Microbiology SIM Test Overview
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Questions and Answers

What does the sulfate indole motility (SIM) tube test for?

  • Sulfate reduction, indole production, and motility (correct)
  • Amino acid deamination, hydrogen sulfide, and fermentation
  • Fermentation, nitrate reduction, and motility
  • Protein synthesis, nitrate reduction, and indole production

    • The production of hydrogen sulfide (H2S) in a SIM test is an aerobic process.

    False

    What reagent must be added to a culture tube to visualize indole production?

    Kovac’s reagent

    The _____ produced when sulfate salts are metabolized will form a BLACK insoluble metal sulfide precipitate.

    <p>H2S</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following procedures is NOT part of the sulfate indole motility test?

    <p>Adding glucose as a carbon source</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the bacteria with their common characteristics:

    <p>Staphylococcus aureus = Gram-positive cocci Escherichia coli = Gram-negative bacilli Bacillus subtilis = Endospore-forming Proteus vulgaris = Known for urease production Pseudomonas aeruginosa = Opportunistic pathogen Enterobacter aerogenes = Lactose fermenter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Indole is created from the breakdown of the amino acid lysine.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the motility test using SIM media, how can you determine motility?

    <p>By observing the diffusion of the inoculum from the stab line</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What temperature should the bacteria be incubated at during the tests?

    <p>37°C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A yellow color in the phenylalanine deaminase test indicates a positive result.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color change indicates a positive result for the indole test?

    <p>cherry red</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The enzyme __________ removes the amine group from phenylalanine during deamination.

    <p>phenylalanine deaminase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of test with its purpose:

    <p>Indole Test = Detects the production of indole from tryptophan Phenylalanine Deaminase Test = Detects phenylpyruvic acid Methyl Red Test = Determines stable acid production from glucose Voges-Proskauer Test = Detects acetoin production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is produced when phenylalanine is deaminated?

    <p>Phenylpyruvic acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Voges-Proskauer test detects the immediate production of CO2 during glucose fermentation.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What reagent is used to test for phenylpyruvic acid in the phenylalanine test?

    <p>ferric chloride</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After the methyl red reagent is added to the MR test, a __________ color indicates a positive result.

    <p>red</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the bacteria with the tests they are used in:

    <p>Escherichia coli = MR and VP tests Enterobacter aerogenes = MR and VP tests Specific species = Indole and phenylalanine tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates a positive test result in the phenylalanine deaminase test?

    <p>Dark green color</p> Signup and view all the answers

    It is essential to read the results of the phenylalanine test immediately after it is performed.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Kovac's Reagent in the indole test?

    <p>To detect indole production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The MRVP tests assess the fermentation of __________.

    <p>glucose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color indicates positive glucose fermentation in the Enterotube II results?

    <p>Yellow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Gas production in Enterotube II is indicated by the wax being lifted.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would you circle on the results sheet for positive lactose fermentation?

    <p>2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A positive result for H2S production in the Enterotube II results in a _______ color.

    <p>Black</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the Enterotube II tests with their positive result colors:

    <p>Glucose fermentation = Yellow Urea hydrolysis = Red or purple Lysine decarboxylase = Purple Citrate = Blue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test requires separate testing and is not included in the Enterotube II?

    <p>Indole production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color indicates a positive VP test result?

    <p>Red</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A negative nitrate reduction test indicates that nitrate was indeed reduced to nitrite.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Enterotube II can provide a five-digit reference number directly after testing.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the possible code for Salmonella spp. indicated in the text?

    <p>6704752</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of the nitrate reduction test?

    <p>To determine the reduction of nitrate to nitrite in a broth culture.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If no red color appears after adding zinc dust in a nitrate reduction test, the test is considered _____

    <p>positive</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The substrate tested for carbohydrate fermentation in Enterotube II includes _______.

    <p>Glucose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which substrate is NOT included in the Enterotube II's biochemical components?

    <p>Sucrose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of environment is recommended for the incubation of the API 20e strip?

    <p>35°C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Voges-Proskauer test is part of the Enterotube II.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Enterotube II can be inoculated from multiple colonies on an agar plate.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the Enterotube II, what does a negative result for dulcitol fermentation indicate?

    <p>Any other color</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens if a red color is observed after adding nitrate A and nitrate B solutions?

    <p>The test is positive for nitrite presence.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    To find the identification of a microorganism using Enterotube II, the user must locate the _______ number.

    <p>5-digit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The API-20e test is primarily used for identifying _____ shaped bacteria.

    <p>rod</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following components of the Enterotube II with their functions:

    <p>Glucose = Sugar fermentation Indole = Tryptophan degradation Urea = Hydrolysis of urea Citrate = Utilization of citrate as a carbon source</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the positive result for PA deaminase in the Enterotube II?

    <p>Black or smoky gray</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What temperature should the nitrate broth be incubated at?

    <p>37°C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Zinc dust is used to catalyze the reduction of nitrite back to nitrate.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does zinc dust play in the nitrate reduction test?

    <p>It catalyzes the reduction of any unreduced nitrate to nitrite.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The _____ test is used to identify E. coli using the Enterotube II system.

    <p>procedure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following tests uses a profile number to identify bacterial species?

    <p>API-20e test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Enterobacteriaceae are characterized by being gram-positive bacteria.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary enzyme responsible for lipid hydrolysis in the spirit blue agar assay?

    <p>Lipase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Starch is small enough to pass through the bacterial cell membrane without hydrolysis.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color does iodine turn when it complexes with starch?

    <p>blue to dark brown</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The enzyme that breaks down casein in milk is called _____ .

    <p>casease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the bacterial species with the assay they are used in:

    <p>Staphylococcus aureus = Spirit blue agar Escherichia coli = Starch hydrolysis Bacillus cereus = Starch hydrolysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates a positive result in the starch hydrolysis test?

    <p>Clear colorless zone around the bacterial growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The spirit blue dye serves as a nutritional component for bacteria in spirit blue agar.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What environmental condition is required for incubation of the plates?

    <p>37°C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the lipase assay, the presence of a clear halo indicates the _____ of tributyrin.

    <p>hydrolysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of agar with its associated test:

    <p>Spirit blue agar = Lipid hydrolysis Starch agar = Starch hydrolysis Skim milk agar = Casein hydrolysis Gelatin agar = Gelatinase production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens if bacterial species do not produce casease on skim milk agar?

    <p>They will not produce a clear zone.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The hydrolysis of starch is detectable without using an indicator.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which two enzymes are involved in starch hydrolysis?

    <p>Amylase and oligo-1,6-glucosidase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The presence of _____ positive bacteria in spirit blue agar is indicated by a clear halo around colonies.

    <p>lipase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following bacteria can contribute to the development of dental caries?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Streptococcus pyogenes is responsible for diseases primarily in the throat.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of streptococci is characterized by producing a transparent zone on blood agar?

    <p>β-Hemolytic streptococci</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The _____ test is used to differentiate group A and B beta hemolytic streptococci.

    <p>bacitracin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following bacteria with their characteristics:

    <p>Streptococcus pneumoniae = Gram-positive, lancet-shaped cocci S. agalactiae = Causes neonatal pneumonia Viridans streptococci = Leading cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis S. pyogenes = Responsible for strep throat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory test is used to identify Streptococcus pneumoniae?

    <p>Optochin sensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Viridans streptococci are primarily associated with causing infections in the gastrointestinal tract.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the group associated with Streptococcus agalactiae?

    <p>Group B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Lancefield groups are used to classify streptococci based on their cell wall _____ ability.

    <p>antigen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following bacteria with the diseases they cause:

    <p>Staphylococcus epidermidis = Catheter-related infections S. pneumoniae = Community-acquired pneumonia S. pyogenes = Strep throat S. agalactiae = Neonatal meningitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following types of streptococci form dark green colonies on blood agar?

    <p>α-Hemolytic streptococci</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Staphylococcus aureus is typically resistant to antibiotics.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the characteristics of Staphylococci?

    <p>Gram-positive cocci, catalase positive, facultatively anaerobic.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Invasive infections by S. pneumoniae may include _____ and septicemia.

    <p>bacteremia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Staphylococcus species is known for causing acute urinary tract infections in young women?

    <p>Staphylococcus saprophyticus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Staphylococcus aureus can produce toxins that have harmful effects on the host.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main disease associated with Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin?

    <p>gastroenteritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Staphylococcus saprophyticus is ________ in coagulase tests.

    <p>negative</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the Staphylococcus species with their key characteristics:

    <p>Staphylococcus epidermidis = Negative coagulase test, sensitive to novobiocin Staphylococcus saprophyticus = Negative coagulase test, resistant to novobiocin Staphylococcus aureus = Positive coagulase test, sensitive to novobiocin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic distinguishes MRSA from other Staphylococcus species?

    <p>Resistant to methicillin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Staphylococcus saprophyticus is part of the normal flora.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptoms are commonly associated with toxic shock syndrome caused by Staphylococcus aureus?

    <p>fever, rash, hypotension, and shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Staphylococcus aureus is sensitive to low doses of ________.

    <p>novobiocin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 22-year-old female with painful urination tested positive for catalase and was resistant to novobiocin. What organism is most likely causing her symptoms?

    <p>Staphylococcus saprophyticus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Staphylococcus aureus can cause food intoxication through enterotoxins.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the hemolytic reaction of Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar?

    <p>beta-hemolytic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Gram stain of a sputum sample produced ________ that were catalase negative and formed diplococci.

    <p>gram-positive cocci</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the case with the likely pathogen:

    <p>Case 1 = Streptococcus pneumoniae Case 2 = Staphylococcus aureus Case 3 = Staphylococcus saprophyticus Case 4 = Group B Streptococcus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of disease for Staphylococcus aureus associated with food contamination?

    <p>Food intoxication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pathogen is most commonly associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

    <p>Escherichia coli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Gram-positive cocci in chains indicate the presence of Streptococcus species.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of diarrhea and colitis in individuals infected with CDIFF?

    <p>Toxin A and B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Infant botulism can occur if newborns are fed honey.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the typical symptoms of a urinary tract infection?

    <p>Dysuria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The procedure to test urine includes a dip stick that reveals the presence of nitrites, white blood cells, and ______.

    <p>blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical symptom of tetanus caused by Clostridium tetani?

    <p>Lockjaw</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Clostridium perfringens often causes a condition known as _____ gangrene.

    <p>Gas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the bacteria to their potential classification or condition:

    <p>Escherichia coli = Most common UTI pathogen Klebsiella = Less common UTI pathogen Streptococcus = Gram-positive cocci in chains Staphylococcus = Gram-positive cocci in clusters</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of botulism with their descriptions:

    <p>Food botulism = Related to home canned foods Wound botulism = Infections in contaminated wounds Infant botulism = Caused by feeding honey to infants Equine botulism = Primary treatment involves horse antitoxins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Gram stain result indicates a respiratory infection caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

    <p>Gram-positive diplococci</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibiotics can replace the current treatment for Clostridium difficile infection?

    <p>Vancomycin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A productive cough is characterized by coughing up sputum.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of using a candle jar in throat culture procedures?

    <p>Create a microaerophilic environment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Clostridium botulinum toxins primarily affect the digestive system.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The process of examining sputum for white blood cells aims to identify potential __________.

    <p>infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common source of contamination associated with Clostridium perfringens food intoxication?

    <p>Contaminated meat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the urinary symptoms with their definitions:

    <p>Dysuria = Painful urination Hematuria = Blood in urine Nocturia = Frequent nighttime urination Polyuria = Excessive urination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The DTaP vaccine is required for children in the _____ to control tetanus infections.

    <p>U.S.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be used to read the dip-stick test results?

    <p>A color chart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The presence of β-hemolytic zones on blood agar indicates non-invasive infections.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a symptom of pneumonia?

    <p>Diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a symptom of botulism?

    <p>Double vision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of finding more than 100,000 CFU/mL in a quantitative urine test?

    <p>It indicates a urinary tract infection (UTI).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The main method by which intestinal bacteria can cause urinary tract infections is through improper hygiene.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    To conduct a qualitative test of urine samples, use _____ agar and _____ agar.

    <p>blood; MacConkey</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the goal of performing a Gram stain on a throat culture?

    <p>Identify the type of bacteria present</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the bacterial pathogens with their associated conditions:

    <p>Clostridium difficile = Diarrhea and colitis Clostridium tetani = Tetanus Clostridium botulinum = Botulism Clostridium perfringens = Food poisoning</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The presence of beta-hemolytic zones on culture indicates the possibility of __________ infection.

    <p>streptococcal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After incubation, what should you check on the blood agar for throat culture?

    <p>Colony morphology</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of streak plating urine samples onto agar plates?

    <p>To isolate and quantify bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    It is acceptable to shake the dip-stick before use.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does E. coli appear on MacConkey agar?

    <p>As pink colonies indicating lactose fermentation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The dilution factor when using a sterile loop that carries 0.001 mL of urine is _____.

    <p>1000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibiotic is commonly associated with CDIFF infections?

    <p>Ampicillin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Urine samples with 120 colonies would indicate a urinary tract infection.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the incubation temperature for agar plates after streaking?

    <p>35°C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    CDIFF is often associated with _____ following extensive antibiotic use.

    <p>diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is recorded in Table 20.1?

    <p>Results of the dip-stick test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following tables with their purpose:

    <p>Table 20.1 = Dip-stick test results Table 20.2 = Qualitative test results Table 20.3 = Quantitative test results</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Clostridium Species Overview

    • Clostridium species are gram-positive, rod-shaped bacteria.
    • They are obligately anaerobic and spore-forming.
    • Several species cause various diseases, including intestinal issues.

    Clostridium Difficile

    • A common nosocomial infection.
    • Causes colitis and diarrhea, often after antibiotic use.
    • Symptoms include severe colon inflammation and black water diarrhea.
    • Produces toxins A and B that damage colon cells.
    • Treatment options include yogurt, fecal transplants, and antibiotic replacement.

    Clostridium Botulinum

    • Produces toxins (A, B, E) linked to neuroparalytic diseases.
    • Food botulism is related to low-acid, home-canned foods.
    • Wound botulism from contaminated wounds.
    • Infant botulism—linked to feeding honey to infants.
    • Treatment includes equine antitoxins and antibiotics.

    Clostridium Tetani

    • Causes "lockjaw" (muscle spasms).
    • Infection usually from wounds, burns, or ulcers.
    • Tetanospasmin toxin is released by germinating spores.
    • Death can result from breathing muscle interference.
    • DTaP vaccination is a primary prevention method.

    Clostridium Perfringens

    • β-Hemolytic double zones on blood agar.
    • Five serotypes linked to diverse toxins.
    • Causes gas gangrene (tissue damage, gas production).
    • Food intoxication associated with contaminated meats (low temp/long time cooking).
    • Symptoms include diarrhea, cramps, and abdominal pain.
    • Food safety measures include thorough cooking of poultry/meat products

    Klebsiella pneumoniae

    • Gram-negative rod shape bacteria.
    • Possesses a heavy capsule.
    • Causes severe pneumonia.

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    Description

    This quiz focuses on the Sulfate Indole Motility (SIM) test, a crucial procedure in microbiology for understanding bacterial characteristics. You will explore aspects like hydrogen sulfide production, indole visualization, and the interpretation of test results. Test your knowledge on procedures, bacterial traits, and biochemical reactions involved in the SIM test.

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