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Moral Standards and Impartiality Quiz

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Questions and Answers

Why do secularists like Kai Nielsen recommend that one 'ought to' act or follow some rules?

Because one cannot doubt successfully a phenomenon of his own existence

Because moral law does not exist

Because moral values and moral absolutes exist (correct)

Because moral absolutes do not exist

According to C.S. Lewis, how does the existence of goodness lead to the affirmation of a moral law?

Goodness is objective and necessitates the existence of moral law (correct)

Goodness is subjective and does not require moral law

Goodness has no connection to moral law

Goodness changes based on cultural beliefs

Why is it difficult to deny the objective reality of moral values?

Because moral values are subjective and vary from person to person

Because moral values are based on societal norms

Because actions like rape, torture, and child abuse are considered moral abominations (correct)

Because actions like rape, torture, and child abuse are considered morally acceptable

How does Richard Dawkins describe moral instructions on how we ought to behave?

As essential guidelines on how we ought to behave Signup and view all the answers

What does the existence of moral absolutes imply?

That there are actions that are always wrong regardless of context Signup and view all the answers

Why does the man in C.S. Lewis's example appeal to a standard of behavior when quarreling?

To point out a common moral law that both parties should know about Signup and view all the answers

What does the text imply about variations in moralities across individuals and cultures?

That variations in moralities do not necessarily negate the existence of a common moral law Signup and view all the answers

Why do actions like rape, torture, and child abuse serve as examples of objective moral values according to the text?

Because these actions are morally abominations regardless of cultural beliefs Signup and view all the answers

What inference can be drawn about the link between goodness and the affirmation of a moral law based on C.S. Lewis's explanation?

The existence of goodness logically leads to the affirmation of a moral law Signup and view all the answers

Why is it significant that even atheist Richard Dawkins acknowledges 'moral instructions on how we ought to behave'?

It indicates a common belief in ethical guidelines despite differences in religious views Signup and view all the answers