Microbiology Quiz: Bacterial Classification & Growth
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What is the primary method for classifying bacteria based on their staining characteristics?

  • Shape
  • Oxygen requirement
  • Growth temperature
  • Gram staining (correct)

    • How do anaerobic bacteria differ from aerobic bacteria?

  • They grow only in acidic conditions.
  • They do not need oxygen to grow. (correct)
  • They require oxygen for growth.
  • They thrive in a hydrogen-rich environment.

    • Which temperature range is preferred by thermophiles for optimal growth?

  • 0-32°C
  • 40-70°C (correct)
  • 15-43°C
  • Above 100°C

    • What characteristic is shared by both Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria meningitis?

    <p>Both are gram-negative cocci.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pH range is preferred by acidophiles for growth?

    <p>pH of 2 - 5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color do gram-positive bacteria typically stain after a gram stain procedure?

    <p>Blue/Purple</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic of psychrophiles?

    <p>They thrive in cold temperatures.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes mesophiles in terms of preferred growth temperatures?

    <p>15-43°C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant consequence of poor hygiene procedures and aseptic techniques?

    <p>Increased development of drug-resistant pathogens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method utilizes steam or boiling water for sterilization?

    <p>Moist heat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary application of the dry heat method?

    <p>Sterilizing items that are sensitive to water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a disadvantage of using dry heat sterilization?

    <p>Time consuming with a slow rate of microbial kill</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main limitation of freezing as a cold method of sterilization?

    <p>Microbial growth resumes upon thawing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following pathogens is associated with the increased prevalence of drug-resistant infections?

    <p>Klebsiella species</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key advantage of using moist heat for sterilization?

    <p>It can be applied at lower temperatures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What contributes to the increasing presence of immuno-compromised patients?

    <p>Increased usage of immunosuppressant agents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a method used for medical devices that cannot withstand high temperatures?

    <p>Filtration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why may overcrowding and staff shortages contribute to the spread of pathogens?

    <p>Failure to follow infection control protocols</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of vehicle is Sterile Water for Injection classified as?

    <p>Aqueous vehicle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of commensalism?

    <p>One organism benefits and the other is neither harmed nor benefits</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines an opportunistic pathogen?

    <p>Causes disease in compromised hosts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which solution is considered isotonic and commonly used for injection?

    <p>Dextrose 5%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one example of a parasitic relationship?

    <p>Tapeworm in the intestines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of microorganism is classified as pathogenic?

    <p>Protozoa that cause disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of known microorganisms are considered pathogenic?

    <p>3%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT a common bacteriostatic agent?

    <p>Sodium chloride</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of indigenous microflora?

    <p>To reside permanently in the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does pyrogen refer to?

    <p>A substance that can cause fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Lactated Ringer’s Injection is correct?

    <p>Is isotonic and sterile</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of organism benefits in a mutualistic relationship?

    <p>Both organisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'resident microflora' refer to?

    <p>Microflora that have a permanent residence in the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common use for 0.9% Sodium Chloride Solution?

    <p>Fluid replacement and irrigation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of an anteroom in sterile compounding?

    <p>To serve as a staging area for personnel to don protective clothing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the environmental control requirements documented daily for a cleanroom?

    <p>Cleaning, temperature, pressure, and humidity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ISO class of cleanroom is typically used in sterile compounding procedures?

    <p>ISO Class 7</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the anteroom, what must personnel do with shoe covers?

    <p>They must be donned and doffed using a demarcation line.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of the cleanroom's design regarding airflow?

    <p>Airflow is usually positive to prevent contaminants.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a restriction for personnel in the cleanroom?

    <p>Eating and drinking are permitted.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What feature distinguishes the dirty side of the anteroom?

    <p>It is the entrance from the non-controlled area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of using HEPA filters in a cleanroom?

    <p>They provide localized ultra-clean air.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'pass-through windows' refer to in a cleanroom?

    <p>They allow supplies to enter the cleanroom without opening doors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key difference between custom and modular cleanrooms?

    <p>Custom cleanrooms are often prefabricated and assembled on-site.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of aseptic technique?

    <p>To maintain a sterile environment during product manipulation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which item of personal protective equipment is specifically designed to prevent contamination from mouth secretions?

    <p>Face mask</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum duration for performing an aseptic handwash?

    <p>30 seconds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic is NOT required for a gown used in aseptic technique?

    <p>Reusable after washing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a recommended practice for handling gloves?

    <p>Periodic disinfection with 70% isopropyl alcohol.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is eye protection recommended during cytotoxic spill clean-up?

    <p>It prevents exposure to hazardous substances.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following should be done before donning sterile gloves?

    <p>Wash hands with disinfectant soap.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of material should gloves be made of when handling hazardous materials?

    <p>Nitrile or similar synthetic materials</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which practice is critical to prevent touch contamination?

    <p>Frequent hand washing and use of alcohol-based rubs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of having a line of demarcation in a cleanroom environment?

    <p>It defines clean and dirty zones for personnel.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary use of a Volume Control Set or Buretrol?

    <p>Infusing smaller volumes, especially in pediatrics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an advantage of gravity flow for IV infusion?

    <p>Automation of flow without manual adjustments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major disadvantage associated with gravity flow IV infusions?

    <p>Relatively high error rate during administration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor can affect the accuracy of flow rate in IV infusions?

    <p>Clot formation in the cannula</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do electronic infusion devices improve IV fluid administration?

    <p>By providing alarm notifications for flow issues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of electronic infusion device uses positive pressure to administer fluids?

    <p>Peristaltic pump</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor increases flow resistance and could potentially reduce the flow rate?

    <p>Smaller diameter of administration set tubing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of peristaltic pumps?

    <p>They create less distortion in IV tubing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors does NOT affect flow rate accuracy in gravity flow IV infusions?

    <p>Patient’s temperature</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the flow of IV fluid if the height of the container is lowered?

    <p>Decreases due to reduced gravitational pull</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

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    Sterile Product Theory Final Exam Review

    • History of Sterile Products:
      • 1616: Dr. William Harvey described blood circulation
      • 1665: Sir Christopher Wren successfully injected opium
      • 18th-19th centuries: discoveries about bacterial growth and sepsis by Robert Koch, Joseph Lister, and Louis Pasteur.
      • Late 19th century: Sterilization methods introduced
      • 1923: Florence Seibert discovered fevers from pyrogens
      • 1926: First official injection solutions in National Formulary.
      • 1960s: Infusion technology advances including laminar air flow technique
      • 1971: Nationwide outbreak due to contaminated IV solutions.
    • Standards and Guidelines:
      • Health Canada: Created a policy on compounding and manufacturing. Defines compounding and manufacturing drug products. Sterile compounding falls under section C of the Food and Drugs Act. includes all drugs scheduled in C and D. Includes site inspections by each provincial regulatory authority
      • NAPRA: Developed standards for pharmacy compounding of both hazardous and non-hazardous sterile preparations.
      • CSHP: Developed guidelines for preparing sterile products in pharmacies.
      • OCP (Provincial Regulatory Authorities): Adopted NAPRA documents as guidelines. All pharmacies involved in sterile compounding follow these guidelines.

    Sterile Products - Low, Medium, High Risk

    • LOW RISK:
      • ISO Class 5 environment
      • Commercially available ingredients
      • Simple aseptic opening of ampoules/vials
      • No more than 3 sterile commercial products. No more than 2 entries into one sterile container.
      • Storage of finished product : 48 hours or less at room temp/ 14 days or less refrigeration max and 45 days or less in solid frozen state- if no sterility test
    • MEDIUM RISK:
      • Combining multiple doses of commercial products
      • Complex aseptic manipulations
      • Longer duration of compounding time
      • Storage: max 30 hours or less at room temp / 9 days or less under refrigeration / 45 days or less in a frozen state- no sterility test
    • HIGH RISK:
      • Use of non-sterile ingredients and/or non-sterile devices
      • Exposure outside ISO 5 environment for more than 1 hour.
      • Inappropriate gloving and gowning
      • Storage: 24 hours or less at room temp/ 3 days or less refrigeration / 45 days or less in a frozen state- no sterility test

    Sterile Product Characteristics

    • Sterility: Absence of viable microorganisms
    • Particulate Matter: Absence of particulate matter (dust, lint)
    • Pyrogenicity: Absence of pyrogens (fever-producing substances)
    • Stability: Prevention of drug degradation
    • Viscosity: Essential characteristic of ophthalmic preparations
    • pH: Typically 3-8 for injections, close to 7.4 is Ideal
    • Tonicity: Must simulate blood / isotonic/hypertonic/hypotonic

    Sterile Parenteral Dosage Forms

    • Injection: Aqueous or non-aqueous sterile products
    • Ophthalmics: Solutions, suspensions, and ointments
    • Dialysates: Sterile and isotonic solutions
    • Irrigations: Similar packaging/solutions
    • Radiopharmaceuticals: Radioactive chemicals used clinically for diagnostics

    Solutions, Powders, Solids

    • Solutions: Medication in solution of a suitable vehicle (water, saline, dextrose) for injection.
    • Powders/solids: Drug less stable, freeze-dried, reconstituted at time of use.

    Vehicles

    • Aqueous Vehicles/Water: Water for injection (sterile), bacteriostatic water for injection, sterile water for irrigations.

    Vehicles (cont.)

    • Isotonic Vehicles: NaCl 0.9% injection, 0.9% for irrigation, dextrose 5% , Lactated Ringers.

    Infectious Disease transmission

    • Direct: Skin-to-skin contact, mucous membranes
    • Respiratory droplets: From infected people coughing, sneezing, talking or breathing
    • Fecal material: Contaminated food, water, or surfaces

    Contamination Control and Facility Design

    • Separate areas: For sterile compounding from other areas
    • Air Handling: Temperature/humidity control
    • Personnel flow: Controlled access
    • Personnel preparation: PPE and handwashing
    • Cleaning/sterilization: Frequent cleaning and sterilization

    Anteroom vs. Cleanroom

    • Anteroom: Buffer zone to prevent contaminants entering cleanroom.
    • Cleanroom: Main area for sterile compounding, under positive pressure

    Types of Physical Anti-microbial Methods:

    • DRY HEAT: Use hot-air oven, for items that cannot endure moist heat.
    • MOIST HEAT: Use an autoclave (pressure cooking).
    • FREEZE DRYING: A dehydration process; removes moisture; useful for heat-sensitive products.
    • FILTRATION: Use sterile membrane filters to remove microorganisms from solutions.

    Types of Chemical Anti-microbial Agents:

    • Low-level: Phenols (ex. Lysol).
    • Intermediate-level: Alcohol (ex. 70% isopropyl).
    • High-level:
      • Aldehydes (ex. Formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde)
      • Hydrogen Peroxide
      • Peracetic acid

    Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)

    • Definition: IV infusion of amino acids, glucose, lipids, vitamins, and minerals as nutritional support.
    • Indications: Malnutrition, severe illnesses.
    • Components: Carbohydrates (dextrose), proteins (amino acids), lipids, electrolytes, vitamins, and minerals

    Hazardous Drugs

    • Definition: Exhibit carcinogenicity, teratogenicity, reproductive toxicity or toxicity at low doses.
    • Exposure risks: Healthcare professionals, delivery personnel.
    • Exposure scenarios: Receiving drugs, preparation, administration, waste disposal.
    • Key principles: Proper PPE, safety procedures, spill management, and disposal.

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    Sterile Product Theory Final Exam Review PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on the classification of bacteria and their growth preferences with this engaging quiz. Explore topics such as staining characteristics, temperature ranges, and sterilization methods used in microbiology. Challenge yourself and enhance your understanding of bacterial behavior in various environments.

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