oxygen saturation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action should the nurse prioritize when providing care to a patient who has undergone bariatric surgery?

<p>Applying sequential compression devices (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A post-operative teaching plan for a patient who underwent bariatric surgery should include information about:

<p>Incentive spirometry and deep breathing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following bariatric surgery, what potential issue should be included in discharge teaching to ensure the patient reports to their healthcare provider?

<p>Signs of dumping syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In evaluating care outcomes for a patient post-bariatric surgery, which of these options best suggests treatment success?

<p>Free from nutritional deficiencies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lauren Wiley is 5 ft 6 in. tall and weighs 256 lb. What is Ms. Wiley's BMI?

<p>41 kg/m^2 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ms. Wiley expresses her concerns about being approved for bariatric surgery. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?

<p>&quot;You meet the BMI criteria, but there are several other factors that determine whether someone should have bariatric surgery.&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ms. Wiley wants to understand the key difference between Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB) and adjustable gastric banding. Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?

<p>&quot;Roux-en-Y is a combination of a restrictive surgery and a malabsorptive surgery.&quot; (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After expressing her anxiety about possible complications of bariatric surgery, Ms. Wiley seeks reassurance from the nurse. Which action by the nurse is best?

<p>Holding her hand and listening to her concerns (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ms. Wiley is 2 hours post-gastric bypass surgery and has scant blood-tinged drainage coming from her nasogastric tube (NGT). The orders state that the NGT should be hooked up to low continuous suction. What should the nurse do?

<p>Document the findings. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with metabolic syndrome as a comorbidity of obesity. Which diagnostic criterion is characterized by a waist circumference greater than 40 inches in men?

<p>Abdominal obesity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Leptin, a hormone involved in the pathophysiology of obesity, primarily acts on which part of the brain to regulate appetite?

<p>Hypothalamus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory finding is most indicative of a secondary cause of obesity related to endocrine dysfunction?

<p>Abnormal thyroid hormone levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In managing patients with obesity, which component of behavioral therapy focuses on identifying and modifying unhealthy eating patterns and triggers?

<p>Stimulus control (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of 'restrictive' bariatric surgeries in promoting weight loss?

<p>Physically limiting the amount of food the stomach can hold (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key intervention should the nurse perform to prevent respiratory complications in a patient immediately following bariatric surgery?

<p>Encouraging incentive spirometry (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority in a patient recovering from bariatric surgery due to the procedure's impact on gastrointestinal anatomy and function?

<p>Risk for imbalanced nutrition (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What post-operative complication should a nurse be most vigilant for in a patient who has undergone a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass due to the alteration in gastrointestinal anatomy?

<p>Dumping syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In designing discharge instructions for a patient following bariatric surgery, which teaching point is MOST crucial to include to prevent long-term complications?

<p>Adherence to prescribed dietary guidelines (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient asks for recommendations on methods or support systems available for managing weight and maintaining lifestyle changes postsurgical procedure. What support is most adequate?

<p>Available support groups (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key recommendation should the nurse provide to a patient to avoid development of gallstones after bariatric surgery?

<p>Maintain consistent and gradual weight loss (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When working with an obese patient, what is the ideal method for the nurse to maintain a safe environment and lower the chance of injury?

<p>Obtain appropriately sized equipment for care (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a realistic outcome from surgery, should the nurse consider when evaluating care outcomes?

<p>The patient will be compliant with dietary and lifestyle changes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When comparing anxiety and fear, which statement accurately differentiates the two?

<p>Fear is a reaction to a specific danger, while anxiety is a response to a vague sense of threat. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A student awaiting NCLEX results experiences heightened focus and enhanced problem-solving abilities. Which level of anxiety is the student likely experiencing?

<p>Mild (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a stressful situation, a person begins to focus on only certain aspects of the environment, while their ability to think clearly is somewhat hampered. Which level of anxiety are they most likely experiencing?

<p>Moderate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client in the emergency department exhibits severely reduced perceptual field and confused behavior. Which level of anxiety is the client experiencing?

<p>Severe (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing panic-level anxiety is MOST likely to exhibit which of the following behaviors?

<p>Running, shouting, or screaming (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A generally healthy adult has developed a new habit of chewing their fingernails to the point of bleeding during work meetings. Which defense mechanism is most likely being employed?

<p>Displacement (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child refuses to attend school after repeated bullying incidents and consistently reports vague physical symptoms to stay home. What disorder is the child MOST likely exhibiting?

<p>Separation Anxiety Disorder (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient consistently avoids social gatherings due to intense fear of being judged or scrutinized by others. Which disorder is this patient MOST likely exhibiting?

<p>Social Anxiety Disorder (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A person experiences sudden episodes of intense fear accompanied by physical symptoms such as palpitations, shortness of breath, and dizziness. These episodes peak within minutes. Which condition is MOST consistent with these symptoms?

<p>Panic Disorder (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual reports persistent, excessive worry about various aspects of life, such as work, health, and finances, which lasts for several months. Which diagnosis is MOST consistent with this presentation?

<p>Generalized Anxiety Disorder (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors can contribute to the development of anxiety disorders?

<p>Genetic Predisposition (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is assessing a patient reporting symptoms of anxiety. Which assessment question is MOST important initially?

<p>Are you having thoughts of harming yourself? (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's care plan includes the goal: 'Patient will demonstrate the ability to use anxiety reduction techniques.' Which observation BEST indicates that the patient is meeting this goal?

<p>The patient independently practices deep breathing during times of stress. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing intervention is MOST appropriate for a patient experiencing moderate anxiety?

<p>Providing simple, brief, and clear instructions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has been attending cognitive-behavioral therapy as an outpatient for anxiety. Which of the following statements BEST reflects a successful outcome of this therapy?

<p>The patient can identify anxiety symptoms and implement coping strategies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of anxiety is starting behavioral therapy. What technique is MOST likely to be included in the initial sessions?

<p>Relaxation Techniques (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A person has recurring thoughts, impulses or images that persist and recur, so that they cannot be dismissed from the mind, what term would you use to describe this?

<p>Obsessions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient feels driven to perform ritualistic behaviors in an attempt to reduce anxiety, what term would you use to describe these?

<p>Compulsions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to DSM-5 criteria, what key criterion must be met for a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder?

<p>The patient's obsessions and/or compulsions are time-consuming. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of body-focused repetitive behavior seen in trichotillomania?

<p>Hair Pulling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a shared risk factor that contributes to both anxiety disorders and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

<p>Childhood Trauma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing diagnosis is most applicable for a patient with excoriation disorder?

<p>Impaired skin integrity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing intervention is emphasized for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who also have a co-existing urinary tract infection?

<p>Promoting self-care activities. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with OCD is undergoing exposure and response prevention therapy. What key message should the nurse reinforce?

<p>Anxiety does subside, even when the ritual is not completed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication classification is typically considered first-line for the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

<p>Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a patient diagnosed with OCD is prescribed Clomipramine (TCA), what condition should the nurse monitor for, due to the side effects of the medication?

<p>Orthostatic Hypotension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing exposure and response prevention therapy is gradually exposed to triggers of their OCD symptoms. What should you educate the patient on?

<p>Finding anxiety will subside over time, even when completion does not occur. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of 'flooding' as a psychological therapy for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

<p>Exposing the patient to a large amount of triggers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an adaptive use of the defense mechanism of sublimation?

<p>Redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the clinical presentation of a patient experiencing a phobia, which intervention aligns with the primary goal of diminishing distress?

<p>Implementing systematic desensitization techniques (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient displays the maladaptive use of the defense mechanism of denial. Which outcome is the MOST appropriate to include in the plan of care?

<p>The patient acknowledges the impact of their behavior on their relationships. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A known risk factor in the development of body dysmorphic disorder is...

<p>Irrational view of physical appearance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement underscores the significance of the advanced practice nurse's role in employing flooding as an OCD treatment?

<p>Flooding requires careful management and monitoring from a trained professional. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of intervention is deep brain stimulation (DBS)?

<p>Biological (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with OCD, which statement by the nurse shows an understanding of the patient's potential need for a psychological therapy?

<p>&quot;It is important to take your medication, but it is equally important you find a psychological therapy that helps you.&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with a hoarding disorder is being discharged. What intervention is MOST critical to include to address the patient's challenges with decision-making?

<p>Assertiveness Training (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately identifies the genetic component of first-degree relatives inheriting obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

<p>Twice the risk compared to the general population. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement considers a comprehensive plan for the anxiety and risk of self-destructive behavior for a patient diagnosed with trichotillomania?

<p>Incorporate self-monitoring and cognitive restructuring techniques along with a distraction chart. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the therapeutic approach for a patient with an obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), utilizing a behavioral and cognitive intervention?

<p>&quot;Medication will not cure you of your disease process. You must also agree to face your fears and triggers to diminish your suffering.&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with moderate anxiety is preparing for a diagnostic procedure. What assessment finding would the nurse most likely observe?

<p>Selective inattention to specific details of the procedure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A student who always gets good grades is worried about failing an upcoming exam, and starts excessively cleaning their room. Which defense mechanism is the student exhibiting?

<p>Displacement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child refuses to go to school due to fear of leaving their parent. Which clinical manifestation is the child demonstrating?

<p>Separation anxiety disorder. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A veteran is hyper-vigilant, irritable, and has difficulty concentrating, following their deployment. Which risk factor influenced the client's anxiety disorder?

<p>Psychological trauma. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an assessment, a patient reports experiencing sudden, intense fear accompanied by palpitations, dizziness, and a sense of impending doom. What condition are these symptoms most indicative of?

<p>Panic disorder. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient displays ritualistic behavior of repeatedly checking if the door is locked, causing significant distress and impairment in daily functioning. According to the DSM-5 criteria, this pattern is considered time-consuming if it exceeds how long per day?

<p>1 hour. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When caring for a patient with an anxiety disorder, which nursing diagnosis addresses the patient's ability to effectively manage stressors and adapt to changing situations?

<p>Difficulty Coping. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention promotes positive outcomes for a patient with anxiety?

<p>Encouraging active participation in planning community-based interventions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with OCD feels driven to repeatedly wash their hands to reduce anxiety. Which aspect defines this behavior as a compulsion?

<p>The behavior is a ritualistic act the individual feels driven to perform. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of childhood trauma exhibits symptoms of OCD and anxiety. In this scenario, what is a significant risk factor?

<p>Child abuse and trauma. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with OCD expresses feeling shame. Which nursing intervention is most essential to establish a therapeutic relationship?

<p>Providing unconditional positive regard, emphasizing acceptance and understanding. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention is considered a basic-level nursing intervention for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

<p>Helping patients establish regular bathroom schedules. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with body dysmorphic disorder is considering treatment options. Which classification should the nurse include when explaining the exception for biological treatments?

<p>SSRIs can reduce symptoms in patients that endorse having obsessive thoughts. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing OCD benefits from exposure and response prevention therapy. How should the nurse explain the central message of this therapy?

<p>Anxiety subsides even when rituals are not completed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which behavior is most characteristic of Reactive Attachment Disorder?

<p>Consistent pattern of emotionally withdrawn behavior (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between reactive attachment disorder and disinhibited social engagement disorder?

<p>Reactive attachment disorder is characterized by a lack of seeking comfort from caregivers, whereas disinhibited social engagement disorder involves a lack of wariness towards strangers. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important initial intervention for children with attachment disorders?

<p>Providing a consistent and nurturing caregiving environment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might PTSD manifest differently in preschool children compared to adults?

<p>Reduction in play or play reflecting aspects of the trauma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common comorbidity seen in children and adolescents with PTSD?

<p>Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does trauma impact neural pathways in individuals with PTSD?

<p>It dysregulates neural pathways that integrate emotional regulation and arousal. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the polyvagal theory, what physiological state might be triggered by trauma?

<p>A hypoaroused state leading to dissociation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does neuroplasticity play in children's response to trauma?

<p>It makes children more dependent on adults and systems due to their developing brains being highly malleable. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of nursing interventions in the initial stage of treating children with PTSD?

<p>Providing safety and stabilization (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to teach relaxation techniques to children with PTSD before trauma exploration?

<p>To restore a sense of control (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind involving the child's caretakers in the treatment of PTSD?

<p>To facilitate systemic change and support the child's recovery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment outcome indicates effective treatment for a child with PTSD?

<p>The child achieves normal developmental milestones. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common treatment modality for children with PTSD?

<p>Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage range of adults experiences at least one traumatic event in their lifetime?

<p>50-60% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do risk factors for PTSD in adults compare to those in children?

<p>They are similar. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What screening tools are commonly used to assess PTSD in adults?

<p>The Primary Care PTSD Screen (PC-PTSD) and PTSD Checklist (PCL-5) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of implementation in the nursing process for adults with PTSD?

<p>To facilitate adaptive coping mechanisms and symptom management (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient behavior indicates successful treatment of PTSD?

<p>The patient uses learned strategies to manage anxiety. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What class of medications is typically used in the biological treatment of PTSD?

<p>Antidepressants, specifically SSRIs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a defining feature of Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) that distinguishes it from PTSD?

<p>It occurs within a specific time frame after a traumatic event. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to diagnostic criteria, how many symptoms must be present to diagnose Acute Stress Disorder?

<p>At least 8 symptoms during or after the trauma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)?

<p>A subjective sense of numbing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of interventions for Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)?

<p>Connecting person to supports (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Adjustment Disorder generally differ from Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) and PTSD in terms of symptom severity and specificity?

<p>Adjustment Disorder is a milder, less specific version of ASD and PTSD. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What forms of distress can be seen with Adjustment Disorder?

<p>Guilt, depression, anxiety, anger (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of dissociative amnesia?

<p>Inability to recall important personal information (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates dissociative fugue from typical dissociative amnesia?

<p>The sudden, unexpected travel away from home or work (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the focus of depersonalization?

<p>Focus on self: extremely uncomfortable feeling of being an observer of one's own body or mental processes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a defining characteristic of depersonalization/derealization disorder?

<p>Persistent or recurrent episodes of feeling detached from one's self or surroundings. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)?

<p>Presence of two or more distinct personality states (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is "alter" in the context of Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)?

<p>Each alternate personality (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What broad areas should the nurse assess for a patient with Dissociative Identity Disorder?

<p>Memory, history of self-harm, mood, impact on patient and family, suicide risk (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of treatment planning for individuals with Dissociative Identity Disorder?

<p>To integrate the traumatic memories (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing intervention is most appropriate to normalize experiences for a patient with Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)

<p>Explaining symptoms are adaptive responses to past overwhelming events (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the ultimate goal of treatment for Dissociative Identity Disorder?

<p>Integration of fragmented memories and functioning as a whole person (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment modality is MOST associated with dissociative identity disorder?

<p>Psychodynamic psychotherapy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an appropriate assessment for a patient diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder?

<p>Inquire about a history of physical or sexual abuse (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child displays a consistent pattern of emotionally withdrawn behavior and does not seek comfort from caregivers when distressed. Which disorder is most consistent with these behaviors?

<p>Reactive Attachment Disorder (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between Reactive Attachment Disorder and Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder in children?

<p>Reactive Attachment Disorder involves avoidance of intimacy, while Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder features indiscriminate sociability. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best reflects how trauma can affect a child's play in the context of PTSD?

<p>Play may reflect aspects of the trauma, such as reenacting the event. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What neurobiological change is commonly associated with trauma, potentially leading to dissociation?

<p>Dysregulation of neural pathways involved in emotional regulation and arousal (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of environmental risk factors for PTSD in children, what does the concept of 'neuroplasticity' primarily refer to?

<p>The brain's ability to reorganize itself by forming new neural connections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When providing initial nursing care for a 6-year-old child who has experienced trauma, which intervention is the priority?

<p>Ensuring the child's safety and providing stabilization (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for nurses to use developmentally appropriate language when interacting with children who have experienced trauma?

<p>To ensure the child understands and can effectively communicate their experiences (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of art and play in promoting expression of feelings for a child with PTSD?

<p>To provide a non-threatening medium for expressing difficult emotions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary indicator that treatment for a child with PTSD has been effective?

<p>The child achieves normal developmental milestones. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical biological treatment modality for children with PTSD?

<p>Pharmacotherapy combined with EMDR or CBT (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage range best represents the approximate lifetime prevalence of experiencing at least one traumatic event in men?

<p>60% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why would a nurse use a screening tool like the Primary Care PTSD Screen (PC-PTSD) or the PTSD Checklist (PCL-5) when assessing a patient?

<p>To quickly assess for potential PTSD symptoms (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST accurate explanation for why the 'stage model of treatment' is used for adults with PTSD?

<p>It structures treatment to establish safety, then address trauma, and finally reintegrate into daily life. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being evaluated for successful outcomes in PTSD treatment. What indicates the patient is experiencing enhanced self-esteem?

<p>Expression of positive self-regard and confidence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ms. S, who was robbed at gunpoint, is diagnosed with Acute Stress Disorder. Why is it crucial to collaborate for coordination of care in this case?

<p>To ensure comprehensive support and prevent progression to PTSD (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following differentiates Adjustment Disorder from Acute Stress Disorder and PTSD?

<p>Adjustment Disorder is a milder, less specific response to a stressful event. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the defining characteristic of dissociative amnesia?

<p>Inability to recall important personal information (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the experience of derealization?

<p>Feeling that one's surroundings are unreal or distorted (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key feature of Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)?

<p>Presence of two or more distinct personality states (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of treatment for individuals with Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)?

<p>Integrating the personality states to create a more cohesive sense of self (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What unique sensory experience is often reported by individuals with anorexia nervosa that contributes to the perpetuation of restrictive eating behaviors?

<p>Distortions in taste, appetite, and satiety (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an assessment, a client with suspected anorexia nervosa admits to using laxatives and diuretics to control their weight. How would you classify their eating disorder?

<p>Binge-eating/purging type anorexia nervosa (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor complicates the determination of the true prevalence of anorexia nervosa in the general population?

<p>Tendency to conceal symptoms and reluctance to seek help (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What co-occurring mental health condition should be prioritized for assessment in a patient newly diagnosed with anorexia nervosa?

<p>Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement integrates the roles of genetics and neurobiology as potential risk factors for anorexia nervosa?

<p>Genetic predispositions influence neurotransmitter function, affecting appetite regulation and reward processing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a patient admitted for anorexia nervosa, which question should the nurse ask to best understand the patient's perception of the problem?

<p>What do you think is the main problem that brought you into the hospital? (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physical assessment finding should prompt the nurse to further investigate for potential self-induced vomiting in a patient with suspected bulimia nervosa?

<p>Erosion of dental enamel (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 16-year-old patient with anorexia nervosa is resistant to gaining weight. What is the MOST important initial nursing intervention to help the patient progress toward weight restoration?

<p>Establish a trusting relationship with the patient. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the care planning phase for a patient with anorexia nervosa, what is the priority nursing diagnosis that addresses the most immediate risk to the patient's well-being?

<p>Impaired nutritional status related to inadequate dietary intake (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for closely monitoring a patient with anorexia nervosa who is beginning a refeeding program?

<p>To detect and manage refeeding syndrome. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific cognitive characteristic often presents a significant challenge in the treatment of a patient with anorexia nervosa?

<p>Perfectionism (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is educating a group of adolescent girls about the risks associated with eating disorders. Which statement regarding treatment should be included?

<p>Early intervention and comprehensive treatment can significantly improve outcomes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a goal of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) in the treatment of bulimia nervosa?

<p>To identify and change negative thought patterns related to weight, body shape, and eating. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the DSM-5 criteria, what is the minimum frequency of binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors required for a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa?

<p>At least once a week for 3 months (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What statement accurately describes the genetic component of the risk factors associated with bulimia nervosa?

<p>Genetics account for approximately 60% of the risk for developing bulimia nervosa. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What element included in an assessment demonstrates that the nurse understands the needs of a patient with bulimia nervosa?

<p>Reviewing laboratory testing results (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing diagnosis is specific to patients with bulimia nervosa due to their recurrent binge-purge cycles?

<p>Impaired cardiac output (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following interventions has the greatest impact if a patient is admitted to an inpatient unit for bulimia nervosa?

<p>Monitoring and interrupting destructive binge-purge cycles. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What medication is approved for bulimia nervosa?

<p>Antidepressants (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When providing care for a patient with bulimia nervosa, what should be the initial focus of advanced practice psychotherapy interventions?

<p>Establishing a trusting and therapeutic relationship. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to DSM-5, what criterion has to be met for a patient to be diagnosed with binge eating disorder?

<p>Marked distress over binge eating. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What behavior is associated with binge eating episodes?

<p>Eating large amounts of food rapidly, even when not hungry (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is known to be a common comorbidity with binge eating disorder?

<p>Specific phobia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To assist a client with binge eating disorder using the nursing process, which action would be the first step in assessing the client?

<p>Determine the patient's perception of their eating problem. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing diagnosis would be most applicable for someone being admitted with binge eating disorder?

<p>Impaired high nutritional intake: more than body requirements (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the implementation phase of treating a client with binge eating disorder, which statement made by the nurse would be most helpful?

<p>&quot;Let's explore the emotions you might be experiencing before a binge.&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Weight tends to return after treatment in patients with binge eating disorder if what biological treatment is used?

<p>Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement reflects the role of incremental goal setting in a support group for clients with binge eating disorder?

<p>&quot;Break down large goals into smaller, manageable steps to build success.&quot; (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the eating behaviors associated with Pica?

<p>Eating nonfood items that are not a part of another illness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key feature differentiates rumination disorder from other eating disorders in adults?

<p>Regurgitation of food with rechewing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic describes avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID)?

<p>Low BMI (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client presents with significant weight loss, dry skin, and lanugo. What laboratory finding would correlate with these physical signs?

<p>Hypoalbuminemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with dementia living at home is repeatedly found consuming powdered laundry detergent. What condition is MOST likely suggested by this behavior?

<p>Pica (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa who is struggling with distorted body image. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate?

<p>Assisting the client in identifying and challenging their negative thoughts. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with bulimia nervosa has been engaging in self-induced vomiting after meals for the past two years. What is the MOST likely electrolyte imbalance that the nurse would expect to see in this patient?

<p>Hypokalemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse suspects a patient has anorexia nervosa. Which assessment question is MOST appropriate to initiate the conversation and gather information?

<p>&quot;How would you describe your eating habits?&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A teenage girl is admitted to the hospital for anorexia nervosa. What is the MOST appropriate and realistic initial goal?

<p>Increasing daily caloric intake (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following BEST describes the primary goal of nutritional interventions in a patient with anorexia nervosa?

<p>Gradual weight restoration and normalization of eating behaviors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first nursing intervention when a patient begins to express that they are suicidal?

<p>Ask the patient if they have a plan to harm themselves. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with bulimia nervosa has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What statement explains to the patient the purpose of this medication?

<p>&quot;This medication will help to resolve depression.&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The parent of a young patient with avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID) expresses frustration. Which of the following should the nurse explain to the parent?

<p>Behavior modification techniques may be useful to address picky eating habits (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse finds a 22-year-old client with bulimia nervosa in the bathroom vomiting. Which nursing intervention is MOST appropriate?

<p>Stay with the client, providing support and monitoring vital signs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 17-year-old female with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital for severe malnutrition. During the initial assessment, which finding would be of greatest concern?

<p>Heart rate of 45 beats per minute and blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a patient with bulimia nervosa who is engaging in self-induced vomiting after meals. Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient MOST at risk for developing?

<p>Hypochloremia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 22-year-old patient with binge eating disorder is starting cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). What initial intervention is MOST important for the therapist to implement?

<p>Encouraging the patient to keep a detailed food diary to identify triggers for binge-eating episodes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement BEST describes the role of genetics in the development of anorexia nervosa?

<p>Genetic factors contribute significantly, but the specific genes involved are largely unknown. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with bulimia nervosa is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the primary rationale for using this medication in the treatment of bulimia?

<p>To reduce the frequency of binge eating and purging behaviors. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with binge eating disorder is concerned about weight gain. Which intervention is the MOST appropriate to address this concern?

<p>Encouraging the patient to focus on developing a healthy relationship with food and regular physical activity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected anorexia nervosa. Which physical sign is MOST indicative of the body's attempt to conserve energy in response to starvation?

<p>Bradycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately differentiates between anorexia nervosa, restricting type, and bulimia nervosa?

<p>Individuals with anorexia, restricting type, maintain a significantly low body weight, whereas those with bulimia nervosa are often at a normal weight or overweight. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse providing education to a community group about eating disorders should include which statement about avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID)?

<p>ARFID can lead to nutritional deficiencies and impaired psychosocial functioning. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient recently diagnosed with Pica is noted to compulsively eating paper. What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?

<p>Assess the patient for any underlying nutritional deficiencies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) exert their anti-inflammatory effects?

<p>By inhibiting the leukotriene and/or prostaglandin pathways. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which property is unique to aspirin among all the NSAIDs?

<p>Irreversible inhibition of COX-1 receptors in platelets. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should aspirin be administered at the first sign of a myocardial infarction?

<p>To reduce cardiac death by suppressing platelet aggregation . (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known aspirin allergy is prescribed an NSAID for arthritis pain. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

<p>Contact the provider to discuss alternative analgesic options. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition presents a contraindication for NSAID use due to increased bleeding risk?

<p>Vitamin K deficiency. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism by which NSAIDs can lead to acute renal failure?

<p>Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis, affecting renal blood flow . (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the FDA require a Black Box Warning for all NSAIDs (except aspirin)?

<p>Increased risk of adverse cardiovascular thrombotic events. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of misoprostol when prescribed with NSAIDs?

<p>To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding due to NSAID use. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug interaction is most important to monitor when a patient is prescribed NSAIDs?

<p>Anticoagulants. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In addition to standard assessment parameters, what specific assessment should be included for a patient taking high-dose ibuprofen?

<p>Pulmonary auscultation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is indomethacin (Indocin) used to treat?

<p>Ankylosing spondylitis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum recommended duration for ketorolac (Toradol) administration to prevent severe adverse effects?

<p>5 days. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a rare but potentially severe adverse effect associated with salicylate use in children and teenagers?

<p>Reye's syndrome. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of colchicine in treating gout?

<p>Reducing inflammatory response to urate crystals. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main mechanism of action of probenecid in the treatment of gout?

<p>Inhibiting the reabsorption of uric acid in the kidneys. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Allopurinol is prescribed to prevent which condition?

<p>Acute tumor lysis syndrome. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information should the nurse reinforce to a patient taking lesinurad for hyperuricemia?

<p>Drink at least 2 liters of fluid a day to prevent renal complications. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between febuxostat and allopurinol?

<p>Febuxostat is more selective for xanthine oxidase, yet may pose a greater cardiovascular risk, than allopurinol. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory finding is MOST important for the nurse to monitor in a patient taking allopurinol to prevent tumor lysis syndrome?

<p>Uric acid levels. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking ibuprofen reports taking glucosamine and chondroitin for osteoarthritis. What instruction is MOST important for the nurse to provide?

<p>Inform the patient to monitor for signs of bleeding if also taking warfarin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with osteoarthritis is prescribed a topical cream for pain relief. What information should the nurse include when educating the patient??

<p>Aspercreme is a topical cream that can be used. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking colchicine has an indication of short-term leukopenia. Which precaution should the nurse take?

<p>Take extra precautions to prevent infection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the nurse complete prior to beginning antiinflammatory drug therapy?

<p>GI lesions or peptic ulcer disease and bleeding disorders. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the nurse do to assure the therapeutic effects of antiinflammatory therapy?

<p>See decrease in swelling, pain, stiffness, and tenderness of a joint or muscle area. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What intervention should be included in regards to drug administration of antiinflammatory therapy?

<p>Drugs are often better tolerated if taken with food, milk, or an antacid to avoid irritation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being educated on the usage of antiinflammatory drugs, what information includes appropriate education?

<p>Inform prescriber of any adverse effects that become severe or if signs of bleeding or GI pain occur. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should you as the nurse educate the patient on regarding enteric-coated tablets?

<p>Should not be crushed or chewed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which manifestation indicates salicylate toxicity?

<p>Dimness of vision. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the classification of nabumetone?

<p>Enolic acid derivative. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long may therapeutic effects be seen with NSAIDs?

<p>3 to 4 weeks. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports taking acetaminophen with a dose of ASA, caffeine, and acetaminophen. What interaction should the nurse be most concerned about?

<p>Hepatotoxicity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most commonly used NSAID?

<p>Ibuprofen. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What classification of NSAID is naproxen?

<p>Propionic acid derivative. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When planning care for a patient receiving NSAIDs, which intervention is most appropriate to minimize the risk of gastrointestinal (GI) distress?

<p>Administer the medication with food, milk, or an antacid. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which therapeutic action are NSAIDs known for?

<p>Antipyretic. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A person is being given a low dose of Aspirin as prophylatic therapy due to risk factors, what dosage will they be given?

<p>81 mg - 325 mg. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are 3 common properties that all NSAIDs share?

<p>Antipyretic, analgesic, antiinflammatory. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has mild to moderate osteoarthritis, R.A., and gouty arthritis. What medication is common for this indication?

<p>Nabumetone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the body has what adverse affect does it need to be given NSAIDs?

<p>Localized protective response stimulated by injury to tissues which can wall off tissues. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some adverse effects of COX-2 inhibitors?

<p>Diarrhea, sinusitis, headache. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is on long-term medication needs, what is true regarding Total Joint Arthroplasty(TJA)?

<p>NSAIDs need to be stopped for surgery. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed an NSAID for chronic pain. Which intervention is most important to include in the patient's plan of care?

<p>Administer a PPI concurrently. (A), Monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal bleeding. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is educating a patient about the long-term use of NSAIDs. Which potential adverse effect is most critical to emphasize?

<p>Increased risk of cardiovascular thrombotic events (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed low-dose aspirin (81 mg daily). Which statement indicates an understanding of the purpose for this treatment?

<p>It helps prevent blood clots. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child has a fever and is experiencing mild pain. Which medication is the safest to administer for fever and pain relief?

<p>Ibuprofen (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking aspirin reports tinnitus. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

<p>Hold the next dose of aspirin and notify the healthcare provider. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 60-year-old patient is prescribed indomethacin for acute gouty arthritis. Considering the patient's age, what potential adverse effect requires careful monitoring?

<p>Cardiovascular thrombotic events (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed ketorolac after surgery. What teaching should the nurse emphasize related to this medication?

<p>This medication is for short-term use; do not exceed 5 days. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with osteoarthritis is prescribed ibuprofen. What indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

<p>Decreased joint pain and stiffness (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known sulfa allergy is prescribed an anti-inflammatory medication. Which medication should the nurse question?

<p>Celecoxib (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed allopurinol for chronic gout. The nurse recognizes that allopurinol:

<p>Prevents uric acid production (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking probenecid for gout should be taught:

<p>Probenecid inhibits the reabsorption of uric acid in the kidneys, increasing the excretion of uric acid. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed colchicine. What adverse effect is most important for the nurse to teach the patient?

<p>It may cause short-term leukopenia and bleeding into the GI or urinary tracts (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient report taking glucosamine and warfarin (Coumadin). Why should this patient by monitored?

<p>Glucosamine enhances effects of warfarin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory values are most important for the nurse to monitor when a patient is on a high dose of ibuprofen?

<p>Renal function studies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is caring for a patient taking an NSAID. Which statement should the nurse include in the patient's education plan?

<p>The therapeutic effects may not be seen for 3 to 4 weeks. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which antacids provide relief from acid-related disorders?

<p>Neutralizing acid secretions in the stomach. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are magnesium salts often combined with aluminum or calcium salts in antacid preparations?

<p>To counteract the constipating effects of aluminum and calcium. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST concerning risk associated with the use of magnesium-containing antacids in patients with renal failure?

<p>Accumulation of magnesium leading to hypermagnesemia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should long-term self-medication with antacids be discouraged without medical evaluation?

<p>Antacids may mask symptoms of serious underlying diseases, such as malignancy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do H₂ antagonists relieve symptoms of hyperacidity-related conditions?

<p>By competitively blocking the H₂ receptor of acid-producing parietal cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial step to consider when administering H₂ receptor antagonists to a patient who is also taking antacids?

<p>Administer the H₂ receptor antagonist 1 to 2 hours before the antacid for optimal results. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) achieve gastric acid suppression?

<p>By irreversibly binding to the H+/K+ ATPase enzyme in parietal cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind administering proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) in conjunction with antibiotics for treating H. pylori-induced ulcers?

<p>The PPIs reduce acid secretion, creating an environment more conducive to antibiotic efficacy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does sucralfate (Carafate) protect gastrointestinal ulcers?

<p>By forming a protective barrier that binds to the ulcer base, protecting it from pepsin and acid. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Misoprostol (Cytotec) is prescribed to patients taking NSAIDs to prevent gastric ulcers. What is the mechanism of action of misoprostol?

<p>It enhances local production of mucus and bicarbonate in the stomach, protecting the gastric mucosa. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action for adsorbent antidiarrheals?

<p>Coating the GI tract walls and binding to causative agents for elimination. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of antimotility drugs?

<p>Decreasing intestinal muscle tone and peristalsis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main action of probiotics in treating diarrhea?

<p>To supply missing bacteria to the GI tract and suppress the growth of diarrhea-causing bacteria. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of an antidiarrheal medication that works by coating the walls of the gastrointestinal tract and binding to the causative bacteria?

<p>Bismuth subsalicylate. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The antidiarrheal class of medications that is commonly used with adsorbents and opiates are:

<p>Anticholinergics. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with diarrhea is prescribed Lactobacillus acidophilus. The nurse understands that this medication will impact the diarrhea how?

<p>By supplying missing bacteria to the GI tract while also suppressing the growth of diarrhea-causing bacteria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed bismuth subsalicylate for diarrhea. Which potential adverse effect should the nurse educate the patient about?

<p>Metallic taste (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is taking an anticholinergic medication for diarrhea. Which adverse effect is most important for the nurse to teach the patient about?

<p>Blurred vision (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When providing care for a patient who is prescribed an opiate antidiarrheal, the nurse should monitor for which adverse effect?

<p>Respiratory depression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking digoxin is prescribed an adsorbent antidiarrheal. What is a potential concern with this combination?

<p>Decreased effectiveness of digoxin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason bismuth subsalicylate should not be given to children or teenagers with chickenpox or influenza?

<p>Risk of Reye's syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of narrow-angle glaucoma is experiencing diarrhea. Which type of antidiarrheal agent should the nurse avoid administering?

<p>Anticholinergics (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete for a patient being treated for diarrhea with antidiarrheals?

<p>Assess fluid volume status, input and output, and mucous membranes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed an antidiarrheal medication. When should the patient be instructed to notify their healthcare provider?

<p>If symptoms persist despite medication. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is considered a non-surgical treatment for constipation?

<p>Dietary fiber supplementation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the action of bulk-forming laxatives?

<p>Absorbing water to increase bulk and distend the bowel to initiate reflex bowel activity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed an emollient laxative for constipation. What is the mechanism of action of this type of laxative?

<p>Promoting more water and fat in the stools and lubricating the fecal material and intestinal walls. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is receiving polyethylene glycol (PEG) for constipation. What type of laxative is PEG?

<p>Hyperosmotic (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following explains how saline laxatives work?

<p>They increase osmotic pressure within the intestinal tract, causing more water to enter the intestines. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of laxative works by increasing peristalsis via intestinal nerve stimulation?

<p>Stimulant (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of peripherally acting opioid antagonists in treating constipation?

<p>Blocking entrance of opioid into the bowel. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed methylcellulose for constipation. What patient teaching is important?

<p>Take the medication with 6-8oz of water. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of renal insufficiency is prescribed a laxative for occasional constipation. Which type of laxative should be avoided?

<p>Saline laxatives (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason patients should be taught to avoid long-term use of laxatives?

<p>Decreased bowel tone and potential dependency (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports chronic constipation. What is an important nonpharmacological recommendation?

<p>Increase fluid intake (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed bisacodyl. What should the nurse include in patient's education?

<p>Give bisacodyl with water (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports severe abdominal pain, muscle weakness, cramps, and dizziness after using a laxative. What is the most important action?

<p>Instruct the patient to contact their prescribers. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Irritable Bowel Syndrome is a digestive disorder characterized by:

<p>Chronic intestinal discomfort with cramps, diarrhea, or constipation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical approach that patients with Irritable Bowel Syndrome utilize to cope with symptoms?

<p>Avoiding irritating foods or taking OTC laxatives and antidiarrheal drugs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient takes Alosetron to treat Irritable Bowel Syndrome, what symptom are they most likely suffering from?

<p>Diarrhea. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessment should the nurse prioritize for a patient who is starting Alosetron(Lotronex) for IBS?

<p>Assess the patient's liver function and cardiac history. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why would a patient be prescribed Lubiprostone for Irritable Bowel Syndrome?

<p>To relieve constipation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents to the clinic with Irritable Bowel Syndrome. What medication should the nurse expect to administer to this patient?

<p>Linzess. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During what type of diarrhea duration would you not recommend over the counter treatments, and would refer the client to their primary care provider?

<p>More than 4 weeks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of diarrhea treatment?

<p>Stopping the stool frequency (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common cause of acute diarrhea?

<p>Bacteria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common cause of chronic diarrhea?

<p>Diabetes Mellitus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing chronic diarrhea. What is the primary underlying mechanism by which diabetes contributes to chronic diarrhea?

<p>Damage to the autonomic nerves affecting gastrointestinal function. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a patient is prescribed bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) for mild diarrhea, what education should the nurse provide regarding side effects?

<p>Expect a metallic taste or blue tongue, but this is a temporary and harmless effect. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed loperamide for diarrhea. What mechanism of action should the nurse use to explain how this medication works?

<p>It decreases bowel motility, allowing more time for water absorption. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who has been taking an antidiarrheal medication complains of blurred vision and difficulty urinating. Which class of antidiarrheal medications is most likely responsible for these side effects?

<p>Anticholinergics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed lactobacillus acidophilus (Bacid) to manage antibiotic-induced diarrhea. How does this medication work to achieve a therapeutic effect?

<p>By providing missing bacteria to the GI tract and suppressing the growth of diarrhea-causing bacteria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed an adsorbent antidiarrheal medication. What instructions should the nurse include when administering this medication?

<p>Administer other medications at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after administering the adsorbent. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic diarrhea also has a history of glaucoma. Which type of antidiarrheal medication should be avoided for this patient?

<p>Anticholinergics. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When providing dietary guidance for a patient experiencing constipation, which of the following strategies should the nurse recommend as the initial approach?

<p>Increase dietary fiber intake with fruits, vegetables, and whole grains. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lactulose helps to reduce blood ammonia levels by converting ammonia to ammonium, which can then be eliminated by the body. For a patient taking lactulose four times a day, what therapeutic effect would indicate that the medication is working effectively?

<p>Improved mental status and reduced confusion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing constipation is prescribed docusate sodium. What should the nurse explain is the primary mechanism of action for this medication?

<p>Docusate sodium promotes more water and fat in the stools. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient with a history of renal insufficiency is prescribed Milk of Magnesia for occasional constipation. What potential adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

<p>Magnesium toxicity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed bisacodyl for constipation. What instructions should the nurse provide regarding its administration?

<p>Swallow bisacodyl whole and avoid taking it with milk, antacids, or juices. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who has been using stimulant laxatives long-term is now experiencing decreased bowel tone and dependency. What is the best approach to address this issue?

<p>Encourage a healthy, high-fiber diet and increased fluid intake. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Before administering belladonna alkaloids, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of which condition?

<p>Myasthenia Gravis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is newly diagnosed with Irritable Bowel Syndrome. What OTC treatments should the nurse inform them of that will minimize symptoms?

<p>OTC laxatives and antidiarrheal drugs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking warfarin has been prescribed an adsorbent for diarrhea. It is important for the nurse to assess the patient for bruising because use of warfarin with adsorbents interferes with the absorption of which vitamin?

<p>K (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A hospitalized patient is experiencing diarrhea. Which of the following does the nurse identify as adverse side effects of diphenoxylate with atropine therapy? (Select all that apply.)

<p>Blurred vision (A), Abdominal pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 48-year-old patient has been admitted with abdominal pain and states that she has not had a bowel movement for 4 days. Her abdomen is distended and slightly tender. Which laxative would be appropriate for this patient?

<p>No laxative should be given at this time. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antidiarrheal does the nurse associate with the development of adverse effects of urinary retention, headache, confusion, dry skin, rash, and blurred vision?

<p>Anticholinergics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which anticholinergic drugs like scopolamine reduce nausea?

<p>Binding to and blocking acetylcholine (ACh) receptors in the inner ear labyrinth. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed promethazine (Phenergan) for nausea. What is an important consideration regarding the administration route?

<p>PO and IM routes are preferred; IV route is common but not preferred. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed metoclopramide (Reglan). What should the nurse monitor for, especially with long-term use?

<p>Irreversible tardive dyskinesia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting is prescribed aprepitant. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

<p>Inhibiting substance P/neurokinin 1 receptors in the brainstem. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary use of tetrahydrocannabinoids like dronabinol?

<p>To stimulate appetite in patients with anorexia associated with weight loss. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiemetic class is most associated with the potential to cause a prolonged QTc interval?

<p>Serotonin blockers. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking warfarin reports using ginger for nausea. What is the primary concern with this combination?

<p>Increased risk of bleeding. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 2-month pregnant patient is experiencing severe morning sickness. After nonpharmacologic measures have failed, which antiemetic drug is MOST appropriate?

<p>Phosphorated carbohydrate solution. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing intervention is most important when administering antiemetics, considering their common adverse effects?

<p>Warning patients about driving or performing any hazardous tasks due to potential drowsiness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should antiemetics be administered to a patient receiving chemotherapy to prevent nausea and vomiting?

<p>30 to 60 minutes before chemotherapy begins. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed scopolamine for motion sickness. What condition in the patient's history would be a contraindication for this drug?

<p>Narrow-angle glaucoma. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prokinetic drugs are prescribed for a patient receiving continuous tube feedings. What is the primary benefit of using these drugs in this situation?

<p>Preventing aspiration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of antihistamine drugs in preventing nausea and vomiting?

<p>Inhibiting ACh by binding to H1 receptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a patient taking antiemetics, what is a critical instruction regarding alcohol consumption?

<p>Taking antiemetics with alcohol may cause severe central nervous system depression. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a general use for antiemetic drugs?

<p>Prevention and reduction of nausea and vomiting (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main ingredient of Tetrahydrocannabinoids?

<p>Marijuana (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of Antidopaminergic drugs?

<p>Promethazine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what ways does tetrahydrocannabinoids affect nausea and vomiting?

<p>They alter mood and body's perception of its surroundings, which may help relieve nausea and vomiting (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why aren't Hydroxyzine injections done via IV?

<p>Because it can only done PO or IM (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who has been using Metoclopramide long term is now exhibiting involuntary movements of their tongue. What is the correct course of action?

<p>Notify the provider immediately, these movements are a sign of tardive dyskinesia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effects does ginger have?

<p>Anorexia, nausea and vomiting, skin reactions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is amisulpride used for?

<p>Newest (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main action of prokinetic drugs?

<p>Cause CTZ to be desensitized to impulses it receives from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs is of most concern due to associated cardiac dysrhythmias?

<p>Droperidol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should nurses assess for when pertaining to antiemetic drugs?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 54 year old male patient starts to feel discomfort in his chest. What type of drug would MOST cause concern?

<p>Serotonin Blockers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes emesis?

<p>It is the forcible emptying of gastric and, occasionally, intestinal contents. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes nausea?

<p>It is an unpleasant feeling that often precedes vomiting (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of nausea and vomiting?

<p>Migraine induced (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do Vomiting Center (VC) and Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) share in common?

<p>Once stimulated, cause the vomiting reflex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do most antiemetics function?

<p>Most work by blocking one of the vomiting pathways, thus blocking the stimulus that induces vomiting. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient gets a prescription of a transdermal patch for nausea, how long will it release for.

<p>72-hour transdermal patch that releases 1 mg (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true regarding adverse effects and antiemetic drugs?

<p>The adverse effects vary according to drug used and stem from their nonselective blockade of various receptors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with terminal cancer and has no chemotherapy induced nausea or vomiting. Which of the following should the nurse expect from dronabinol twice a day?

<p>Stimulates his appetite (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Osteoarthritis (OA)

Progressive, degenerative joint disease characterized by the breakdown of cartilage.

Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)

Chronic, systemic autoimmune disease causing inflammation of the joints.

Musculoskeletal Assessment

Techniques to assess musculoskeletal health, including expected and unexpected findings, electrolyte levels, and post-arthrocentesis care.

Musculoskeletal Disorders

Prioritize care for acute bone injuries, prepare patients for CT scans, and manage osteoporosis, osteomyelitis, fractures, and joint replacements.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GI Assessment

Assessment of stoma, post-endoscopy care, detection of GI abnormalities in barium studies, and preventative health strategies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GI Disorders

Hernias, ulcers, colitis, Crohn's, GERD management, diet therapy, and safety with NSAIDs, focusing on best nursing actions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GI Medications

Indications, actions, effects, adverse reactions, and teaching for meclizine, cimetidine, carafate, NSAIDs, and proton pump inhibitors.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mental Health Care

Managing anorexia behaviors, promoting independence for those with eating disorders, PTSD treatment and interventions for dissociative identity disorder.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bariatric surgery

Post-op care and long-term complications from bariatric surgery

Signup and view all the flashcards

Review materials

Review of boxes, tables, and safety alerts in textbooks for additional information.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Clinical Math

Calculations related to medication dosages, fluid balance, and other clinical applications.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Strains

Injuries to muscles or tendons, often from overextension or overexertion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sprains

Injuries to ligaments, commonly from overextension or overexertion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Severe strains

Complete muscle/tendon rupture causing internal bleeding, pain & inflammation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Severe sprains

Complete ligament tear leading to joint instability and inability to ambulate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RICE

Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation: used to manage first and second degree strains/sprains.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fracture

Disruption in bone continuity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Complete fracture

Break across the entire bone width.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incomplete fracture

Break partially through the bone cortex without fragment displacement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Closed fracture

Fracture contained within the skin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Open fracture

Bone protrudes through the skin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Avulsion fracture

Tendon or ligament tearing off a bone segment at insertion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Comminuted fracture

Bone shattered into multiple fragments.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Compression fracture

Excessive force collapses spongy bone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Depressed fracture

Bone fragments driven inward.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Displaced fracture

Fracture fragments misaligned.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Greenstick fracture

One side bent, other fractured.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Oblique fracture

Occurs at ~45-degree angle.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Spiral fracture

Fracture wraps around the bone shaft.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Impacted fracture

Bone segments wedged together.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Closed reduction

Manually realigning fractured bone segments.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Open reduction

Surgical realignment with incision.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Internal fixation

Hardware to stabilize bone fragments.

Signup and view all the flashcards

External fixation

External frame stabilizes displaced fragments.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Traction

Weights/force to reduce fracture and relieve spasms.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Skeletal traction

Pins/wires surgically secured to bone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Skin traction

Harness/boot secures extremity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Neurovascular compromise

Decreased blood flow/oxygenation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Compartment syndrome

Increased pressure in extremity compartment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fasciotomy

Incision through fascia to relieve pressure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Venous Thromboemboli (VTE)

Clot in large extremity vessels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Musculoskeletal Injuries Impact

Negative effects on mobility, sensation, and ADLs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tendons

Connect muscles to bones

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ligaments

Connect bones to bones, or bones to cartilage

Signup and view all the flashcards

First-degree strain

Mild inflammation, ROM unaffected. Lasts days.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Second-degree strain

Muscle spasms, inflammation, ecchymosis & pain. Lasts weeks.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Third-degree strain

Muscle/tendon rupture causing internal bleeding and pain; may need surgery.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First-degree sprain

Stretching or minimal tearing of ligament fibers; joint intact

Signup and view all the flashcards

Second-degree sprain

Moderate tearing of ligament fibers; joint remains intact

Signup and view all the flashcards

Third-degree sprain

Complete ligament tear; patient unable to ambulate due to instability

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sprain/Strain Diagnosis

History, exam, radiography, ultrasound, MRI.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RICE acronym

Rest, ice, compression, elevation

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sprain/Strain Complications

Chronically unstable joints, bursitis, tendinitis, compartment syndrome

Signup and view all the flashcards

Disorders increasing fracture risk

Cushing's, osteoporosis, Paget's disease

Signup and view all the flashcards

High-energy fracture causes

Motor vehicle accidents, sports, bicycle accidents

Signup and view all the flashcards

Low-energy fracture causes

Fractures from falling

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bone

Dense, irregular connective tissue made of osteoblasts and osteocytes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fracture Antibiotics

Prevent osteomyelitis and wound infections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fracture Movement/Function

Key to prevent muscle atrophy and contractures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hemorrhagic Shock Symptoms

Low blood pressure, tachycardia, tachypnea

Signup and view all the flashcards

Neurovascular Compromise Signs

“Six Ps”: pain, pressure, paralysis, pallor, paresthesia, pulselessness

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rhabdomyolysis Indication

Myoglobin release from damaged muscle

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rhabdomyolysis Urine

Tea-colored urine

Signup and view all the flashcards

Malunion

Bone fails to heal correctly

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nonunion

Fracture fails to heal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fracture edema management

Elevate the limb above the heart

Signup and view all the flashcards

Compartment syndrome causes

Burns, vascular injuries, penetrating trauma, insect bites, animal bites

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a strain?

Injury to a muscle or tendon caused by tearing or stretching.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a sprain?

Injury to ligaments caused by stretching or tearing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are first-degree strains?

Pain, inflammation, and minimal impact on range of motion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are second-degree strains?

Actual tearing of muscle and tendon fibers, with spasms, inflammation and ecchymosis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are first-degree sprains?

Stretching and/or minimal tearing of ligament fibers, with intact joint function.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are second-degree sprains?

Moderate amount of tearing in the ligament, but joint remains intact

Signup and view all the flashcards

How are sprains and strains diagnosed?

History and physical, confirmed by radiography, ultrasound, or MRI.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Who is most at risk for fractures?

The incidence of fractures is highest in the young and the older population.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What causes high-energy trauma?

Motor vehicle accidents, contact sports and bicycle accidents.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is bone?

Dense, irregular connective tissue made up of osteoblasts and osteocytes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

How do you treat pain associated with fractures?

Narcotics and anti-inflammatory medications

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a closed reduction?

A fracture treatment where the fractured bone segments are manually manipulated and realigned.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are signs of excessive bleeding?

Excessive bleeding leads to symptoms of hemorrhagic shock.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What does myoglobin measure in fractures?

Myoglobin is released from damaged muscle and may indicate rhabdomyolysis

Signup and view all the flashcards

How does rhabdomyolysis affect urine?

The patient's urine may be tea-colored due to ruptured blood cells.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Malunion?

Fractures fail to heal in the correct anatomical alignment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

How can you reduce pain and edema from a fracture?

Elevate the affected extremity above the level of the heart.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Why are pulmonary emboli so dangerous?

Pulmonary emboli clog the pulmonary vasculature hindering gas exchange.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rhabdomyolysis symptoms

Severe flank pain and dark tea-colored urine.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Why is wound care so vital?

Using strict aseptic technique minimizes the risk of infection

Signup and view all the flashcards

Connective Tissue

Widely distributed tissue providing support, structure & insulation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ground substance

Clear, viscous extracellular fluid aiding cellular adhesion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fibroblasts

Cells that synthesize the matrix in connective tissue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Weight-bearing joints

Joints affected by osteoarthritis, such as the knees and hips.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Modifiable risk factor

Risk factor that can be changed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Occupational Risk (OA)

Repetitive knee bending puts stress on the joints.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA: Knee Demographic

Knees most common in Black women.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA: Hand Demographic

Most common in females.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Viscoelastic

Lengthen under tension, return to normal at rest.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cartilage Composition

Primarily water, collagen, proteoglycans, and elastin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cartilage Function

Protection, smooth gliding, load dispersion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteophytes

New cartilage and bone growth along joint lines, causes pain.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Heberden's nodes

Distal interphalangeal joint osteophytes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bouchard's nodes

Proximal interphalangeal joint osteophytes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cartilage Loss

Loss leads to joint deterioration in OA.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Synovium

Membrane lining noncartilaginous surfaces to lubricate joints.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Synovium Effects

Thickens, overproduces fluid, restricts movement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chronic Effusions

Overproduction of synovial fluid, may stretch ligaments.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Joint Laxity

Collateral ligaments laxity, mechanical instability.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Muscle Atrophy

Decreased use leads to this.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Clinical Signs

Gradual pain increases with use, decreased motion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Crepitus in Joints

Crackling sound/feeling in joint due to cartilage breakdown.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Diagnosis Criteria

Clinical exam, patient >45 with usage-related pain.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoarthritis Diagnosis

Plain radiographs and physical examination

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radiographic OA sign

Joint-space narrowing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Treatment Goals

No cure; treatments aim to decrease pain and improve mobility.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Non-Pharm OA Therapy

Weight loss, PT, assistive devices.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hand OA Criteria

Pain, aching, and stiffness plus listed features.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Pharmacological Interventions

Acetaminophen, NSAIDs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAID Action

Cox inhibition reduces prostaglandin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAID Monitoring Risks

GI bleed, kidney injury, cardiovascular events.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Acetaminophen Action

Descending serotonergic pathways' activation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Geriatric NSAID Cautions

Polypharmacy, comorbidities, renal issues.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Complications

Decreased function and chronic pain, toxic medication effects.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Surgical Fusion

Joint function eliminating movement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Total Joint Replacement

Surgically replaces joint surface with a prosthesis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoarthritis Prevalence

Most common type of arthritis, affecting nearly 27 million in the U.S.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoarthritis Joint Impact

Joints like knees, hips, spine, and hands are affected.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Shoulder and Elbow OA

Typically occurs after trauma, inflammation, or overuse.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoarthritis Risk Factors

Age, obesity, gender, and repetitive motions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obesity and Osteoarthritis

Excess weight increases stress on joints, promoting degeneration.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Occupation and OA

Repetitive knee bending or physical labor.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoarthritis and Age

25-34 age group: 0.1%; over 55 age group: 80%.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Joint Dynamics

Biological, chemical, and viscoelastic changes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Affected Joint Structures

Cartilage, synovium, and subchondral bone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cartilage's Role

Provide joint protection and disperse loads.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteophytes Formation

Projections of new cartilage and bone growth.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hand Joint Deformities

Bouchard's nodes; Heberden's nodes

Signup and view all the flashcards

Synovium Definition

Membrane lining the noncartilaginous surfaces of mobile joints.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Synovial Fluid and Laxity

Synovial fluid overproduction may cause joint laxity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoarthritis Symptoms

Progressive pain with joint use & decreased range of motion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Crepitus Definition

Crackling or grating sound due to air or gas under the skin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Lab Testing Purpose

To rule out RA, and monitor side effects of OA medications.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Non-drug Therapies

Weight loss, exercise, and assistive devices.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Non-Pharmacologic OA Treatments

Weight loss, heat/cold, exercise, assistive devices.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hip OA Criteria

Pain and two of three: ESR<20, osteophytes, narrowing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Knee OA Criteria

Knee pain plus three: age, stiffness, crepitus, tenderness, enlargement, warmth.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Pain Relief

Acetaminophen (Tylenol) and NSAIDs

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAID Side Effects

GI bleeding and ulceration due to GI protective function inhibition.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Refractory Treatment

Corticosteroids or hyaluronans injected into the joint space.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Intra-articular Action

Inhibit inflammation, provide joint lubrication.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAID Concomitant Use

Avoid multiple NSAIDs due to bleeding/ulcer risk.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Opioid Analgesics Action

Bind to opioid receptors to decrease pain.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAID Risks

Cardiovascular and gastrointestinal events.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAID Monitoring

Use lowest effective dose and monitor renal function.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAID Contraindications

Coronary artery bypass graft surgery and renal failure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Polypharmacy Definition

Over-the-counter medications.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAIDs Interactions

Antiplatelet or anticoagulant therapy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA Surgical Interventions

Arthroscopic irrigation and joint replacement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Arthroscopic Irrigation

Irrigating the joint to remove debris.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Synovectomy Action

Removing excessive synovial membrane growth.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Surgical Fusion Goal

Fusing joint surfaces to eliminate movement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAID Action Explanation

Cyclooxygenase inhibition reduces inflammation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Home Healthcare Referral

Assesses safety hazards and teaches self-management.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoporosis

A chronic condition characterized by deterioration of bone tissue and density, leading to an increased risk of fractures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Primary Risk Factors (Osteoporosis)

Risk factors that cannot be changed, such as age, race, or family history, as well as lifestyle choices.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary Risk Factors (Osteoporosis)

Other disease states or medication use that increase the risk of osteoporosis, like Cushing's disease or steroid use.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bone Loss (Osteoporosis)

Bone loss that occurs when bone resorption outpaces bone rebuilding, resulting in decreased bone mineral density.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Common Fracture Sites (Osteoporosis)

Fragility fractures that occur in the spine, hip, and distal radius, often after minor falls or strains.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Treatment Focus (Osteoporosis)

Prevention and early screening, weight loss, muscle strengthening exercises, and a healthy lifestyle.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteomyelitis

Infection of the bone, classified as acute, subacute, or chronic.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hematogenous Osteomyelitis

Osteomyelitis from infectious spread via the bloodstream.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nonhematogenous Osteomyelitis

Osteomyelitis resulting from open fractures or trauma.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteomyelitis Diagnosis

Bone biopsy is the 'gold standard' for confirming osteomyelitis, involving analysis of infectious bone tissue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medical Management (Osteomyelitis)

Antibiotic therapy and surgical debridement to remove infected tissue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Surgical Debridement (Osteomyelitis)

Surgical removal of infected tissue/bone, indicated when antibiotics fail or abscesses form.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Manifestations of Osteomyelitis

Constant bone pain, edema, tenderness, erythema, and warmth.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Primary Risk Factors for Osteoporosis

Nonmodifiable factors such as age, race, and lifestyle choices like sedentary behavior, inadequate calcium intake, and smoking.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary Risk Factors for Osteoporosis

Disease states (like Cushing's) or medication use (such as steroids) that increase osteoporosis risk.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pathophysiology of Osteoporosis

Bone remodeling process where bone resorption exceeds bone rebuilding, leading to decreased bone mineral density and increased fracture risk.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Clinical Manifestation of Osteoporosis

A fragility fracture that often occurs in the spine, hip, or distal radius after a fall or strain.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Treatment Focus for Osteoporosis

Focus on preventative measures and early screening; weight loss and muscle-strengthening exercises are also highly recommended.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Lifestyle Changes for Osteoporosis Prevention

Weight-bearing exercises, avoidance of smoking, and limiting alcohol intake.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Complications of Osteoporosis

Increased risk of falls, vertebral compression fractures, and hip fractures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Classifications of Osteomyelitis

Acute (less than 2 weeks), Subacute (2 weeks to 3 months) and Chronic (longer than 3 months).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Common Pathogens in Contiguous Osteomyelitis

Staphylococcus aureus, coagulase-negative staphylococci, and aerobic gram-negative bacilli.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Clinical Hallmark of Osteomyelitis

Bone necrosis and the development of sinus tracts between the bone and skin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Manifestations of Acute Osteomyelitis

Pain not relieved by rest, swelling, tenderness, warmth at the site, fever, nausea, and fatigue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

H2-Receptor Antigen Antagonists (H2RAs)

Reduce acid production longer than antacids but slower to take effect.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)

Reduce the last step in gastric acid secretion and stop the acid pumps in the stomach. More effective in reducing gastric acid secretion than H2RAs

Signup and view all the flashcards

Common H2-blockers

Cimetidine, famotidine, nizatidine, ranitidine.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OTC PPIs

lansoprazole, omeprazole

Signup and view all the flashcards

Drug Interactions

Cimetidine interacts with warfarin, phenytoin, and theophylline. PPIs can interfere with the absorption of ketoconazole, ampicillin, iron, and digoxin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

H2RAs Action

1 hour onset, 12-hour duration.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PPIs Action

Delayed onset, up to 24-hour duration.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Proton pump inhibitors action

Inhibits proton pump activity to suppress gastric acid secretion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antacid Administration

Administer on an empty stomach, 30 minutes before or after sucralfate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

H2-Receptor Antagonists (H2RAs)

Reduce acid production longer than antacids but are slower to take effect; decrease acid production in stomach lining by blocking histamine-2.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cimetidine Interactions

Cimetidine can interact with warfarin, phenytoin, and theophylline with long-term use.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PPI Interactions

Interfere with the absorption of ketoconazole, ampicillin, iron, and digoxin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

H2RAs Onset and Duration

Have an onset of action of 1 hour and a duration of about 12 hours.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PPIs Onset and Duration

Have a delayed onset of action and a duration of action lasting up to 24 hours.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antacids

Medications used to neutralize or buffer stomach acid, increasing gastric pH.

Signup and view all the flashcards

How PPIs Work

Gastric acids are reduced; enzymes that produce gastric acid are inhibited.

Signup and view all the flashcards

How H2 Blockers Work

Blocks histamine-2 receptors on parietal cells, reducing acid production.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Misoprostol action

Synthetic prostaglandin E1 analog that replaces depleted gastric prostaglandins, decreasing acid secretion and increasing mucus production.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoarthritis (Epidemiology)

Most common form of arthritis, affecting millions in the U.S.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA: Risk Factors

Age, female sex, obesity, occupation, previous injury, and genetics.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoarthritis: Clinical Manifestations

Progressive pain, decreased range of motion, tenderness, swelling, and crepitus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA: Diagnosis

History, lab tests, and radiographs to confirm the condition.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA: Medications

Acetaminophen, NSAIDs, corticosteroid injections, and opioids.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoarthritis: Complications

Chronic pain, decreased function, and toxic effects of medication.

Signup and view all the flashcards

OA: Surgical Management

Arthroscopic irrigation or debridement, synovectomy, or surgical fusion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoarthritis: Nursing Interventions

Nursing actions include pain management and mobility support.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rheumatoid Arthritis: Pathophysiology

Autoimmune disease with inflammation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rheumatoid Arthritis: Risk factors

First-degree relative with RA, cigarette smoke, bacteria and viruses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RA: Clinical Manifestations

Joint pain, morning stiffness, fatigue, and irreversible joint damage.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rheumatoid Arthritis: Diagnosis

Clinical manifestations, laboratory tests, and radiographs or ultrasound.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RA: Treatment

Range of motion exercises, aerobic exercise, physical therapy, and nutrition.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rheumatoid Arthritis: Medications

Analgesics, anti-inflammatories, glucocorticoids and DMARDs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rheumatoid Arthritis: Surgical Management

Joint replacement and bone fusion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rheumatoid Arthritis: Complications

Decreased function, permanent joint deformity, infection, and cancer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rheumatoid Arthritis: Nursing Diagnoses

Pain, ineffective sleep patterns, and self-care deficit.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RA: Nursing Interventions-Teaching

Adherence to treatment plan, reporting infection signs, and immunosuppressive therapy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Musculoskeletal functions

The musculoskeletal system allows body movement, protects vital organs, produces blood cells, supports the body, and stores minerals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Periosteum

Outer membrane of the bone crucial for nutrient supply and fracture repair.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hormonal bone influences

Hormones like estrogen, calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, and growth hormone that influence bone metabolism and growth.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Muscle Types

Include skeletal, smooth, and cardiac types, each with unique structures and functions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Joint Definition

Point where two or more bones meet allowing mobility or stability.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Synovial Joints

Joints with a joint capsule, synovial membrane, synovial fluid, and articular cartilage enabling a wide range of motion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cartilage Definition

Connective tissue that provides cushioning and support at the joints, absorbs shock, and facilitates smooth movement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bursa

Fluid-filled sacs that cushion and reduce friction between bones, tendons, and muscles around joints.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ligament Function

Connective tissues connecting bones to each other to stabilize and support joints.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tendon Function

Connective tissues connecting muscles to bones, transmitting force to create movement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fascia Definition

Connective tissue layer binding structures together providing support and structure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gait

The manner of walking including phases; stance and swing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Goniometry

Technique using a goniometer to measure the available range of motion in a joint.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Neurovascular Assessment

Physical examination components to check nerve and blood vessel integrity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Relevant Lab Studies

Diagnostic tests for musculoskeletal issues including calcium, Vitamin D, and hormone levels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

X-Ray

Imaging used to visualize bones and joints.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Computed Tomography

Diagnostic test providing detailed cross-sectional images of the bones and soft tissues.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Magnetic Resonance Imaging

Diagnostic test that uses magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of soft tissues, bones, and joints.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Arthroscopy

Invasive procedure used to visualize the inside of a joint, diagnose, and repair joint problems.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Arthrocentesis

Joint aspiration; collects synovial fluid for analysis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sarcopenia

Age-related loss of muscle mass and strength.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bones function

Bones provide the body structure and protect the vital organs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Spinal curvatures

Normal spinal curvature includes cervical, thoracic, and lumbar to allow for balance, posture and shock absorption

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoporosis Pathophysiology

Bone resorption exceeds bone formation, leading to decreased bone density and increased fracture risk.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoblasts

Bone-forming cells responsible for synthesizing bone matrix and initiating mineralization.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoclasts

Bone-resorbing cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue, releasing minerals, and remodeling bone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Primary Osteoporosis Risk Factors

Risk factors that are inherent and difficult to change, such as age, gender, and genetics.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary Osteoporosis Risk Factors

Risk factors resulting from lifestyle, medications, or other diseases that can be modified to reduce osteoporosis risk.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pathologic Fractures

Fractures that occur in weakened bone due to minimal trauma, often associated with osteoporosis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bone Density Tests

Measurement of bone mineral density (BMD) using techniques such as DXA to diagnose osteoporosis and assess fracture risk.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Quantitative Computed Tomography (QCT)

Imaging technique providing detailed 3D assessment of bone structure and density.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vitamin D and Calcium

Supplement to support bone health, especially when dietary intake is insufficient.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Surgical Debridement

Surgical removal of dead or infected bone tissue to promote healing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Surgical Management of Osteomyelitis

Surgical procedure to address bone infections by removing infected tissue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Arthroplasty

Replacement of a joint with prosthetic components.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteomyelitis Pain

Pain that is associated with infection and does not improve with rest.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radiological Studies (Osteomyelitis)

Imaging techniques used to diagnose osteomyelitis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antibiotic therapy

Use of antibiotic medications to eliminate bone infections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Musculoskeletal trauma

Injuries resulting from external forces on the body's structural components.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Epidemiology

Study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified populations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pathophysiological processes

Altered physiological processes due to injury or disease.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ecchymosis

Swelling or bruising of the skin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Meniscus Injury: Medial Tear

Medial meniscus tear due to twisting or rotation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Meniscus Injury: Lateral Tear

Lateral meniscus tear due to sliding or subluxation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

McMurray's test

Physical exam test to determine a meniscus tear.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

Neuropathy caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phalen's test

Test for carpel tunnel syndrome by fully flexing wrist.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Immobilization devices

Devices used for fractures, slings, casts, or external fixators.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fat Embolism symptoms

Sudden dyspnea, chest pain, anxiety after surgery.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phantom limb pain

Painful sensation in limb from which you have an amputation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Painful nerve tumor after amputation

Neuroma

Signup and view all the flashcards

GI System Function

Main functions include: Intake, digestion, and elimination of food and fluids.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mouth Function

Initial GI anatomy where mechanical and chemical digestion starts.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Esophagus Function

Transports food from the pharynx to the stomach via peristalsis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Stomach's Role

Stores, mixes, and digests food.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Liver Function

Produces bile to aid digestion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gallbladder Function

Stores and concentrates bile produced by the liver.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pancreas

Produces enzymes to digest food and insulin to regulate blood sugar.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Small Intestine

Where the majority of nutrient absorption occurs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Large Intestine

Absorbs water and electrolytes, forming feces.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GI System History

Involves an interview and nutritional assessment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

MUST Tool Factors

BMI, weight loss, and acute disease effect.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Abdominal Assessment Order

Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Oral Mucosa Inspection

Assessing the oral cavity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Auscultating Bowel Sounds

Assessing bowel motility by listening.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Percussion Sounds

Tympany indicates air; dullness indicates organs or masses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Abdominal Palpation

Determining organ size and detecting tenderness.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Splenomegaly Definition

Enlargement of the spleen.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GI Lab Studies

Serum, urine, and stool.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GI Imaging Studies

Ultrasonography, barium studies, and endoscopy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hiatal Hernia

A condition where a portion of the stomach protrudes upward through the esophageal hiatus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hiatal Hernia Epidemiology

55 to 60% of affected individuals are over 50 years old.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hiatal Hernia Type 1 Symptoms

Heartburn, regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, belching, and anemia.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hiatal Hernia Type 2 Symptoms

Feeling full, breathless, or suffocated after eating; chest pain resembling angina; increased symptoms when lying flat.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hiatal Hernia Diagnosis

Upper abdominal X-ray, endoscopy, barium swallow with fluoroscopy, and esophagogastroduodenoscopy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hiatal Hernia Medications

Antacids, proton pump inhibitors, H2-receptor antagonists, and complementary medicine.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hiatal Hernia Nursing Assessments

Lifestyle changes, dysphagia assessment, GERD manifestations, nausea/vomiting, and anemia.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hiatal Hernia Teaching

Limit spicy foods, caffeine, chocolate, carbonated drinks, alcohol, and certain medications; eat meals 2 hours before lying down.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GERD Pathophysiology

Retrograde flow of GI contents into the esophagus, causing inflammation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GERD Symptoms

Heartburn, regurgitating acid, inflammation of the esophagus, and chest pain.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GERD Risk Factors

Hiatal hernia, LES hypotension, esophageal motility loss, increased abdominal pressure, and large meals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GERD Diagnosis

Trial of PPIs, ambulatory pH monitoring, EGD, esophageal manometry, and cardiac markers.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GERD Medications

Antacids, histamine receptor antagonists, prokinetic medications, and PPIs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GERD Nursing Actions

Administer meds, position patient on right side with HOB elevated, provide small, frequent meals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GERD Assessment

Clinical manifestations are due to irritation from gastric material in the esophagus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gastritis

Inflammation of the stomach lining caused by factors like chronic stress, irritating foods, or pathogens.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Epigastric pain

Abdominal pain in the upper-mid region of the abdomen.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Biopsy (Gastric)

Diagnosis method involving tissue sample removal for microscopic examination.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Upper GI X-ray Series

Procedure involving imaging of the upper digestive tract using X-rays.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Urea Breath Testing

Test measuring exhaled CO2 to detect Helicobacter pylori infection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vagotomy

Surgical severance of the vagus nerve to reduce gastric acid secretion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gastrectomy

Surgical removal of part or all of the stomach.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gastroenteritis

Inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract caused by viral, bacterial, or parasitic infection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Stool Culture

Diagnostic test involving analysis of stool samples to identify pathogens.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Poor Skin Turgor

Low skin elasticity, a sign of dehydration.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hyperactive Bowel Sounds

Increased bowel activity, often associated with diarrhea.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)

Disease characterized by sores in the lining of the stomach or duodenum.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Damage to Gastric Mucosa

Damage to the stomach lining, making it susceptible to ulcer formation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Erosions Due to Gastric Acid

Lesions in the stomach or duodenum caused by the corrosive effects of gastric acid.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Upper GI Endoscopy

Diagnostic procedure to visualize the upper digestive tract using a camera.

Signup and view all the flashcards

H2 Receptor Antagonists

Medications that reduce gastric acid by blocking histamine (H2) receptors.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nonhealing Ulcers Indications

Nonhealing peptic ulcers lead to what?

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bleeding Ulcers Indications

Bleeding ulcers indication

Signup and view all the flashcards

Peptic Ulcer

A break in the lining of the stomach (gastric) or the first part of the small intestine (duodenum).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gastric Juice corrosive action

What acid erodes in the stomach?

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medical management of PUD

How is peptic ulcer disease medically managed?

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hernia definition

Protrusion of intestines through abdominal opening.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hernia causes

Straining, lifting heavy objects, sudden twists, pulls.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hernia diagnosis

Physical exam and herniography.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hernia symptoms

Bulge, swelling, abdominal distention, nausea, vomiting, pain.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hemorrhoids Definition

Swollen or dilated veins in anorectal area.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hemorrhoid diagnosis

Digital exam, anoscopy, sigmoidoscopy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hemorrhoid symptoms

Bleeding, itching, pain.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IBS definition

Cause unknown, abdominal pain, altered bowel habits.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IBS Diagnosis

Rome IV criteria, Manning criteria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medical Management for IBS

Medications, dietary modification and alternative therapies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IBS symptoms

Diarrhea, constipation, flatus, abdominal pain.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IBD Definition

Crohn's, ulcerative colitis, unknown cause, intestinal inflammation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IBD diagnosis

Colonoscopy, sigmoidoscopy, barium enema.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IBD symptoms

Persistent diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever, weight loss.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Celiac Disease Definition

Immune reaction to gluten causing small intestine inflammation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Celiac diagnosis

Endoscopy, blood tests for antibodies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Celiac treatment

Consult dietitian, gluten-free diet.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Celiac Symptoms

Diarrhea, Steatorrhea, Flatulence, Weight loss.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Diverticulitis definition

Outpouching of intestinal wall becomes inflamed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Diverticulitis Diagnosis

Abdominal x-ray, CT scan.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Diverticulitis Treatment

Broad-spectrum antibiotics, clear liquid diet.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Diverticulitis Symptoms

Abdominal pain, fever, leukocytosis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Appendicitis definition

Opening to appendix becomes blocked.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Appendicitis diagnosis

Clinical presentation, ultrasound, CT scan.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Appendicitis symptoms

Periumbilical pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Who Does Celiac Disease Affect

More common in females, familial, immune reaction to gluten

Signup and view all the flashcards

Diverticulitis diet

Antibiotics and clear liquid diet to reduce inflammation

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is BMI?

A measure of body fat based on height and weight.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Underweight BMI

BMI less than 18.5 kg/m²

Signup and view all the flashcards

Normal weight BMI

BMI between 18.5-24.9 kg/m²

Signup and view all the flashcards

Overweight BMI

BMI between 25.0-29.9 kg/m²

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obesity (Class 1) BMI

BMI between 30.0-34.9 kg/m²

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obesity (Class 2) BMI

BMI between 35.0-39.9 kg/m²

Signup and view all the flashcards

Extreme Obesity (Class 3) BMI

BMI greater than 40.0 kg/m²

Signup and view all the flashcards

Long-term Obesity Effects

Increased hospital stays, healthcare costs, and risk of comorbidities.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obesity Pathophysiology

Relationship between appetite, energy expenditure, BMR, leptin, & activity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Leptin?

A hormone that helps regulate energy balance by inhibiting hunger.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Diagnosis Laboratory Testing

To identify secondary causes and evaluate comorbidities.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obesity Treatment

Weight-loss, diet, physical, and behavioral therapy, and medications.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bariatric Surgery Types

Restrictive, malabsorptive, or combination procedures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Adjustable Gastric Banding (AGB)

Bariatric surgery that reduces stomach size with an adjustable band.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Roux-en-Y Gastric Bypass (RYGB)

Bariatric surgery that creates a small stomach pouch and bypasses part of the small intestine.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bariatric Surgery Complications

Pulmonary embolism, infection, anastomosis leak, and dumping syndrome.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nursing Management

Observation for complications, 1-2 day hospitalization

Signup and view all the flashcards

Post-Op Nursing Diagnoses

Deficient fluid volume, imbalanced nutrition, impaired mobility, acute pain, disturbed body image, anxiety, depression, hair loss, bowel changes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Post-Op Assessments

Vital signs, oxygen saturation, electrolytes, daily weight, I/O, skin, incisions, pain.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nursing Interventions: Actions

Obtain properly sized equipment; apply SCDs, encourage self-care, assist skin care.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Post-Op Teaching

Incentive spirometry, sequential compression devices, ambulation, restrictions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Desired Outcomes

Free from complications/nutritional deficiencies and compliant with diet.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Metabolic Syndrome

A metabolic disorder characterized by insulin resistance, high blood pressure, abnormal cholesterol levels, and increased risk of blood clotting.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Positive Energy Balance

Increased appetite and decreased energy expenditure

Signup and view all the flashcards

Negative Energy Balance

Decreased appetite and increased energy expenditure

Signup and view all the flashcards

Calculate BMI

Weight (kilograms)/Height (meters) squared

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anxiety

Apprehension, uneasiness, uncertainty, or dread from a real or perceived threat.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fear

Reaction to a specific danger.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Normal anxiety

Necessary for survival.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mild Anxiety

Everyday problem-solving leverage; grasps more information effectively.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Moderate Anxiety

Selective inattention; clear thinking hampered; problem solving not optimal; sympathetic nervous system symptoms begin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Severe Anxiety

Perceptual field greatly reduced; difficulty concentrating on environment; confused and automatic behavior; somatic symptoms increase.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Panic

Markedly disturbed behavior, impulsivity; unable to process reality.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Defense mechanisms

Automatic coping styles that protect people from anxiety and maintain self-image by blocking feelings, conflicts, and memories.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Adaptive defense mechanisms

Lowers anxiety for acceptable achievement of goals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Maladaptive defense mechanisms

Overuse of immature defenses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Separation anxiety disorder

Developmentally inappropriate levels of concern over being away from a significant other.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Specific Phobia

Persistent irrational fear of a specific object, activity, or situation that leads to a desire for avoidance

Signup and view all the flashcards

Social anxiety disorder

Severe anxiety or fear provoked by exposure to a social or performance situation that will be evaluated negatively by others.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Panic disorder

Recurrent unexpected panic attacks

Signup and view all the flashcards

Panic attacks

Abrupt surge of intense fear or intense discomfort that reaches a peak within minutes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Agoraphobia

Excessive anxiety or fear about being in places or situations from which escape might be difficult or embarrassing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Generalized anxiety disorder

Excessive worry that lasts for months.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Selective mutism

Consistent failure to speak in specific social situations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Substance-induced anxiety disorder

Anxiety symptoms due to substance use.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anxiety due to a medical condition

Anxiety from medical condition, not better explained by other disorder.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Genetic risk factors (anxiety)

Predisposition through genes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Biological risk factors (anxiety)

Brain structure effects

Signup and view all the flashcards

Psychological risk factors (anxiety)

Learned behavior and coping styles.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cultural risk factors (anxiety)

Societal expectations and norms.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nursing process steps

Assessment, Nursing diagnosis, Outcomes identification, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

Signup and view all the flashcards

Assessment (anxiety)

General assessment of symptoms, self-assessment, assessment guidelines: anxiety

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anxiety assessment (detailed)

Sound physical and neurological exam, determine source of anxiety, determine current level of anxiety, assess for potential self-harm, complete psychosocial assessment, and self assessment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anxiety & Fear-related nursing outcome

Self-monitors intensity; uses reduction techniques.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Difficulty coping-related nursing outcome

Identifies ineffective and effective patterns; asks for assistance and information; modifies as needed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Impaired socialization & low self-esteem-related nursing outcome

Self-monitors anxiety and desire for avoidance; uses techniques to reduce anxiety to maintain role performance.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Planning (anxiety)

selecting community-based interventions, encouraging active participation, patient experiencing severe levels may not be able to participate in planning

Signup and view all the flashcards

Implementation (anxiety)

To improve the state of one’s current mental well-being.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nursing implementation (anxiety)

Counseling, Health teaching and health promotion, Teamwork and safety, Promotion of self-care activities

Signup and view all the flashcards

Evaluation (anxiety)

Is the patient experiencing a reduced level of anxiety?

Signup and view all the flashcards

Psychological therapies (anxiety)

Behavioral therapy, Cognitive-behavioral therapy

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obsessions

Thoughts, impulses, or images that persist and recur, so that they cannot be dismissed from the mind.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Compulsions

Ritualistic behaviors an individual feels driven to perform in an attempt to reduce anxiety.

Signup and view all the flashcards

DSM-5 Criteria for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

Obsessions, compulsions or both, not due to a substance or condition, not explained by another psychiatric disorder, time-consuming

Signup and view all the flashcards

Body Dysmorphic Disorder

False assumptions about appearance, fear of rejection, perfectionism

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hoarding Disorder

Obsessive accumulation of objects, letting go of any item is painful, collecting has consumed life.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Trichotillomania and Excoriation Disorder

Body-focused repetitive behaviors, Hair pulling (trichotillomania), Skin picking (excoriation disorder)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Other Compulsive Disorders

Medication- or substance-related, Medical condition-related

Signup and view all the flashcards

Risk Factors for OCD

Child abuse & trauma, post-infectious autoimmune syndrome, genetics, comorbidity with anxiety disorders

Signup and view all the flashcards

Outcomes Identification (Patients)

Goals include reduced anxiety, improved skin integrity, reduced self-destructive behavior, improved body image, improved socialization, reduced fear

Signup and view all the flashcards

Basic-Level Nursing Interventions

promotion of self-care activities, monitor skin integrity for excoriation or trichotillomania disorders, Health teaching, Monitor for urinary tract infections

Signup and view all the flashcards

Advanced Practice Nursing Interventions

Flooding, cognitive-behavioral therapy, Exposure-and response prevention

Signup and view all the flashcards

Surgical treatment ocd

Gamma Knife: creates lesions to form a disconnect of overactive circuits

Signup and view all the flashcards

Brain stimulation ocd

Deep brain stimulation (DBS): implanted pulse generator uses low-dose current to reduce symptoms

Signup and view all the flashcards

exposure and response prevention

First-line cognitive-behavioral intervention for obsessive-compulsive behaviors, Expose patient to triggers of OCD symptoms

Signup and view all the flashcards

Trauma-Related Disorders

Traumatic events linked to various psychiatric and medical disorders.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reactive Attachment Disorder

Consistent pattern of emotionally withdrawn behavior; unresponsive to comfort efforts.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder

Absence of normal fear of strangers; unfazed by separation from caregivers.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Neuroplasticity

The field that promotes brain's ability to reorganize by forming new neural connections throughout life.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Neurobiological Trauma Impact

Trauma dysregulation of neural pathways integrating emotional regulation and arousal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Flashbacks (PTSD)

Re-experiencing the trauma.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Avoidance (PTSD)

Avoiding thoughts, feelings, or reminders of trauma event.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hypervigilance (PTSD)

Increased arousal; exaggerated startle response and hypervigilance.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Acute Stress Disorder

Occurs 3 days to 1 month after a traumatic event.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Numbing (ASD)

A subjective sensation of numbing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Derealization

The feeling that one's surroundings are unreal or distant.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Adjustment Disorder

Milder version of ASD/PTSD with various distress symptoms.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dissociative Amnesia

The inability to recall important personal information.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dissociative Fugue

Subtype of Dissociative Amnesia characterized by sudden, unexpected travel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Depersonalization

The feeling of being an outside observer of one's body or mind.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dissociative Identity Disorder

Two or more distinct personality states.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anorexia Nervosa

A mental disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to significant food restriction.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Purging

Engaging in behaviors to prevent weight gain after consuming a large amount of calories.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anorexia Nervosa Criteria

DSM-5 criterion involving restricting energy intake, intense fear of weight gain and disturbance of body image.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Restricting Type Anorexia

A subtype of anorexia nervosa where the individual does not engage in binge-eating or purging behaviors.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Binge-eating/Purging Type Anorexia

A subtype of anorexia nervosa where the individual engages in recurrent episodes of binge-eating or purging behavior.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bulimia Nervosa

An eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Lifetime Prevalence

The proportion of a population that has a specified condition at a particular time period.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Comorbidity

The co-occurrence of two or more disorders in the same individual.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Perception of the Problem

The understanding a patient has towards their eating disorders.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Refeeding Syndrome

A severe and potentially fatal condition involving shifts in fluids and electrolytes that may occur in malnourished patients receiving artificial refeeding.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Suicidal Ideation (Anorexia)

An intervention involves addressing suicidal thoughts/ideation before other aspects of treatment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anorexia Nervosa Interventions

This involves therapy, nutrition and safety techniques.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pharmacotherapy

The biological treatment for anorexia focusing on medication

Signup and view all the flashcards

Binge Eating Disorder

This eating disorder involves, recurrent episodes of eating large quantities of food.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Inpatient Care (Bulimia)

Therapy to reduce destructive cycles, normalize eating habits, and promote health.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pharmacotherapy (Bulimia)

This involves medications such as fluoxetine.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rumination Disorder

Involves regurgitation with chewing and re-swallowing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder

Involves restricted food intake starting in childhood.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hypoalbuminemia

A condition characterized by low levels of albumin in the blood.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Inflammation

Protective response to tissue injury, involving pain, fever, redness, and swelling.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAIDs

Group of drugs with analgesic, antiinflammatory, and antipyretic properties, not including corticosteroids.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAIDs uses

A drug to treat mild to moderate headaches, myalgia, neuralgia and arthralgia.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antipyretic

Fever reducing properties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Salicylates

Class of NSAIDs including Aspirin, Diflunisal (Dolobid), and Salsalate (Salsitab).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Aspirin for MI

Medication shown to reduce cardiac death after myocardial infarction (MI).

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAIDs Adverse Effects

GI distress, renal failure and increased risk of MI and stroke.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Misoprostol (Cytotec)

Medication preventing GI bleed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAIDs and Renal Function

Renal toxicity, renal or heart failure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAIDs Black Box Warning

Share a black box warning regarding cardiovascular thrombotic events.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Salicylic Acid

Inhibits platelet aggregation and antithrombotic effect.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Salicylates Risk

Risk of Reye's syndrome in children.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Aspirin Uses

Used for headache, neuralgia, myalgia, and arthralgia.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Aspirin Reye's Syndrome

Acute condition involving neurologic deficits and liver damage.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Salicylate Toxicity

Increased heart rate, tinnitus, hearing loss, GI issues, and metabolic changes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Indomethacin (Indocin)

Analgesic and anti-inflammatory uses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ketorolac (Toradol)

Analgesic effects comparable to narcotics.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Celecoxib (Celebrex)

First and only remaining COX-2 inhibitor, little effect on platelet function

Signup and view all the flashcards

Enolic Acid Derivatives

Used to treat mild to moderate OA, RA, and gouty arthritis

Signup and view all the flashcards

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Prevents uric acid production.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Probenecid (Benemid)

Increases excretion of uric acid, inhibits reabsorption of uric acid

Signup and view all the flashcards

Febuxostat (Uloric)

Nonpurine xanthine oxidase inhibitor.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Colchicine

Reduces inflammatory response.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Lesinurad Patient Teaching

At least two liters of fluid a day.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Glucosamine & Chondroitin

They may enhance effects of warfarin and may increase insulin resistance.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pre-NSAID Assessment

Assess for GI lesions or peptic ulcer disease.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NSAIDs Assessment

Assess for bleeding disorders and medication interactions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Glucosamine & Chondroitin Adverse Effects

Gl discomfort, drowsiness, headache, skin reactions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hydrochloric Acid (HCl)

Digestive fluid secreted by stomach's parietal cells, pH 1-4, aids digestion and defenses

Signup and view all the flashcards

Glands of the Stomach

Glands found in the stomach; cardiac, pyloric, & gastric.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Parietal cells

Gastric gland cells that produce and secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chief cells

Gastric gland cells that secrete pepsinogen, which digests proteins when activated.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mucous cells

Mucus-secreting cells that protect the stomach lining from acid and enzymes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori)

A bacterium linked to gastric ulcers, treated with PPIs and antibiotics

Signup and view all the flashcards

H₂ Antagonists

Inhibits gastric acid production by blocking H₂ receptors on parietal cells.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Diarrhea

Abnormal passage of stools with increased frequency, fluidity, and weight or with increased stool water excretion

Signup and view all the flashcards

Acute Diarrhea

Sudden onset of diarrhea in a previously healthy individual, lasting 3 days to 2 weeks, resolving without long-term effects.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chronic Diarrhea

Diarrhea lasting more than 3 to 4 weeks, associated with recurring diarrheal stools, fever, appetite loss, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and weakness.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Causes of Acute Diarrhea

Infections from bacteria, viruses or protozoa, drug induced, or nutritional factors.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Causes of Chronic Diarrhea

Tumors, diabetes mellitus, Addison's disease, hyperthyroidism, irritable bowel syndrome or AIDS.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Goals of Diarrhea Treatment

Stopping stool frequency, alleviating abdominal cramps, replenishing fluids/electrolytes, and preventing weight loss/malabsorption.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antidiarrheals: Adsorbents

Drugs that coat the GI tract walls, binding to causative bacteria/toxins for elimination through stool.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Examples of Adsorbents

Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol), activated charcoal, and antilipemic drugs like colestipol and cholestyramine.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antimotility drugs: Anticholinergics

Drugs decreasing intestinal muscle tone and peristalsis, slowing fecal matter movement through the GI tract.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antimotility drugs: Opiates

Drugs that decrease bowel motility and reduce pain by relieving rectal spasms, increasing water and electrolyte absorption.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antidiarrheals: Probiotics

Bacterial cultures of Lactobacillus organisms that work by supplying missing bacteria to the GI tract.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antidiarrheals: Probiotics

Bacterial cultures of Lactobacillus organisms that supress the growth of diarrhea-causing bacteria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Adsorbents: Adverse Effects

Increased bleeding time, constipation, dark stools, confusion, tinnitus, metallic taste, and blue tongue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anticholinergics: Adverse Effects

Urinary retention, impotence, headache, dizziness, confusion, anxiety, drowsiness, dry skin, flushing, blurred vision, hypotension, and bradycardia.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Opiates: Adverse Effects

Drowsiness, dizziness, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, constipation, respiratory depression, hypotension, urinary retention, and flushing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Adsorbents Interactions

Antidiarrheal that decreases absorption of many drugs like digoxin, quinidine, and hypoglycemic agents.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Adsorbents + Anticoagulants Interaction

Adsorbents increased bleeding time and bruising when given with anticoagulants like warfarin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Adsorbent Contraindications

Do not give bismuth subsalicylate to children or teenagers with chickenpox or influenza because of risk of Reye's syndrome.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Adsorbent Nursing Care

Use adsorbents carefully in older patients and those with decreased bleeding time, clotting disorders, recent bowel surgery, or confusion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Constipation

Abnormally infrequent and difficult passage of feces through the lower GI tract, which is a symptom, not a disease. Can be caused by a variety of diseases or drugs

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nonsurgical Constipation Treatment

Dietary adjustments (fiber), behavioral changes (activity), and pharmacologic interventions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Laxatives: Bulk Forming

High fiber that absorb water to increase bulk, distending the bowel to initiate reflex bowel activity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Laxatives: Emollient

Stool softeners and lubricants promoting more water and fat in the stools, lubricating fecal material and intestinal walls.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Laxatives: Hyperosmotic

Increase fecal water content, resulting in bowel distention, increased peristalsis, and evacuation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Laxatives: Saline

Increase osmotic pressure within the intestinal tract, causing more water to enter the intestines.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Laxatives: Stimulant

Increase peristalsis via intestinal nerve stimulation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Opioid Antagonists

Treatment of constipation related to opioid use.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Peripherally Acting

Prevents large movements into the brain, but enters into the bowel to reverse opioid caused decrease in function of the bowels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bulk Forming Uses

Approved for constipation, diverticulosis, and IBS.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Emollient Uses

Approved for impaction reduction, and anorectal management.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hyperosmotic Uses

Indicated for chronic constipation, use for diagnostic and surgical preparations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Saline Uses

Indicated to treat constipation, and pre-procedure prep.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Stimulant Uses

Useful for acute constipation treatment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bulk Forming Downsides

Bulk forming laxative adverse effects are impaction, fluid disturbances, electrolyte imbalances, and esophageal blockage.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Emollient Downsides

Emollient adverse effects are skin rashes, decreased absorption of vitamins, electrolyte imbalances, and lipid pneumonia.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hyperosmotic Downsides

Hyperosmotic adverse effects are abdominal bloating, electrolyte imbalances, and rectal irritation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Saline Downsides

Saline adverse effects are magnesium toxicity, cramping, electrolyte imbalances, diarrhea, and thirst.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Stimulant Downsides

Stimulant adverse effects are nutrient malabsorption, skin rashes, gastric irritation, electrolyte imbalances, discolored urine, and rectal irritation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Laxative Teaching

Obtain history, assess fluids, inform about taking

Signup and view all the flashcards

Laxative encouragement

Perform thorough history, encourage healthy habits, and monitor fluid intake

Signup and view all the flashcards

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

Chronic intestinal discomfort characterized by cramps, diarrhea, or constipation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Drugs for IBS-D (Diarrhea)

Alosetron, rifaximin, eluxadoline.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Drugs for IBS-C (Constipation)

Lubiprostone, linaclotide.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Guideline Usage

Perform GI and cardiac assessment as well as liver assessment

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nausea

An unpleasant sensation that often precedes vomiting.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Emesis (Vomiting)

The forcible emptying of gastric, and occasionally, intestinal contents.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antiemetic drugs

Drugs used to relieve nausea and vomiting.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vomiting center (VC)

The area in the brain that, when stimulated, causes the vomiting reflex.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)

An area in the brain that, when stimulated, causes the vomiting reflex.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chemotherapy induced N/V

Nausea and vomiting induced by chemotherapy treatments.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Postoperative N/V

Nausea and vomiting occurring after a surgical procedure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anticholinergic drugs

Drugs that prevent the transmission of nauseating stimuli.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anticholinergic MOA

Blocks transmission of nauseating stimuli to CTZ; and the reticular formation to the VC.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Scopolamine

Drug used to prevent motion sickness, available as a 72-hour transdermal patch.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antihistamine antiemetic

A type of antiemetic drug that inhibits ACh by binding to H1 receptors

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hydroxyzine

Drug used for motion sickness and allergy symptoms, but never IV.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antidopaminergic drugs

Drugs that block dopamine receptors in the CTZ.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Narrow-angle glaucoma

A condition which anticholinergic drugs should only be administered after careful assessment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Neurokinin antagonists

Drugs that inhibit substance P/neurokinin 1 receptors in the brainstem.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Metoclopramide

A prokinetic drug that promotes gastric emptying.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Serotonin blockers

Drugs that block serotonin receptors in the GI tract, CTZ, and VC.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tetrahydrocannabinoids

Major psychoactive substance in marijuana

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dronabinol

Tetrahydrocannabinoid used to stimulate appetite.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phosphorated carbohydrate solution

Mint-flavored oral solution used to relieve nausea.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nursing intervention

Assess complete nausea and vomiting history.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nursing intervention

Monitor for therapeutic and adverse effects.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dronabinol's Use

Medication used as an appetite stimulant in patients experiencing nutritional wasting.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Serotonin Blockers Use

Class of drugs used for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

Signup and view all the flashcards

QTc interval prolongation

A potential risk associated with serotonin blockers.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anticoagulant interaction

A potential food-drug interaction with anticoagulants.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

  • Nausea is an unpleasant feeling that often precedes vomiting.
  • Emesis (vomiting) is the forcible emptying of gastric and sometimes intestinal contents.
  • Antiemetic drugs are used to relieve nausea and vomiting.
  • The vomiting center (VC) and chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) are located in the brain.
  • Stimulation of VC and CTZ can cause the vomiting reflex.
  • Types of nausea and vomiting include:
  • Chemotherapy induced
  • Postoperative
  • General
  • Antiemetic and antinausea drugs include:
  • Anticholinergic drugs
  • Antihistamines (histamine 1 [H₁] receptor blockers)
  • Antidopaminergic drugs
  • Neurokinin antagonists
  • Prokinetic drugs
  • Serotonin blockers
  • Tetrahydrocannabinoids
  • Antiemetics and antinausea drugs have many different mechanisms of action.
  • Most antiemetics work by blocking one of the vomiting pathways, thus blocking the stimulus that induces vomiting.
  • Specific indications for antiemetics vary per class.
  • General use for each type of antiemetic is the prevention and reduction of nausea and vomiting.

Mechanism of Action and Other Indications

  • Anticholinergic drugs (acetylcholine [ACh] blockers):
  • Bind to and block ACh receptors in the inner ear labyrinth.
  • Block transmission of nauseating stimuli to CTZ and from the reticular formation to the VC.
  • Scopolamine (Transderm-Scop, Scopace) is a 72-hour transdermal patch that releases 1 mg.
  • Antihistamine drugs (H₁ receptor blockers):
  • Inhibit ACh by binding to H₁ receptors.
  • They prevent cholinergic stimulation in vestibular and reticular areas, thus preventing nausea and vomiting.
  • Also used for motion sickness, nonproductive cough, allergy symptoms, and sedation.
  • Examples:
  • Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)
  • Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
  • Meclizine (Antivert)
  • Hydroxyzine (Vistaril): Give PO or IM only, never IV
  • Antidopaminergic drugs:
  • Block dopamine receptors in the CTZ.
  • They are used for psychotic disorders and intractable hiccups.
  • Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
  • Promethazine (Phenergan): PO & IM routes preferred; IV route common, not preferred, never administer via intraarterial route
  • Amisulpride (Barhemsys)--newest
  • Droperidol: Use is controversial because of associated cardiac dysrhythmias and is banned in some facilities
  • Neurokinin receptor antagonists:
  • Inhibit substance P/neurokinin 1 receptors in the brainstem.
  • Used in conjunction with serotonin blockers and glucocorticoids.
  • Use augments the serotonin blockers and glucocorticoids to inhibit acute and delayed phases of chemotherapy-induced emesis.
  • Aprepitant, Fosaprepitant, Rolapitant
  • Prokinetic drugs:
  • Block dopamine receptors in the CTZ.
  • Desensitize the CTZ to impulses it receives from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
  • Stimulate peristalsis in the GI tract, enhancing emptying of stomach contents.
  • Also used for gastroesophageal reflux disease and delayed gastric emptying.
  • Metoclopramide (Reglan): Long-term use may cause irreversible tardive dyskinesia
  • Serotonin blockers:
  • Block serotonin receptors in the GI tract, CTZ, and VC.
  • Used for nausea and vomiting in patients receiving chemotherapy and for postoperative nausea and vomiting.
  • Dolasetron (Anzemet)
  • Granisetron (Kytril)
  • Ondansetron (Zofran)
  • Palonosetron (Aloxi)
  • Tetrahydrocannabinoids:
  • Major psychoactive substance in marijuana.
  • Inhibitory effects on reticular formation, thalamus, and cerebral cortex.
  • Alter mood and body's perception of its surroundings to help relieve nausea and vomiting.
  • Dronabinol (Marinol): Used for nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy and for anorexia associated with weight loss in AIDS patients.

Miscellaneous Antinausea Drugs

  • Phosphorated carbohydrate solution (Emetrol):
  • Mint-flavored oral solution used off label for treatment of morning sickness.

Herbal Products: Ginger

  • Used for nausea and vomiting, including that caused by chemotherapy, morning sickness, and motion sickness.
  • Adverse effects:
    • Anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and skin reactions.
  • Drug interactions:
    • May increase absorption of oral medications or increase bleeding risk with anticoagulants.

Adverse Effects of Antiemetics

  • Vary according to the drug used.
  • Stem from their nonselective blockade of various receptors.

Nursing Implications for Antiemetics

  • Assess complete nausea and vomiting history, including precipitating factors.
  • Assess current medications and for contraindications and potential drug interactions.
  • Many antiemetics cause severe drowsiness; warn patients about driving or performing any hazardous tasks.
  • Taking antiemetics with alcohol may cause severe central nervous system depression.
  • Teach patients to change positions slowly to avoid hypotensive effects.
  • For chemotherapy, antiemetics are often given 30 to 60 minutes before chemotherapy begins.
  • Monitor for therapeutic and adverse effects.
  • Scopolamine should only be administered after careful assessment of the patient's health and medication history; it is contraindicated in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma.
  • Metoclopramide is a prokinetic drug that promotes the movement of substances through the GI tract and increases GI motility, which is helpful in preventing aspiration in those receiving tube feedings.
  • Dronabinol is used as an appetite stimulant in patients who are experiencing nutritional wasting caused by cancer and cancer treatment.
  • Phosphorated carbohydrate solution (Emetrol) is a mint-flavored, pleasant-tasting oral solution used to relieve nausea; it works by direct local action on the walls of the GI tract, where it reduces cramping caused by excessive smooth muscle contraction and can be used to control mild cases of nausea and vomiting.
  • Serotonin blockers can cause a prolonged QTc interval.
  • The use of ginger can increase the absorption of all oral medications and may theoretically increase the bleeding risk with anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin [Coumadin]) or antiplatelet drugs (e.g., clopidogrel [Plavix]).

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser