Microbiology Media Quiz: MSA, EMB, HE
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Questions and Answers

What color indicates a mannitol fermenter on MSA media?

  • Red
  • Pink
  • Green
  • Yellow (correct)

Which of the following best describes the purpose of EMB agar?

  • To culture anaerobic bacteria
  • To select for Gram positive bacteria
  • To differentiate between lactose fermenters (correct)
  • To stain bacterial cells

What is indicated by blue/green growth on HE media?

  • Lactose fermentation
  • Fermentation of sugar
  • Reduction of sulfur
  • Protein breakdown to alkaline products (correct)

Where do B cells originate and mature?

<p>Bone marrow; bone marrow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the effector B cell and its main function?

<p>Plasma cells; to release antibodies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes Gram-positive bacteria from Gram-negative bacteria?

<p>Thick peptidoglycan layer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What indicates a false negative result in Gram staining?

<p>Over-decolorization (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an unusual side effect of one of the antibiotics used to treat TB?

<p>Hearing loss (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic does Gram-positive bacteria exhibit after staining?

<p>They appear purple. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of toxin is released during cell lysis in Gram-positive bacteria?

<p>Exotoxin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference in cell wall structure between Mycobacterium and Mycoplasma?

<p>Mycobacterium has a waxy cell wall. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of hemolysis is characterized by a complete destruction of red blood cells?

<p>Beta (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which two genera are known for their ability to sporulate?

<p>Bacillus and Clostridium (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the presence of the K antigen indicate in bacteria?

<p>The presence of a capsule. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of culture media is used to assess the oxygen tolerance of bacteria?

<p>Thioglycolate medium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of the enzyme hyaluronidase?

<p>Breaks down hyaluronic acid. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacteria is known to cause pseudomembranous colitis?

<p>Clostridium difficile (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is effective against herpes infections by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis?

<p>Both A and C (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature distinguishes MSA agar as selective for certain bacteria?

<p>Addition of a high concentration of sodium chloride (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does pink or lavender growth on EMB agar indicate about the bacteria?

<p>It is a weak lactose fermenter (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the HE agar differentiate between bacteria?

<p>By evaluating lactose fermentation and sulfur reduction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between the activation of B cells and T cells?

<p>T cells require interaction with MHC molecules to be activated (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes primary tuberculosis infection?

<p>Infection remains contained in the lungs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does glycocalyx play in bacterial survival within a host?

<p>It provides a mechanical barrier to antibiotics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the structure of a Gram-negative cell wall differ from that of a Gram-positive cell wall?

<p>It has an outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario describes a true Gram-positive reaction in Gram staining?

<p>Purple after primary stain and purple after decolorization (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of transport requires ATP and moves against the concentration gradient?

<p>Active transport (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of vaccine is created by using a killed version of the pathogen?

<p>Inactivated vaccine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where do RNA viruses typically replicate within a host cell?

<p>Cytoplasm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which type of solution would water move into the cell, indicating a state of overhydration?

<p>Hypotonic solution (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacteria is known to cause whooping cough?

<p>Bordetella pertussis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vector is primarily responsible for transmitting Zika virus?

<p>Aedes (aegypti) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a complication that can arise from mumps infection?

<p>Permanent deafness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main method used to determine bacterial resistance to antibiotics?

<p>Kirby-Bauer method (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of an endemic disease?

<p>Constantly present within a geographical area (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of symbiotic relationship involves one organism benefiting at the expense of another?

<p>Parasitism (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is associated with Wuchereria bancrofti infection?

<p>Elephantiasis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary method of diagnosing infections caused by Schistosoma mansoni?

<p>Examination of stool for eggs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism is used by Ivermectin to treat nematode infections?

<p>Causes paralysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the reproduction of Fasciola hepatica?

<p>Monoecious (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are the symptoms of Taenia solium infection primarily characterized?

<p>Seizures and headaches (A), Diarrhea and abdominal pain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the common characteristic of the larval life stages of Dirofilaria immitis that are targeted by heartworm prevention medications?

<p>L3 and L4 larval stages (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism is known as the Guinea worm?

<p>Dracunculus medinensis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a distinguishing feature of Taenia solium compared to Taenia saginata?

<p>Has hooks and suckers on the scolex (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary target of Praziquantel in treating helminth infections?

<p>Parasite tegument (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of helminths includes both flatworms and roundworms?

<p>Platyhelminthes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptoms are indicative of an infection with Fasciola hepatica?

<p>Fever and jaundice (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the lifecycle characteristic of filarial worms like Wuchereria bancrofti?

<p>Nocturnal activity of microfilariae (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main concern related to the consumption of undercooked pork in relation to Taenia solium?

<p>Cysticercosis risk (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes the yeast form of dimorphic fungi from the mold form?

<p>The yeast form thrives at body temperature (37°C). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of asexual reproductive spores are borne on specialized structures in fungi?

<p>Conidia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of Sabouraud's agar in fungal culture?

<p>To create an acidic environment that promotes fungal growth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following fungal infections is primarily transmitted through direct or indirect contact?

<p>Tinea corporis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antifungal medication is known for causing nephrotoxicity as a side effect?

<p>Amphotericin B (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the kOH test in diagnosing fungal infections?

<p>To make fungal elements visible under a microscope (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the triggers for cyst formation in protozoa?

<p>Harsh environmental conditions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following bacteria is responsible for Lyme disease?

<p>Borrelia burgdorferi (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of an intermediate host in the life cycle of protozoa?

<p>To harbor juvenile stages and asexual reproduction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What color will Gram-negative bacteria appear after decolorization in a Gram stain procedure?

<p>Colorless (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiprotozoal medication is primarily used to treat malaria?

<p>Chloroquine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are exotoxins released from Gram-positive bacteria during?

<p>Cell lysis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following protozoal infections is characterized by the presence of trophozoites?

<p>Amoebiasis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of coagulase in bacteria?

<p>Triggers blood clotting (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of fungal infections is characterized by localized infections in the skin, hair, and nails?

<p>Superficial infections (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which fungus is commonly associated with histoplasmosis due to its association with bird and bat droppings?

<p>Histoplasma capsulatum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacteria is known to grow well in cold enrichment conditions?

<p>Listeria monocytogenes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the mold phase of dimorphic fungi is accurate?

<p>It requires oxygen for growth. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of antigen is associated with the K antigen in bacteria?

<p>Capsular antigen (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacteria is responsible for pseudomembranous colitis?

<p>Clostridium difficile (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key distinguishing feature of Mycoplasma regarding its cell structure?

<p>Lacks a cell wall (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of medium is used to measure the oxygen tolerance of bacteria?

<p>Thioglycolate media (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines an alpha hemolytic bacteria in terms of red blood cell destruction?

<p>Partial destruction resulting in a greenish zone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of growth media would you use to confirm the presence of capsulated bacteria?

<p>Charcoal enriched media (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true about the action of ergosterol in fungi?

<p>It is analogous to cholesterol in animal cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the process of margination in inflammation refer to?

<p>WBC adhering to blood vessel walls (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following protozoa is transmitted primarily through the fecal-oral route?

<p>Giardia lamblia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii?

<p>Cats (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of Plasmodium malariae occurs within the mosquito?

<p>Sexual stage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is associated with Entamoeba histolytica infection?

<p>Bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is Trypanosoma cruzi primarily transmitted?

<p>Bite from triatomine bugs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the transmission route for Naegleria fowleri?

<p>Nasal passage exposure to contaminated water (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nematode is most commonly associated with perianal itching among children?

<p>Enterobius vermicularis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do antacids play in increasing infection risk for Balantidium coli?

<p>They neutralize stomach acid, allowing more cysts to survive. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of Trichomonas vaginalis infection?

<p>Vaginal discharge (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism is responsible for causing Chagas disease?

<p>Trypanosoma cruzi (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of modules do the trophozoites of Balantidium coli typically undergo upon excystation?

<p>They invade the mucosal lining of the intestines. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes the symptoms of Acanthamoeba keratitis?

<p>Eye pain and blurred vision (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic symptom of necator americanus infection?

<p>Abdominal discomfort (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which protozoan is known to survive in contaminated water and cause gastrointestinal distress?

<p>Giardia lamblia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What are Endotoxins?

Endotoxins are released by Gram-negative bacteria upon cell death. They are also known as lipopolysaccharide (LPS), a component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria.

What are Exotoxins?

Exotoxins are proteins produced by both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, but are released during bacterial growth. They can be found in three main types: cytotoxins, neurotoxins, and enterotoxins.

What's the cell wall difference between Mycobacterium and Mycoplasma?

Mycobacterium have a thick, waxy cell wall that protects them from harsh environments, while Mycoplasma lack a cell wall altogether, making them susceptible to osmotic stress.

What are the differences between alpha, beta, and gamma hemolysis?

Alpha hemolysis shows a greenish or brownish zone around the bacterial colony, indicating partial destruction of red blood cells. Beta hemolysis creates a clear, yellow zone, signifying complete destruction of red blood cells. Gamma hemolysis shows no visible change, meaning no disturbance of red blood cells.

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What is sporulation? When would bacteria sporulate? Which genus sporulates based on oxygen concentration?

Sporulation is the process of forming a resistant, dormant spore within a bacterial cell. Bacteria sporulate under unfavorable conditions like nutrient depletion or environmental stress. Bacillus and Clostridium can both sporulate. Clostridium sporulates anaerobically, while Bacillus sporulates aerobically or facultatively.

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What is a breath test used for? What bacteria does it diagnose?

The breath test diagnoses Helicobacter pylori by detecting the presence of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the breath, which is produced by the bacteria's urease enzyme.

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What are Tc cells (Cytotoxic T cells) and what is their job?

Tc cells (cytotoxic T cells) are CD8+ cells that bind to MHC I molecules on infected or cancerous cells. Their job is to destroy infected or cancerous cells by releasing cytotoxic substances like perforin and granzyme. Memory Tc cells are responsible for recognizing and responding to reinfection with the same pathogen.

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What are Th cells (T helper cells) and what is their job?

T helper (Th) cells are CD4+ cells that bind to MHC II molecules on antigen-presenting cells (APCs). They regulate the immune response by activating other immune cells, like Tc cells and macrophages. Memory Th cells store the memory of an infection and can quickly activate the immune response upon reinfection with the same pathogen.

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What is Thioglycolate media used for? How do you interpret oxygen tolerance based on growth in this media?

Thioglycolate media is used to determine the oxygen tolerance of bacteria. Aerobic bacteria grow at the top of the tube, anaerobic bacteria grow at the bottom of the tube, and facultative anaerobes grow throughout the tube.

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What is the difference between coliforms and non-coliforms?

Coliforms are a group of gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, lactose-fermenting bacteria commonly found in the intestines of humans and animals. Non-coliforms are gram-negative bacteria that do not ferment lactose.

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What makes MSA (Mannitol Salt Agar) selective and differential?

MSA (Mannitol Salt Agar) is a selective and differential medium used to isolate and differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other bacteria. It's selective due to its high salt concentration (7.5% NaCl), which inhibits the growth of most bacteria except staphylococci. It's differential because it contains mannitol, a sugar that S. aureus can ferment, leading to a yellow color change due to the production of acid, while non-mannitol fermenting bacteria produce pink growth.

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How does EMB (Eosin Methylene Blue Agar) differentiate bacteria?

EMB (Eosin Methylene Blue Agar) is differential, meaning it distinguishes bacteria based on their ability to ferment lactose. Pink/lavender growth indicates a weak lactose fermenter, red growth indicates a non-lactose fermenter, and metallic green growth indicates a rapid lactose fermenter. EMB is commonly used for identifying fecal coliforms, gram-negative bacteria that ferment lactose.

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How is HE (Hektoen Enteric Agar ) a differential media?

HE (Hektoen Enteric Agar) is a differential medium that utilizes lactose fermentation, sulfur reduction, and protein breakdown for bacterial differentiation. Yellow growth indicates fermentation of sugars such as lactose, blue/green growth indicates breakdown of proteins to alkali products, and black colonies signify sulfur reduction. HE can differentiate between Salmonella and Shigella, which EMB cannot.

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Where do B cells originate and mature? How are they activated?

B cells (B lymphocytes) originate and mature in the bone marrow. They are responsible for humoral immunity, which involves the production of antibodies. Regulatory B cells help suppress autoimmune responses. B cells are activated when their antigen receptors bind to specific antigens presented by MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) molecules.

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Where do T cells originate and mature? How are they activated?

T cells (T lymphocytes) originate in the bone marrow but mature in the thymus. They are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. Regulatory T cells help suppress autoimmune responses. T cells are activated when their antigen receptors bind to specific antigens presented by MHC molecules on antigen-presenting cells.

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What is Tuberculosis and how is it classified (primary, secondary, tertiary, disseminated)?

Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Primary TB is confined to the lungs and usually asymptomatic. Secondary TB occurs when the tubercle breaks open, releasing bacteria, leading to symptoms. Tertiary TB develops in individuals who already had TB. Disseminated TB occurs when the bacterium spreads from the lungs to other parts of the body. Two commonly used antibiotics are Isoniazid and Rifampin. Rifampin can cause a reddish-orange discoloration of bodily fluids.

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What is an effector B cell and its role in the immune system?

Plasma cells are effector B cells, specialized B lymphocytes that secrete antibodies. They are responsible for the humoral immune response, targeting and neutralizing specific antigens.

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What is a glycocalyx and how does it help bacteria survive in a host?

A glycocalyx is a sugar-based coating found on some bacteria. Two examples include capsules and slime layers. These structures help bacteria survive by providing a mechanical barrier against antibiotics and the host's immune system. A biofilm is a complex community of bacteria, often encased in a glycocalyx, which enhances their survival by protecting them from the host's defenses and antibiotic treatment.

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Why is MSA selective and differential?

MSA (Mannitol Salt Agar) is a selective and differential media used to isolate and differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other bacteria. It's selective due to the high salt concentration (7.5% NaCl) which inhibits the growth of most bacteria except staphylococci. It's differential because it contains mannitol, a sugar that S. aureus can ferment, causing a yellow color change due to acid production, while other bacteria produce pink growth.

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What does EMB differentiate?

EMB (Eosin Methylene Blue Agar) is a differential media that distinguishes bacteria based on their ability to ferment lactose. It's used to identify fecal coliforms, gram-negative bacteria that ferment lactose. Pink/lavender growth indicates a weak lactose fermenter, red growth indicates a non-lactose fermenter, and metallic green growth indicates a rapid lactose fermenter.

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What does HE differentiate?

HE (Hektoen Enteric Agar) is a differential media that utilizes lactose fermentation, sulfur reduction, and protein breakdown for bacterial differentiation. Yellow growth indicates fermentation of sugars such as lactose. Blue/green growth indicates breakdown of proteins to alkali products. Black colonies signify sulfur reduction. HE can differentiate between Salmonella and Shigella, which EMB cannot.

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Where do B cells originate and mature?

B cells (B lymphocytes) originate and mature in the bone marrow. They are responsible for humoral immunity, which involves the production of antibodies. Regulatory B cells help suppress autoimmune responses. B cells are activated when their antigen receptors bind to specific antigens presented by MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) molecules.

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Where do T cells originate and mature?

T cells (T lymphocytes) originate in the bone marrow but mature in the thymus. They are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. Regulatory T cells help suppress autoimmune responses. T cells are activated when their antigen receptors bind to specific antigens presented by MHC molecules on antigen-presenting cells.

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What are the different types of TB?

Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Primary TB is confined to the lungs and usually asymptomatic. Secondary TB occurs when the tubercle breaks open, releasing bacteria, leading to symptoms. Tertiary TB develops in individuals who already had TB. Disseminated TB occurs when the bacterium spreads from the lungs to other parts of the body. Two commonly used antibiotics are Isoniazid and Rifampin. Rifampin can cause a reddish-orange discoloration of bodily fluids.

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What is an effector B cell?

Plasma cells are effector B cells, specialized B lymphocytes that secrete antibodies. They are responsible for the humoral immune response, targeting and neutralizing specific antigens.

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What is a glycocalyx and its role in bacterial survival?

A glycocalyx is a sugar-based coating found on some bacteria. Two examples include capsules and slime layers. This structure helps bacteria survive by providing a mechanical barrier against antibiotics and the host's immune system. A biofilm is a complex community of bacteria, often encased in a glycocalyx, which enhances their survival by protecting them from the host's defenses and antibiotic treatment.

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Dimorphic Fungi

Fungi that exhibit two forms depending on the environment: Yeast form (pathogenic) found in the human body (37°C) and Mold form (environmental) found in the soil or environment (25°C).

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Conidia

Asexual spores borne on specialized structures.

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Sporangiospores

Spores formed inside a sporangium.

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Zygospores

Sexual spores formed by the fusion of two hyphae.

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Ascospores

Sexual spores contained in a sac called an ascus.

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Basidiospores

Sexual spores produced on a basidium.

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Sabouraud's agar (Sab agar)

Culture medium used for growing fungi. It is slightly acidic (pH ~5.6), inhibiting bacterial growth and promoting fungal growth.

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Contagiousness of Fungal Infections

Most fungal infections are not contagious.

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Fungal Infections

Fungal infections caused by invasive growth of fungi. Examples include Candida and Aspergillus.

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Mycotoxins

Toxins produced by fungi. Aflatoxins from Aspergillus are an example.

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Fungal Allergies

Hypersensitivity reactions to fungal spores.

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KOH Test

A test that dissolves keratin, making fungal elements visible under a microscope.

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GMS Stain

A stain that highlights fungal cells in tissue samples.

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Azoles

Antifungal medication that inhibits ergosterol synthesis, which is essential for fungal cell membrane formation.

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Polyenes

Antifungal medication that binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, disrupting their structure and function.

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What is sporulation?

The process by which bacteria form a resistant, dormant spore within their cell to survive unfavorable conditions.

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Describe the process of Gram staining.

Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet stain, appearing purple under a microscope. Gram-negative bacteria lose the stain and are visualized after a counterstain is applied, often appearing pink.

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What's the difference in cell walls between Mycobacterium and Mycoplasma?

Mycobacterium have a thick, waxy cell wall that protects them from harsh environments, while Mycoplasma lack a cell wall altogether, making them susceptible to osmotic stress.

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Describe the different types of hemolysis.

Alpha hemolysis shows a greenish or brownish zone around the bacterial colony, indicating partial destruction of red blood cells. Beta hemolysis creates a clear, yellow zone, signifying complete destruction of red blood cells. Gamma hemolysis shows no visible change, meaning no disturbance of red blood cells.

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How is Helicobacter pylori diagnosed?

A breath test diagnoses Helicobacter pylori by detecting the presence of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the breath, which is produced by the bacteria's urease enzyme.

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What are cytotoxic T cells (Tc cells) and what is their job?

Tc cells (cytotoxic T cells) are CD8+ cells that bind to MHC I molecules on infected or cancerous cells. Their job is to destroy infected or cancerous cells by releasing cytotoxic substances like perforin and granzyme.

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What are T helper cells (Th cells) and what is their job?

T helper (Th) cells are CD4+ cells that bind to MHC II molecules on antigen-presenting cells (APCs). They regulate the immune response by activating other immune cells, like Tc cells and macrophages.

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How does thioglycolate media determine oxygen tolerance?

Thioglycolate media is used to determine the oxygen tolerance of bacteria. Aerobic bacteria grow at the top of the tube, anaerobic bacteria grow at the bottom of the tube, and facultative anaerobes grow throughout the tube.

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Describe the functions of Hyaluronidase, Kinase, Coagulase, and Collagenase.

Hyaluronidase breaks down hyaluronic acid, a component of connective tissue. Kinase adds phosphate groups to molecules, often modifying cell proteins or signaling pathways. Coagulase triggers the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin, causing blood clotting. Collagenase breaks down collagen, a major protein in connective tissue.

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How do sulfas like Bactrim and Gantrisin work as antibiotics?

Sulfas, like Bactrim and Gantrisin, are competitive inhibitors of PABA (para-aminobenzoic acid). This prevents bacteria from producing folic acid, which is essential for their growth.

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Explain the processes of margination, diapedesis, and chemotaxis.

Margination is the process of white blood cells (WBCs) migrating to the site of tissue injury and adhering to the endothelium of blood vessels. Diapedesis is the movement of WBCs between endothelial cells and into the interstitial fluid. Chemotaxis is the directed movement of WBCs towards the site of injury guided by chemical signals.

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What is malaria?

A type of protozoan infection that is caused by the parasitic protozoa Plasmodium. It is transmitted by the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.

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What is the asexual stage of the malaria parasite?

The stage of the malaria parasite's life cycle that occurs in humans, characterized by asexual reproduction.

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What is the sexual stage of the malaria parasite?

The stage of the malaria parasite's life cycle that occurs in mosquitoes, characterized by sexual reproduction.

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What is toxoplasmosis?

A type of protozoan infection that is caused by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii. It is commonly found in cats and can be transmitted to humans through various routes.

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What is balantidiasis?

A type of protozoan infection that is caused by the parasite Balantidium coli. It is transmitted through the fecal-oral route and is often associated with contaminated water or food.

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What is giardiasis?

A type of protozoan infection that is caused by the parasite Giardia lamblia. It is commonly known as "beaver fever" and is transmitted through the fecal-oral route.

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What is trichomoniasis?

A type of protozoan infection that is caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that affects the vagina and urethra.

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What is Chagas disease?

A type of protozoan infection that is caused by the parasite Trypanosoma cruzi. It is transmitted by the bite of an infected triatomine bug, also known as a "kissing bug."

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What is leishmaniasis?

A type of protozoan infection that is caused by the parasite Leishmania donovani. It is transmitted by the bite of an infected sandfly.

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What is amoebiasis?

A type of protozoan infection that is caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica. It is transmitted through the fecal-oral route and can cause dysentery.

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What is Acanthamoeba keratitis?

A type of amoebic infection that affects the cornea of the eye. It is often associated with contact lenses and contaminated water.

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What is Naegleria fowleri infection?

A type of amoebic infection that affects the brain. It is caused by the amoeba Naegleria fowleri and is often contracted through contaminated water.

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What is Ascariasis?

A type of roundworm infection that is caused by the parasite Ascaris lumbricoides. It is transmitted through the fecal-oral route and involves a complex migration cycle within the human body.

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What is pinworm infection?

A type of roundworm infection that is caused by the parasite Enterobius vermicularis. It is commonly known as "pinworm" and is transmitted through the fecal-oral route.

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What is hookworm infection?

A type of roundworm infection that is caused by the parasite Necator americanus. It is transmitted through skin penetration by larvae in contaminated soil.

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Osmosis

A type of passive transport where water moves across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area of low water concentration. This movement is driven by the difference in water potential.

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Inactivated Vaccines

A type of vaccine that uses a deactivated or killed version of the pathogen to stimulate an immune response. They are generally considered safe for most individuals, including pregnant women and those with weakened immune systems.

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Attenuated Vaccines

A type of vaccine that uses a weakened or modified live version of the pathogen to stimulate an immune response. They are often more effective than inactivated vaccines, but may not be suitable for everyone.

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Hypertonic

A solution with a higher concentration of solutes compared to the inside of the cell. Water moves out of the cell, causing it to shrink.

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Hypotonic

A solution with a lower concentration of solutes compared to the inside of the cell. Water moves into the cell, causing it to swell.

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Isotonic

A solution with the same concentration of solutes as the inside of the cell. There is no net movement of water.

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RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus)

A type of respiratory virus, primarily affecting infants and young children. It can cause bronchiolitis, a serious lung infection leading to shortness of breath and wheezing.

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Prevalence

A measure of how common a disease or condition is in a population at a specific time. It is often expressed as a percentage or proportion.

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Incidence

A measure of the number of new cases of a disease or condition that occur within a specific period of time. It is often expressed as the number of new cases per 100,000 individuals over a year.

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Kirby-Bauer Method

A method of determining the sensitivity or resistance of bacteria to specific antibiotics. It involves placing antibiotic disks onto an agar plate containing bacteria and measuring the zone of inhibition around each disk.

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Wuchereria bancrofti

Transmission occurs through the bite of infected mosquitoes (Culex, Anopheles, or Aedes species).

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Dracunculus medinensis

Transmission occurs through ingestion of water contaminated with copepods carrying larvae.

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Schistosoma mansoni

Slender, elongated worms. Males have a gynecophoral canal to hold females.

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Fasciola hepatica

Leaf-shaped, flatworm approximately 3 cm in length. It feeds on liver tissue and bile.

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Taenia solium vs. Taenia saginata

Taenia solium has hooks and suckers, while Taenia saginata has only suckers.

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Platyhelminthes

Dorsoventrally flattened, unsegmented (except tapeworms). Includes flukes (Schistosoma, Fasciola) and tapeworms (Taenia).

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Nematodes

Cylindrical, unsegmented bodies. Dioecious (separate sexes).

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General Characteristics of Helminths

Multicellular eukaryotes with specialized systems (nervous, digestive, etc.). Life cycles involve intermediate and definitive hosts.

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Dioecious

Separate male and female organisms (e.g., Schistosoma).

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Monoecious

Both male and female reproductive organs in one organism (e.g., Fasciola hepatica, Taenia species).

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Schistosoma mansoni symptoms

Acute symptoms include rash, fever, chills, and diarrhea. Chronic symptoms include liver fibrosis, portal hypertension, splenomegaly, and ascites.

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Fasciola hepatica symptoms

Acute symptoms include fever, abdominal pain, and nausea. Chronic symptoms include jaundice, bile duct obstruction, and liver damage.

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Taenia solium/saginata symptoms

Intestinal infection symptoms include abdominal pain, weight loss, and diarrhea.

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Albendazole/Mebendazole

Effective against a broad spectrum of nematodes (Ascaris, hookworms, pinworms) and some cestodes.

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Praziquantel

Effective against Schistosomes (blood flukes), liver flukes (Fasciola), and tapeworms (Taenia).

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Study Notes

MSA (Mannitol Salt Agar)

  • Selective: High salt concentration (7.5% NaCl) inhibits the growth of most bacteria except for Staphylococcus.
  • Differential: Differentiates mannitol fermenters (yellow) from non-fermenters (pink). Yellow colonies indicate mannitol fermentation, producing acid; pink colonies show no mannitol fermentation.
  • Differentiates pathogenic Staphylococcus aureus from non-pathogenic Staphylococcus species.
  • Yellow growth: Mannitol fermenter.
  • Pink growth: Non-mannitol fermenter.

EMB (Eosin Methylene Blue Agar)

  • Differential: Differentiates based on lactose fermentation ability.
  • Pink/Lavender Growth: Gram-negative bacteria that are weak lactose fermenters.
  • Red Growth: Gram-negative bacteria that are non-lactose fermenters.
  • Metallic Green Growth: Gram-negative bacteria that are rapid lactose fermenters. Used to identify fecal coliforms.

HE (Hektoen Enteric Agar)

  • Differential: Differentiates based on lactose fermentation and sulfur reduction.
  • Yellow: Fermentation of sugar (e.g., E. coli).
  • Blue/Green: Breakdown of protein to alkali products (e.g., Salmonella and Shigella).
  • Black: Sulfur reduction (e.g., Salmonella).
  • Differentiates Salmonella and Shigella from E. coli.
  • Differentiates by the addition of thiosulfate and ferric ammonium citrate, and lactose fermentation.

B vs. T Cells

  • B Cells: Originate and mature in the bone marrow. Activated by the MHC complex.
  • T Cells: Originate in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus; produces regulatory cells. Activation involves an antigen-presenting cell.
  • Not all self-reactive cells undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death).

Tuberculosis (TB)

  • Bacteria: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Primary TB: Infection contained in the lungs.
  • Secondary TB: Tubercle breaks open, spreading the infection.
  • Tertiary/Disseminated TB: Mycobacterium spread throughout the body.
  • Antibiotics: Isoniazid and rifampin.
  • Unusual Side Effect (Rifampin): Turns bodily fluids (urine, tears, sweat) an orange-red color.

Effector B Cell

  • Effector B Cell: Plasma cell.
  • Job: Releases antibodies.

Glycocalyx

  • Examples: Endothelial cells and digestive system cells.
  • Role in bacterial survival: Provides a mechanical barrier against antibiotics and evades host defense systems.
  • Biofilm contribution: Allows bacteria to invade host defense systems.

Cell Wall Makeup

  • Gram-Positive: Thick peptidoglycan layer.
  • Gram-Negative: Thin peptidoglycan layer.
  • Acid-Fast: Used for Mycobacterium bacteria (e.g., TB).

Gram Stain

  • Gram-Positive: Retain crystal violet (purple).
  • Gram-Negative: Lose crystal violet, stain pink with safranin.
  • Primary Stain: Crystal violet.
  • Decolorizer: Ethyl alcohol.
  • Counterstain: Safranin.
  • False Positive: Gram-negative bacteria appearing purple due to insufficient decolorization.
  • False Negative: Gram-positive bacteria appearing pink due to excessive decolorization.
  • Counterstain Purpose: To visualize Gram-negative bacteria.
  • Gram-Positive Appearance After Decolorization: Purple.
  • Gram-Negative Appearance After Decolorization: Clear/Colorless.

Endotoxin vs. Exotoxin

  • Endotoxin (Gram-Negative): Released upon bacterial death. Also known as lipopolysaccharide (LPS).
  • Exotoxin (Gram-Positive/Gram-Negative): Released during cell lysis or by active secretion; Lipoteichoic acid (LTA).
  • Types of Exotoxins: Various, including cytotoxins and neurotoxins.

Lyme Disease

  • Disease: Lyme disease.
  • Bacteria: Borrelia burgdorferi.
  • Classification: Spirochete.

Cell Wall Differences (Mycobacterium vs. Mycoplasma)

  • Mycobacterium: Thick, protective, waxy cell wall.
  • Mycoplasma: Lacks a cell wall.

Hemolysis

  • Alpha: Greenish/brownish zone around colonies. Partial RBC destruction.
  • Beta: Clear zone. Complete RBC destruction.
  • Gamma: No visible change. No RBC destruction.

Sporulation

  • Genera: Bacillus and Clostridium.
  • Definition: Formation of spores.
  • Trigger: Unfavorable growth conditions.
  • Oxygen's Role: Bacillus (aerobic or facultative anaerobe) sporulates as a result of oxygen concentration; Clostridium (anaerobe) doesn't sporulate in oxygen.
  • Germination: The process of a spore returning to a vegetative state.

Anti-retroviral Medications

  • Examples: Medications used for COVID-19, Herpes, Hepatitis B & C, and HIV.

Breath Test

  • Diagnosis: Helicobacter pylori.
  • Causes: Pain, inflammation, and ulcers in the upper digestive tract.

Antigens

  • H Antigen: Flagellar antigen (variable). Example: Salmonella.
  • K Antigen: Capsular antigen (protective). Example: Escherichia coli.

Th vs. Tc Cells

  • Tc (Cytotoxic T Cells): CD8; Binds MHC I; Kills infected cells. Memory cells provide future immunity.
  • Th (Helper T Cells): CD4; Binds MHC II; Regulates immune response. Memory cells provide future immunity.
  • Treg (Regulatory T Cells): Suppresses immune response.
  • MHC I: Present on all nucleated cells.
  • MHC II: Present on antigen-presenting cells (APCs).
  • Not all self-reactive cells undergo apoptosis.

Tc Effector Cell and Innate Cell Comparison

  • Innate Cell: Similar to natural killer (NK) cells.
  • Substances secreted: Perforin and granzymes.

Oxygen Tolerance

  • Media: Thioglycolate broth.
  • Interpretation: Growth position in media indicates oxygen tolerance.

Coliforms vs. Non-coliforms

  • Coliforms: Gram-negative, facultative anaerobes, ferment lactose.
  • Non-coliforms: Do not ferment lactose.

Enzymes

  • Hyaluronidase: Breaks down hyaluronic acid.
  • Kinase: Adds phosphate groups to molecules.
  • Coagulase: Converts fibrinogen to fibrin (blood clotting).
  • Collagenase: Breaks down collagen.

Antibiotic MOA (Mechanism of Action)

  • Sulfonamides (e.g., Bactrim, Gantrisin): Competitive inhibitors of PABA, preventing folic acid production.

Syphilis

  • Bacteria: Treponema pallidum.
  • Stages:
    • Incubation (3-6 weeks): Ulcers at infection site.
    • Onset (3-6 weeks): Skin rashes.
    • Severe Organ Damage.

WBC Response to Injury

  • Margination: White blood cells migrate to the injury site and adhere to the site.
  • Diapedesis: White blood cells squeeze between endothelial cells into the interstitial fluid.
  • Chemotaxis: White blood cells migrate to the injury site.

Pseudomembranous Conditions

  • Pseudomembranous Colitis: Clostridium difficile; Watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever, pseudomembrane in colon.
  • Pseudomembranous Pharyngitis: Corynebacterium diphtheriae; Sore throat, fever, grayish-white pseudomembrane, swollen neck.
  • Strep Throat: Streptococcus pyogenes; Severe sore throat, fever, swollen tonsils, white exudates.

Bacteria Growth in Specific Media

  • Charcoal-Enriched: Supports Legionella pneumophila and Bordetella pertussis.
  • Cold Enrichment: Favors Listeria monocytogenes, Yersinia enterocolitica, Campylobacter jejuni, and Salmonella enterica.
  • Heat Enrichment: Promotes Thermophilic Bacillus species, Clostridium species, thermotolerant Enterococcus faecalis.

Antimicrobial for Herpes

  • Antiviral: Acyclovir and Ganciclovir
  • Mechanism: Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors.

Mycology

  • Mycology: The study of fungi and their properties.
  • Mycoses: Fungal infections in humans or animals.
  • Characteristics: Eukaryotic, cell wall made of chitin, unicellular (yeasts) or multicellular (molds).
    • Obtain nutrients as saprobes or parasites.
  • Ergosterol: A component of fungal cell membranes.
  • Fungistatic: Inhibit ergosterol synthesis (e.g., azoles).
  • Fungicidal: Bind to ergosterol, causing membrane damage (e.g., polyenes).
  • Morphological Forms: Hyphae (thread-like structures), septate (divided by cross walls), nonseptate (continuous), yeasts (single-celled), pseudohyphae (chains of elongated yeasts).
  • Dimorphic Fungi: Alternate between yeast and mold forms based on environmental temperature.
  • Reproductive Spores: Asexual (conidia, sporangiospores) and sexual (zygospores, ascospores, basidiospores).
  • Fungal Culture: Sabouraud's agar (Sab agar) is slightly acidic, inhibiting bacterial growth and facilitating fungal growth. Most fungal infections are not contagious, some exceptions like dermatophytes are contagious.
  • Diagnosis: KOH test, GMS stain, colony morphology.
  • Antifungal Medications: Fungistatic (azoles, side effects: hepatotoxicity), Fungicidal (polyenes, side effects: nephrotoxicity), other drugs (flucytosine, griseofulvin).
  • Special Fungi: Histoplasma capsulatum (histoplasmosis), Coccidioides immitis (cocci), Candida albicans (thrush), Cryptococcus neoformans, Penicillium chrysogenum, Malassezia furfur (tinea versicolor).
  • Superficial Fungal Infections: Tinea infections (capitis, corporis, pedis, cruris, barbae, manuum, unguium).
  • Subcutaneous Fungi: Sporothrix schenckii (rose gardener's disease).

Protozoa

  • General Characteristics: Unicellular, eukaryotic, diverse motility.
  • Modes of Motility: Flagella, cilia, pseudopodia, non-motile.
  • Trophozoite vs. Cyst: Active vs. dormant stages.
  • Definitive Host vs. Intermediate Host: Host with sexual vs. asexual reproduction.
  • Prevention for Insect-Transmitted or Food/Water-Borne Diseases: Insect-borne (insect repellents, vector control) and water/food-borne (safe water, food preparation).
  • Antiprotozoal Medications: Metronidazole (GI upset, potential neurotoxicity), chloroquine (GI upset, potential retinal damage), Artemisin-based Combination Therapy (fever, chills, headache), Nitazoxanide (nausea, abdominal pain), Pentamidine (hypoglycemia, kidney damage, low blood pressure), Suramin and Melarsoprol (severe), Paromomycin (GI upset, nephrotoxicity).
  • Plasmodium malariae: Symptoms, vector (Anopheles mosquito), asexual and sexual stages, parts of erythrocytic stage, definitive vs. intermediate host.
  • Toxoplasma gondii: Definitive and intermediate hosts, transmission, vertical transmission, congenital toxoplasmosis.
  • Balantidium coli: Only pathogenic ciliate to humans, transmission, zoonotic source, excystation trigger, antacid implications, symptoms.
  • Giardia lamblia: Nickname, zoonotic, transmission, symptoms, lactose intolerance implication.
  • Trichomonas vaginalis: Transmission, cyst stage, symptoms.
  • Trypanosoma cruzi: Disease, vector (triatomine bug), symptoms, complications.
  • Leishmania donovani: Nickname, vector (sandfly), forms and symptoms.
  • Entamoeba histolytica: Transmission, life cycle, symptoms, complications.
  • Acanthamoeba keratitis: Transmission, symptoms, route to brain (GAE).
  • Naegleria fowleri: Transmission, symptoms, route to brain (PAM).

Nematodes and Platyhelminthes

  • Nematodes (Roundworms):

    • Ascaris lumbricoides: Nickname, transmission, migration, symptoms, egg resistance.
    • Enterobius vermicularis: Nickname, transmission, diagnosis, symptoms, commonality.
    • Necator americanus: Nickname, transmission, symptoms.
    • Trichinella spiralis: Nickname, transmission, symptoms, diagnosis.
    • Wuchereria bancrofti: Nickname, transmission, symptoms, testing timing.
    • Dracunculus medinensis: Nickname, transmission, symptoms.
  • Platyhelminthes (Flatworms):

    • Schistosoma mansoni: Nickname, appearance, transmission, acute/chronic symptoms, dioecious, egg effects.
    • Fasciola hepatica: Nickname, appearance, transmission, feeds on, acute/chronic symptoms, monoecious.
    • Taenia solium vs. Taenia saginata: Nicknames, scolex differences, proglottid differences, transmission, symptoms (intestinal vs. cysticercosis).
  • General Characteristics of Helminths: Multicellular eukaryotes, life cycles involving intermediate and definitive hosts, egg/larval reproduction.

  • Dioecious vs. Monoecious: Separate vs. single-sex organism reproduction.

  • Antihelminthic Drugs: Albendazole/mebendazole, praziquantel, ivermectin, pyrantel pamoate - mechanisms and common targets.

  • Heartworm Prevention: Ivermectin or Milbemycin oxime - targeting larval stages, monthly administration importance.

  • How Antibiotics Kill Helminths Indirectly: Doxycycline or other antibiotics disrupting symbiotic bacteria within filarial worms.

###Other Topics

  • (Refer to the included text for updates and details on topics like viruses, BSL levels, prevalence/incidence, Kirby-Bauer method, acid-fast stains, endospore stains, biofilm, and various disease details)

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Test your knowledge on selective and differential media used in microbiology, including Mannitol Salt Agar, Eosin Methylene Blue Agar, and Hektoen Enteric Agar. This quiz will help you understand how to differentiate between various bacterial species based on their growth characteristics. Perfect for students studying microbiology or preparing for exams.

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