Podcast
Questions and Answers
What effect does the EF (Edema factor) have on macrophages?
What effect does the EF (Edema factor) have on macrophages?
- It enhances phagocytosis.
- It directly kills macrophages.
- It causes apoptosis of immune cells.
- It causes local edema and interferes with phagocytosis. (correct)
Which factors contribute to the virulence of anthrax in humans?
Which factors contribute to the virulence of anthrax in humans?
- The presence of an acid capsule and lethal factor. (correct)
- Exclusively respiratory transmission.
- Only through contaminated water sources.
- Sporadic infections from herbivores.
What characteristic distinguishes cutaneous anthrax from other forms?
What characteristic distinguishes cutaneous anthrax from other forms?
- Results in the formation of black necrotic lesions. (correct)
- Leads to systemic infection without local symptoms.
- Is transmitted solely through water contamination.
- Causes severe respiratory distress.
How was anthrax utilized as a bioterrorism weapon in 2001?
How was anthrax utilized as a bioterrorism weapon in 2001?
In gastrointestinal anthrax, which entry portal is primarily responsible for infection?
In gastrointestinal anthrax, which entry portal is primarily responsible for infection?
What conditions often predispose herbivores to anthrax infection?
What conditions often predispose herbivores to anthrax infection?
What distinguishes the eschar in cutaneous anthrax from other skin lesions?
What distinguishes the eschar in cutaneous anthrax from other skin lesions?
What was a significant response from institutions following the bioterrorism event involving anthrax?
What was a significant response from institutions following the bioterrorism event involving anthrax?
What is the primary route of bacterial exposure for Nocardia infection, particularly in immunocompromised patients?
What is the primary route of bacterial exposure for Nocardia infection, particularly in immunocompromised patients?
Which of the following treatments is NOT effective against Nocardia infections?
Which of the following treatments is NOT effective against Nocardia infections?
Which of the following statements about Bacillus anthracis is FALSE?
Which of the following statements about Bacillus anthracis is FALSE?
Which characteristic is true for Bacillus species?
Which characteristic is true for Bacillus species?
In terms of bioterrorism implications, which feature makes Bacillus anthracis a significant pathogen?
In terms of bioterrorism implications, which feature makes Bacillus anthracis a significant pathogen?
What type of anthrax infection is most commonly associated with the inhalation of spores?
What type of anthrax infection is most commonly associated with the inhalation of spores?
What is a key differentiator of Clostridia compared to Bacillus?
What is a key differentiator of Clostridia compared to Bacillus?
What is a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis's capsule?
What is a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis's capsule?
Which of the following antibiotics is preferred for post-exposure prophylaxis if the strain is penicillin sensitive?
Which of the following antibiotics is preferred for post-exposure prophylaxis if the strain is penicillin sensitive?
What type of food poisoning is associated with the emetic toxin from Bacillus cereus?
What type of food poisoning is associated with the emetic toxin from Bacillus cereus?
Which Bacillus species is commonly used as an autoclave indicator?
Which Bacillus species is commonly used as an autoclave indicator?
Which symptom is a clinical feature of the diarrheal type of food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus?
Which symptom is a clinical feature of the diarrheal type of food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus?
Which statement about Bacillus cereus is true?
Which statement about Bacillus cereus is true?
What are the recommended control measures for preventing infections associated with Bacillus spp.?
What are the recommended control measures for preventing infections associated with Bacillus spp.?
What is the incubation period for food poisoning caused by the emetic toxin of Bacillus cereus?
What is the incubation period for food poisoning caused by the emetic toxin of Bacillus cereus?
Which Bacillus species is reported to potentially cause food poisoning bacteremia?
Which Bacillus species is reported to potentially cause food poisoning bacteremia?
Which condition is NOT typically caused by Bacillus cereus?
Which condition is NOT typically caused by Bacillus cereus?
Which of the following Bacillus species is primarily a common laboratory contaminant?
Which of the following Bacillus species is primarily a common laboratory contaminant?
What is the primary mechanism of illness associated with Vibrio cholerae infections?
What is the primary mechanism of illness associated with Vibrio cholerae infections?
Which risk factor is associated with Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections?
Which risk factor is associated with Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections?
What is the typical symptom profile for a severe Vibrio cholerae infection?
What is the typical symptom profile for a severe Vibrio cholerae infection?
Which preventative measure is most effective for reducing the risk of Vibrio infections?
Which preventative measure is most effective for reducing the risk of Vibrio infections?
What complication is associated with Hypersecretion of electrolytes and water in Vibrio cholerae infections?
What complication is associated with Hypersecretion of electrolytes and water in Vibrio cholerae infections?
What food item is most commonly implicated in Vibrio cholerae infections?
What food item is most commonly implicated in Vibrio cholerae infections?
What distinguishes the diarrhea caused by non-01/non-0139 Vibrio cholerae strains?
What distinguishes the diarrhea caused by non-01/non-0139 Vibrio cholerae strains?
Which of the following is recommended for preventing infections in water bodies often associated with Vibrio spp.?
Which of the following is recommended for preventing infections in water bodies often associated with Vibrio spp.?
What is a common characteristic of Plesiomonas shigelloides infections?
What is a common characteristic of Plesiomonas shigelloides infections?
Which group is Aeromonas spp. primarily responsible for infections in?
Which group is Aeromonas spp. primarily responsible for infections in?
Which clinical presentation is most indicative of infections caused by Aeromonas spp.?
Which clinical presentation is most indicative of infections caused by Aeromonas spp.?
Which culture technique is most effective for isolating Aeromonas spp. from samples?
Which culture technique is most effective for isolating Aeromonas spp. from samples?
What kind of water environments are Plesiomonas shigelloides typically found in?
What kind of water environments are Plesiomonas shigelloides typically found in?
What laboratory feature allows for the identification of Plesiomonas shigelloides?
What laboratory feature allows for the identification of Plesiomonas shigelloides?
What is the primary mode of transmission for Plesiomonas shigelloides infections?
What is the primary mode of transmission for Plesiomonas shigelloides infections?
What is the risk factor associated with Aeromonas spp. septicemia?
What is the risk factor associated with Aeromonas spp. septicemia?
What is the primary mode of transmission for Vibrio vulnificus infections?
What is the primary mode of transmission for Vibrio vulnificus infections?
Which of the following laboratory tests differentiates Vibrio species based on their hemolytic properties?
Which of the following laboratory tests differentiates Vibrio species based on their hemolytic properties?
Which symptom is most commonly associated with Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections?
Which symptom is most commonly associated with Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections?
What is a significant risk factor for developing infections caused by Vibrio species?
What is a significant risk factor for developing infections caused by Vibrio species?
What phenomenon is specifically related to the pathogenicity of Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
What phenomenon is specifically related to the pathogenicity of Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
Which selective agar medium is most appropriate for isolating Vibrio species?
Which selective agar medium is most appropriate for isolating Vibrio species?
Which Vibrio species is primarily known for causing serious infections in individuals with liver disease?
Which Vibrio species is primarily known for causing serious infections in individuals with liver disease?
How can foodborne outbreaks associated with Vibrio parahaemolyticus be effectively prevented?
How can foodborne outbreaks associated with Vibrio parahaemolyticus be effectively prevented?
What is a distinguishing feature of Treponema compared to other spirochetes?
What is a distinguishing feature of Treponema compared to other spirochetes?
Which statement accurately describes the role of ticks in the transmission of Lyme disease?
Which statement accurately describes the role of ticks in the transmission of Lyme disease?
Which laboratory method is considered the preferred approach for diagnosing Lyme disease?
Which laboratory method is considered the preferred approach for diagnosing Lyme disease?
What clinical feature is characteristic of the second stage of Lyme disease?
What clinical feature is characteristic of the second stage of Lyme disease?
What is a common characteristic of Treponema observed under microscopy?
What is a common characteristic of Treponema observed under microscopy?
During which stage of Lyme disease do the symptoms of fever and headache typically first appear?
During which stage of Lyme disease do the symptoms of fever and headache typically first appear?
Which of the following antibodies develops slowly in response to Lyme disease, specifically targeting proteins such as OSp17 and p39?
Which of the following antibodies develops slowly in response to Lyme disease, specifically targeting proteins such as OSp17 and p39?
What temperature range is optimal for incubating cultures of Borrelia burgdorferi?
What temperature range is optimal for incubating cultures of Borrelia burgdorferi?
What is the primary culture media used for isolating Leptospira?
What is the primary culture media used for isolating Leptospira?
Which characteristic is true regarding the structure of Borrelia?
Which characteristic is true regarding the structure of Borrelia?
Which method is considered the gold standard for the serodiagnosis of Leptospira?
Which method is considered the gold standard for the serodiagnosis of Leptospira?
Borrellia species that cause relapsing fever are primarily transmitted by which vector?
Borrellia species that cause relapsing fever are primarily transmitted by which vector?
What is the primary antibody detected in serodiagnosis within one week after the onset of leptospirosis?
What is the primary antibody detected in serodiagnosis within one week after the onset of leptospirosis?
Which virulence factor is specifically mentioned for Borrelia species?
Which virulence factor is specifically mentioned for Borrelia species?
Leptospira cultures require which condition to minimize inhibitory effects for successful growth?
Leptospira cultures require which condition to minimize inhibitory effects for successful growth?
What method is NOT typically used for the diagnosis of Leptospira?
What method is NOT typically used for the diagnosis of Leptospira?
Which characteristic is unique to Leptospira among spirochetes?
Which characteristic is unique to Leptospira among spirochetes?
What is the primary mode of reproduction for Borrelia?
What is the primary mode of reproduction for Borrelia?
Which diagnostic technique is employed to visualize spirochetes that cannot be readily stained?
Which diagnostic technique is employed to visualize spirochetes that cannot be readily stained?
Which serovar of L. interrogans is most commonly associated with leptospirosis?
Which serovar of L. interrogans is most commonly associated with leptospirosis?
What environmental exposure is primarily linked to the transmission of leptospirosis?
What environmental exposure is primarily linked to the transmission of leptospirosis?
Which of the following spirochetes is primarily free-living outside of a host?
Which of the following spirochetes is primarily free-living outside of a host?
What structural feature contributes to the corkscrew-like motility of spirochetes?
What structural feature contributes to the corkscrew-like motility of spirochetes?
Leptospirosis is commonly associated with which of the following professions?
Leptospirosis is commonly associated with which of the following professions?
Which group of mycobacteria produces pigment only in the presence of light and is classified as a slow grower?
Which group of mycobacteria produces pigment only in the presence of light and is classified as a slow grower?
What type of tuberculosis occurs during a patient's first exposure to the bacteria?
What type of tuberculosis occurs during a patient's first exposure to the bacteria?
What is a key mechanism of transmission for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
What is a key mechanism of transmission for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Which factor significantly contributes to the pathogenicity of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Which factor significantly contributes to the pathogenicity of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Which of the following factors is NOT typically associated with a higher risk of developing tuberculosis?
Which of the following factors is NOT typically associated with a higher risk of developing tuberculosis?
What is the primary pathway through which tuberculosis is transmitted from an infected individual to another person?
What is the primary pathway through which tuberculosis is transmitted from an infected individual to another person?
In which type of tuberculosis do latent bacteria become active and the individual begins to exhibit symptoms?
In which type of tuberculosis do latent bacteria become active and the individual begins to exhibit symptoms?
Which of the following factors significantly contributes to the virulence of a strain of tuberculosis?
Which of the following factors significantly contributes to the virulence of a strain of tuberculosis?
Which risk factor is NOT associated with the progression from tuberculosis infection to active disease?
Which risk factor is NOT associated with the progression from tuberculosis infection to active disease?
What is the site of infection for tuberculosis once airborne droplets reach the respiratory tract?
What is the site of infection for tuberculosis once airborne droplets reach the respiratory tract?
Which characteristic differentiates primary tuberculosis from reactivation tuberculosis?
Which characteristic differentiates primary tuberculosis from reactivation tuberculosis?
What is a common presentation of extrapulmonary tuberculosis (EPTB)?
What is a common presentation of extrapulmonary tuberculosis (EPTB)?
In the context of tuberculosis, what does the term 'miliary TB' refer to?
In the context of tuberculosis, what does the term 'miliary TB' refer to?
Which of the following forms of tuberculosis is most commonly associated with symptoms of cough, fever, and chest pain?
Which of the following forms of tuberculosis is most commonly associated with symptoms of cough, fever, and chest pain?
What is a common risk factor that may contribute to the development of extrapulmonary tuberculosis?
What is a common risk factor that may contribute to the development of extrapulmonary tuberculosis?
Which of the following statements accurately describes the transmission mechanisms for tuberculosis?
Which of the following statements accurately describes the transmission mechanisms for tuberculosis?
Which type of tuberculosis is characterized by a non-productive cough and systemic symptoms like weight loss and night sweats?
Which type of tuberculosis is characterized by a non-productive cough and systemic symptoms like weight loss and night sweats?
What underlying condition is often associated with the predisposition to renal tuberculosis?
What underlying condition is often associated with the predisposition to renal tuberculosis?
What clinical manifestation indicates advanced tuberculosis infection and potential lung tissue necrosis?
What clinical manifestation indicates advanced tuberculosis infection and potential lung tissue necrosis?
Which type of extrapulmonary tuberculosis primarily affects the lymphatic system in children?
Which type of extrapulmonary tuberculosis primarily affects the lymphatic system in children?
Which test is commonly utilized to determine if a person has been exposed to tuberculosis?
Which test is commonly utilized to determine if a person has been exposed to tuberculosis?
Which treatment approach is typically employed for managing tuberculosis disease?
Which treatment approach is typically employed for managing tuberculosis disease?
In which location can miliary tuberculosis manifest, affecting multiple organ systems?
In which location can miliary tuberculosis manifest, affecting multiple organ systems?
Flashcards
Anthrax toxins
Anthrax toxins
Proteins produced by Bacillus anthracis that cause harm to humans or animals.
Cutaneous anthrax
Cutaneous anthrax
Anthrax infection that enters the body through a skin wound, leading to a characteristic ulcer.
Edema toxin
Edema toxin
A toxin that causes swelling by impairing the immune system.
Lethal toxin
Lethal toxin
Signup and view all the flashcards
Anthrax transmission (animals)
Anthrax transmission (animals)
Signup and view all the flashcards
Anthrax transmission (humans)
Anthrax transmission (humans)
Signup and view all the flashcards
Eschar
Eschar
Signup and view all the flashcards
Anthrax as a bioweapon
Anthrax as a bioweapon
Signup and view all the flashcards
Antibiotic regimen for treatment
Antibiotic regimen for treatment
Signup and view all the flashcards
Post-exposure prophylaxis
Post-exposure prophylaxis
Signup and view all the flashcards
Bacillus cereus
Bacillus cereus
Signup and view all the flashcards
Food poisoning (Bacillus cereus)
Food poisoning (Bacillus cereus)
Signup and view all the flashcards
Diarrheal toxin (Bacillus cereus)
Diarrheal toxin (Bacillus cereus)
Signup and view all the flashcards
Emetic toxin (Bacillus cereus)
Emetic toxin (Bacillus cereus)
Signup and view all the flashcards
Autoclave indicator
Autoclave indicator
Signup and view all the flashcards
Bacillus stearothermophilus
Bacillus stearothermophilus
Signup and view all the flashcards
Eye infections (endophthalmitis, panophthalmitis, keratitis) causes
Eye infections (endophthalmitis, panophthalmitis, keratitis) causes
Signup and view all the flashcards
Contamination of animal products
Contamination of animal products
Signup and view all the flashcards
Bacillus spp.
Bacillus spp.
Signup and view all the flashcards
Bacillus anthracis
Bacillus anthracis
Signup and view all the flashcards
Bacillus characteristics
Bacillus characteristics
Signup and view all the flashcards
Bacillus anthracis virulence
Bacillus anthracis virulence
Signup and view all the flashcards
Nocardia infection treatment
Nocardia infection treatment
Signup and view all the flashcards
Nocardia infection manifestation
Nocardia infection manifestation
Signup and view all the flashcards
Clostridia spores
Clostridia spores
Signup and view all the flashcards
Bacillus spores
Bacillus spores
Signup and view all the flashcards
Plesiomonas shigelloides
Plesiomonas shigelloides
Signup and view all the flashcards
Plesiomonas shigelloides transmission
Plesiomonas shigelloides transmission
Signup and view all the flashcards
Aeromonas spp. - Red Leg Disease
Aeromonas spp. - Red Leg Disease
Signup and view all the flashcards
Aeromonas spp. - Travelers' Diarrhea
Aeromonas spp. - Travelers' Diarrhea
Signup and view all the flashcards
Aeromonas spp. - Human Infections
Aeromonas spp. - Human Infections
Signup and view all the flashcards
Aeromonas spp. - Culture
Aeromonas spp. - Culture
Signup and view all the flashcards
Vibrio cholerae
Vibrio cholerae
Signup and view all the flashcards
TCBS agar
TCBS agar
Signup and view all the flashcards
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Signup and view all the flashcards
Vibrio infections: Risk Factors
Vibrio infections: Risk Factors
Signup and view all the flashcards
Vibrio cholerae: Typical Symptoms
Vibrio cholerae: Typical Symptoms
Signup and view all the flashcards
Vibrio prevention
Vibrio prevention
Signup and view all the flashcards
Vibrio infections: Treatment
Vibrio infections: Treatment
Signup and view all the flashcards
Vibrio cholerae: Key Features
Vibrio cholerae: Key Features
Signup and view all the flashcards
Vibrio vulnificus
Vibrio vulnificus
Signup and view all the flashcards
Vibrio Static Test
Vibrio Static Test
Signup and view all the flashcards
Kanagawa Phenomenon
Kanagawa Phenomenon
Signup and view all the flashcards
Polar flagella
Polar flagella
Signup and view all the flashcards
Peritrichous flagella
Peritrichous flagella
Signup and view all the flashcards
Lyme disease vector
Lyme disease vector
Signup and view all the flashcards
Lyme disease stages
Lyme disease stages
Signup and view all the flashcards
Lyme disease diagnosis
Lyme disease diagnosis
Signup and view all the flashcards
Treponema characteristics
Treponema characteristics
Signup and view all the flashcards
Treponema size
Treponema size
Signup and view all the flashcards
Treponema vs. other spirochetes
Treponema vs. other spirochetes
Signup and view all the flashcards
Warthin-Starry stain
Warthin-Starry stain
Signup and view all the flashcards
Kelly Medium
Kelly Medium
Signup and view all the flashcards
Spirochete
Spirochete
Signup and view all the flashcards
Axial Filament
Axial Filament
Signup and view all the flashcards
Leptospira
Leptospira
Signup and view all the flashcards
Leptospirosis
Leptospirosis
Signup and view all the flashcards
How do spirochetes move?
How do spirochetes move?
Signup and view all the flashcards
What is the shape of a Leptospira?
What is the shape of a Leptospira?
Signup and view all the flashcards
How is Leptospirosis transmitted?
How is Leptospirosis transmitted?
Signup and view all the flashcards
How can you visualize Leptospira?
How can you visualize Leptospira?
Signup and view all the flashcards
Leptospira Culture
Leptospira Culture
Signup and view all the flashcards
Serodiagnosis for Leptospira
Serodiagnosis for Leptospira
Signup and view all the flashcards
Borrelia Characteristics
Borrelia Characteristics
Signup and view all the flashcards
Lyme Disease Cause
Lyme Disease Cause
Signup and view all the flashcards
Relapsing Fever Cause
Relapsing Fever Cause
Signup and view all the flashcards
Relapsing Fever Features
Relapsing Fever Features
Signup and view all the flashcards
Borrelia Virulence Factors
Borrelia Virulence Factors
Signup and view all the flashcards
Relapsing Fever Transmission
Relapsing Fever Transmission
Signup and view all the flashcards
Primary TB
Primary TB
Signup and view all the flashcards
Reactivation TB
Reactivation TB
Signup and view all the flashcards
What weakens the immune system and leads to reactivation TB?
What weakens the immune system and leads to reactivation TB?
Signup and view all the flashcards
What happens when TB reaches the alveoli?
What happens when TB reaches the alveoli?
Signup and view all the flashcards
Extrapulmonary TB
Extrapulmonary TB
Signup and view all the flashcards
Miliary TB
Miliary TB
Signup and view all the flashcards
What is the common transmission route for TB?
What is the common transmission route for TB?
Signup and view all the flashcards
How does TB spread?
How does TB spread?
Signup and view all the flashcards
What are the smallest droplets?
What are the smallest droplets?
Signup and view all the flashcards
Mycobacteria Groups
Mycobacteria Groups
Signup and view all the flashcards
Photochromogen
Photochromogen
Signup and view all the flashcards
Scotochromogen
Scotochromogen
Signup and view all the flashcards
Non-photochromogen
Non-photochromogen
Signup and view all the flashcards
Rapid Growers
Rapid Growers
Signup and view all the flashcards
TB Transmission
TB Transmission
Signup and view all the flashcards
TB Symptoms
TB Symptoms
Signup and view all the flashcards
PPD Test
PPD Test
Signup and view all the flashcards
Chest X-ray in TB
Chest X-ray in TB
Signup and view all the flashcards
TB Treatment
TB Treatment
Signup and view all the flashcards
Study Notes
Gram-Positive Bacilli
- Gram-positive bacilli are a diverse group of organisms found in the environment.
- They rarely cause human disease but are used in industry for enzymes and antibiotics.
- Some are important food spoilage organisms.
Non-Spore Forming, Non-Branching, Catalase Positive Bacilli
- The following organisms are non-acid fast.
- Most are part of the normal human flora.
- They colonize various parts of the human body.
- They are also found in the environment.
- Associated with various animals.
- Corynebacteria
- Rothia
- Listeria
Corynebacteria General Characteristics
- Usually found in fresh and salt water, soil, and air.
- This genus includes many species of aerobic and facultative gram-positive rods.
- Closely related to Mycobacteria and Nocardia regarding cell wall composition.
- These organisms typically exhibit a meso-diaminopimelic acid (m-DAP) and mycolic acid cell wall.
- Lipophilic Corynebacteria are considered fastidious organisms.
- They may demonstrate slow growth on standard culture media.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae General Characteristics
- Most notable pathogen of Corynebacteria.
- Causative agent of diphtheria.
- Most common sites of infection: tonsils and pharynx.
- Virulence factor: Diphtheria toxin (DT).
- Produced by bacteria infected with a lysogenic B-phage, which carries the tox gene.
- Diphtheria toxin is heat-stable.
- Composed of two fragments: Fragment A (cytotoxicity) - active fragment. Fragment B- binding fragment.
- The toxin is not toxic until exposed to trypsin through trypsinization.
- This inhibits protein synthesis of cells.
- Enhanced considerably when grown in low iron conditions.
Clinical Infections
- To cause disease, Corynebacterium diphtheriae must invade and proliferate in local tissues.
- Transmitted by droplets, direct contact with cutaneous infections, and fomites.
- Characterized by a lesion ranging from a simple pustule to a chronic, non-healing ulcer.
- Respiratory diphtheria is pharyngitis with exudative membrane (pseudomembrane).
- Pseudomembrane is gray-white and adheres to the mucous membrane.
- Spread to nasal mucosa and pharyngeal wall causes neck edema.
- Respiratory diphtheria can cause "bull neck" appearance, which involves swelling of lymph nodes.
Treatment
- Antitoxin (commercially produced from horses) is the treatment to neutralize the toxin.
- Must be administered early, as it only neutralizes circulating toxin.
- Has no effect on toxin already fixed or within the cells.
- Corynebacterium diphtheriae is susceptible to antimicrobials like penicillin and erythromycin.
- Erythromycin is the most effective antimicrobial.
Loeffler's Methylene Blue Staining
- Demonstrates the presence of metachromatic granules (Babes-Ernst or Volutin granules).
- These granules take on bluish-purple in Loeffler's methylene blue stain.
- Often located at the poles of the bacilli (polar bodies).
- Composed of Polymetaphosphates and are more strongly gram-positive than other bacterial cells.
Biochemical Tests
- Catalase positive (+)
- Nitrate reduction (+)
- Urease test
- Beta hemolysis (variable)
- Gelatin hydrolysis (-)
- Esculin hydrolysis
- Carbohydrate fermentation(glucose (+), maltose (+), sucrose (-))
Cultural Characteristics
- Optimal growth at 37°C (15-40°C range), aerobe and facultative anaerobe.
- Corynebacterium species usually grow on 5% sheep's blood and chocolate agar.
- Media with enrichments (blood, serum, egg) necessary for good growth.
- Selective and differential media used if diphtheria is suspected.
- Usual media for diphtheria bacillus cultivation: Loeffler serum agar, CTBA, and Modified Tinsdale Agar.
- Loeffler's serum agar (or Pai agar) - enriched, rapidly growing colonies that can appear small at first and become large with a distinct yellow tint after incubation.
- CTBA (cystine-tellurite blood agar)- selective, differential, used to identify Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
- Corynebacteria form black or brownish colonies on CTBA due to reduction of tellurite to tellurium.
- Modified Tinsdale Agar - selective, differential.
Listeria General Characteristics
- Gram-positive psychrotrophic bacteria found in many environmental sources.
- Non-sporulating, catalase positive, indole and oxidase negative, and facultative anaerobic rods.
- Show motility at 25°C.
- Listeria monocytogenes is the most important species due to pathogenicity in humans and animals.
- Capable of surviving within phagocytes.
Listeria Pathogenesis
- Hemolysin (Listeriolysin O): major virulence factor, cytotoxic, hemolytic
- Internalin (Act A): cell-surface protein that induces phagocytosis.
- Phospholipase: L. monocytogenes ingested through contaminated food, producing Listeriolysin (O) and phospholipases.
- These allow the organism to escape from WBCs and spread to the bloodstream.
- Eventually reaches the central nervous system and placenta.
Listeria Clinical Infections
- Listeriosis - infections associated with Listeria monocytogenes.
- Common in pregnant women, newborns, and immunocompromised persons, usually during the 3rd trimester.
- Signs include spontaneous abortion, stillborn neonates, and newborn death.
- CNS infections (meningitis), endocarditis are also possible infections in immunocompromised hosts.
- Healthy individuals who ingest large amounts of Listeria monocytogenes can suffer from gastroenteritis.
Listeria Laboratory Diagnosis
- Microscopic: gram-positive rod or coccobacilli, singly or in chains, and tumbling motility.
- Observation of motility by direct wet mount to identify the organism.
- Culture: using blood, CSF, and swabs from lesions.
- Listeria from body tissues and fluids (e.g., blood, CSF) can grow.
Listeria Cultural Characteristics
- Optimal growth temp: 30-35°C.
- Commonly used media include: SBA, chocolate agar, NAP, and Brain-Heart Infusion Agar (BHIB).
- Beta-hemolytic, small, color white, smooth, and translucent colonies (1-2 days incubation).
- Cold enrichment (4°C several weeks).
- CAMP test (positive): "block" pattern.
- Rhodococcus equi, New Oxoid Chromogenic Listeria Agar: turquoise colonies with halos.
Listeria Differentiating Characteristics
- Pathogenic Listeria species: Listeria monocytogenes and Listeria ivanovii can be distinguished.
- Phospholipase: can hydrolyze lecithin from the culture medium, and an opaque zone or halo forms around colonies.
- Turquoise colonies with halos indicate Listeria monocytogenes.
Listeria Treatment and Prevention
- Penicillin with or without aminoglycosides.
- Resistant to tetracyclines.
- Prevention: avoid undercooked vegetables, meat, and soft cheeses and unpasteurized dairy products.
- Cook foods thoroughly and cook animal products thoroughly.
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae General Characteristics
- Domestic swines are the major reservoir.
- Found in animals (mammals, birds, fish).
- Human infections are rare; associated with fish handlers, farmers, and food preparation workers.
- Usual route: skin cuts and scratches.
- Infections are a result of a puncture wound or skin abrasion.
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Clinical Infections
- Erysipeloid: localized skin infection, usually in hands or fingers, resembles streptococcal erysipelas, and is self-limiting (3-4 weeks, low incidence).
- Cutaneous infection (generalized, diffuse): rare, associated with endocarditis.
- Mortality rate is 38%.
- Immunosuppressed patients may develop bacteremia or septicemia.
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Laboratory Diagnosis
- Specimens: tissue biopsy and aspirates of skin lesions.
- Microscopic: gram-positive, thin, pleomorphic rods (chains), singly (V shape).
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Biochemical Tests
- Catalase negative, non-sporulating, non-motile.
- H2S positive, urease negative.
- Does not hydrolyze urea or esculin, Voges-Proskauer negative, but produce H2S and triple sugar iron agar.
- Differentiates from Lactobacillus, Listeria, and Kurthia
- Erysipelothrix does not grow at 4°C.
- Glucose and lactose fermenter.
- E. rhusiopathiae is negative. E. tonsillarum and E. inopinata are positive.
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Culture
- Commonly plated on sheep blood agar or chocolate blood agar; patients with sepsis may be inoculated into broth with 1% glucose, incubated in 5% CO2 at 35oC.
- SBA or Chocolate agar: non-hemolytic or alpha-hemolytic, pinpoint colonies from systemic infections.
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Treatment and Prevention
- Susceptible to sulfonamides, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
- Resistant to penicillin
- Treatment options include drainage and surgery.
Lactobacillus General Characteristics
- L. acidophilus, L. fermentum, L. vaginalis, L. salivarius, and L. plantarum.
- Normally isolated from dairy products.
- Also isolated from endocarditis cases.
- Reported cases of infections (endocarditis, bacteremia) associated with immunocompromised individuals (HIV) and gastrointestinal diseases.
- Important for maintaining proper pH balance in vaginal secretions.
Lactobacillus acidophilus General Characteristics
- Widely distributed.
- Normal flora in the human mouth, GI tract, and female genital tract (vaginal canal).
- Mostly encountered as a contaminant.
- Immunocompromised patients may develop bacteremia.
- Microscopically: highly pleomorphic bacilli, long chaining rods, and coccobacilli.
Lactobacillus Biochemical Tests
- Catalase -, oxidase -, indole -, nitrate -, hydrogen sulfide (-), and glucose, maltose, sucrose (+).
- Acidic pH of vaginal secretions inhibits growth of Mobiluncus, Prevotella, Gardnerella vaginalis, and Candida albicans.
Gardnerella vaginalis General Characteristics
- First described in 1953.
- Normal biota in the human urogenital tract.
- Naturally found in the vaginal area.
- Also colonizes the distal urethra of males.
- Anaerobic gram-positive rod.
- Gram-positive with a thinner peptidoglycan layer than typical Gram-positive bacteria.
Gardnerella vaginalis Clinical Infection
- Bacterial vaginosis (BV): characterized by an increase in vaginal pH (>4.5).
- BV is one of the most common causes of vaginal discharge.
- Associated with maternal and fetal morbidity during pregnancy.
- Characterized by foul smelling, excessive, and purulent vaginal discharge (malodorous discharge).
Gardnerella vaginalis Laboratory Diagnosis
- Specimen: vaginal discharge, isolated from urine (occasional cause of UTI).
- Microscopic: short, pleomorphic gram positive rod, staining gram-variable.
- Characteristic finding: presence of "clue cells."
Gardnerella vaginalis Cultural Characteristics
- Can Grow on 5% sheep blood and chocolate agar.
- Does not grow on MacConkey agar.
Gardnerella vaginalis Biochemical Tests
- Catalase -, oxidase -, hippurate hydrolysis +.
- Other tests include amine test or whiff test for odor, KOH solution as well as special selective, and differential media (HBT, cycloserine, cefoxitin, and fructose agar).
- Incubation is at 35 °C, in 5-10% carbon dioxide for 24-48 hrs
Nocardia General Characteristics
- Commonly found in soil.
- Implicated in human infections, usually in immunocompromised patients.
- Gram-positive, often with a beaded appearance, and partially acid-fast or modified acid-fast positive, catalase positive, and strictly aerobic organisms.
- Produces branching filaments.
- Mycolic acids are shorter chained in cell walls than mycobacteria.
- Partially acid-fast (stains with carbolfuchsin).
Nocardia Clinical Infections
- Pulmonary Nocardiosis: the most common clinical presentation, caused by inhalation, where it presents as chronic bronchopneumonia.
- Can also be acute or relapsing in immunocompromised patients.
- Cutaneous: Nocardia brasiliensis associated with primary cutaneous infections resulting from trauma.
- Skin infections, skin abscesses, lymphocutaneous infection or sometimes mycetoma.
- Mycetoma is a chronic, subcutaneous infection.
Nocardia Laboratory Diagnosis
- Specimen: sputum (thick, purulent, and no sulfur granules).
- Microscopy: branching filaments, fragmentation.
- Culture: may be pigmented, chalky, matte, or velvety; also found in dry, crumbly, and breadcrumb-like appearance.
- Nocardia species can grow on standard non-selective media.
Nocardia Treatment and Prevention
- Drainage and surgery in some cases.
- Antibiotics (sulfonamides, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole).
- Resistant to penicillin.
Spore-Forming Gram-Positive Bacilli
- Bacillus: obligate aerobes; spores are non-bulging.
- Clostridia: obligate anaerobes; spores are bulging.
Bacillus General Characteristics
- More than 100 species within the genus Bacillus.
- It is the largest gram-positive genus.
- Found widely in the environment, soil, important medically relevant organisms..
- Gram-positive, or gram-variable rods, in singles or pairs.
- Spores are not stained; often appear intracellular or extracellular clear oval structures like "empty spaces"
- Aerobic or facultative anaerobes
- Contains pathogens (Bacillus anthracis).
- peritrichous flagella; causing these organisms to be motile
- Except for Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus mycoides, which are non-motile organisms.
- Growth temperature range: -5°C to 75°C
Bacillus, Bacillus anthracis Clinical Characteristics
- Primary virulence factors are two exotoxins (e.g., edema factor, lethal factor).
- Edema factor causes edema/swelling, blocks phagocytosis.
- Lethal factor: kills macrophages, reducing immune defense of a host.
- Capsule is unusual (composed of amino acids rather than polysaccharide). Anti-phagocytic.
- Primarily a disease of herbivores.
- Endemic in developing countries in Africa, Central, and South America.
- Enzootic - the disease typically occurs among animals
- Spores are the source of infection spread (animal-to-animal; animal-to-human/environment); these come from contaminated soil, and contaminated animal products or animal carcasses.
Bacillus anthracis Clinical Infections
-
Cutaneous anthrax: inoculation of endospores through skin breaks, resulting in a central black eschar (black necrotic lesion) surrounded by vesicles and an erythematous ring (malignant pustule)
-
Pulmonary anthrax (inhalation anthrax):
-
inhalation of spores.
-
Respiratory infections resulting from exposure to endospores during handling of animal products.
-
Flu-like symptoms to severe respiratory distress, dyspnea, cyanosis, pleural effusion, disorientation, and coma which can happen 24 hrs. after exposure.
-
Gastrointestinal anthrax: ingestion of spores in contaminated meat.
-
Results in abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and bloody diarrhea.
Bacillus anthracis Laboratory Diagnosis
- Specimen collection:
- Blood, lung tissue (for pulmonary)
- Fluids under eschar lesions (for cutaneous).
- Laboratory Microscopic and Cultural methods
Bacillus anthracis Treatment and Prevention
- Antibiotics to treat early-recognized anthrax promptly (e.g., penicillin, ciprofloxacin).
- Doxycycline can be used.
- General controls: deep burial or burning of animal carcasses; animal products are autoclaved; protective clothing/gloves to handle materials.
Bacillus cereus General Characteristics
- Other non-pathogenic Bacillus species
- Common soil and airborne contaminant
- Virulence: enterotoxins/spores
- Clinical infections: common cause of food poisoning (reheated rice or potatoes-diarrheal, emetic).
Bacillus cereus Types of Toxin
-
Diarrheal toxin (heat-labile):
-
Food contamination is usually from meat, poultry, vegetables, and dried beans.
-
Incubation typically is 8-16 hrs.
-
Emetic toxin (heat-stable):
-
Food contamination is usually from fried rice.
-
Incubation typically is 1-6 hrs.
Bacillus cereus Laboratory Diagnosis
- Microscopic: Gram-positive sporulating rod.
- Culture: SBA, beta-hemolytic, frosted glass appearance, large gray irregular colonies.
- Biochemistry test: Catalase positive, motility test (non-motile).
- Identify by hemolysis on BAP, lecithinase production, string of pearl test, growth on PEA, and/or gelatin hydrolysis.
Bacillus cereus Treatment and Prevention
- Food safety (preventing contamination of food items; proper food preparation/cooking times; and storage) avoidance of reheating.
Clostridium General Characteristics
- Saprophytes.
- Soil, freshwater, decaying matter, sewage, and other environmental sites.
- Gram-positive rods (but wider than vegetative bacteria), non-motile.
- Have bulging spores (subterminal position).
Clostridium botulinum General Characteristics
- Strictly anaerobic, gram-positive, motile, oval, and subterminal spores.
- Widely distributed saprophyte found in soils, vegetables, fruits, mud in lakes, and sea mud.
- Causative agent of botulism.
- Toxin production (e.g., Types A, B, E).
- Spores are heat-resistant.
- Improper food preservation/processing methods/heating can lead to toxin-generating organism growth.
Clostridium botulinum Clinical Infections
- Infant botulism (baby syndrome): 2-6 months.
- Ingesting spores in contaminated food (e.g., honey, food).
- Patients do not have the ability to suck and swallow.
- Characteristic signs include floppy neck, extreme weakness, and weakened voice.
Clostridium tetani General Characteristics
- Strictly anaerobic, gram-positive bacilli.
- Terminal, round spores.
- Appear as drumsticks.
- Widely distributed in soils.
- Causative agent for tetanus (acute disease).
- Clinical features:
- Skeletal muscle spasm, autonomic nervous system disturbance.
- Spores/vegetative bacteria produce tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin-neurotoxin).
Clostridium tetani Clinical Infections
- Tetanus (lockjaw, trismus): skeletal muscle spasm and autonomic nervous system disturbance due to germination of spores.
- Commonly is transmitted via contaminated breaks in skin by spores.
Clostridium perfringens General Characteristics
- Commensal in the large intestine.
- Gram-positive, non-motile, capsulated bacillus.
- Subterminal, bulging spores.
- Organism can multiply in tissue.
- Produces gas and multiple types of toxins.
Clostridium perfringens Toxins and Clinical Infections
- Food poisoning (most common), due to heat-stable enterotoxin.
- Incubations typically happen 6 to 15 hrs.
- Gastroenteritis (nausea, abdominal cramps, watery diarrhea).
- Gas gangrene (rapidly progressing, edematous myonecrosis; associated with contaminated deep wounds/trauma).
Clostridium perfringens Laboratory Diagnosis
- Microscopy: boxcar-shaped gram-positive bacilli.
- Culture on sheep blood agar with double zone hemolysis (inner zone of complete hemolysis surrounded by a much wider zone of incomplete hemolysis).
- The Direct Nagler Test to differentiate Clostridium perfringens.
Clostridium difficile General Characteristics
- Gram-positive spore-forming bacillus
- A major cause of hospital-acquired infections.
- Spores are found widely in nature, particularly in hospitals.
- Colonization in the colon of patients with prolonged hospital stays.
- Prolonged antimicrobial use disrupts the normal colonic flora.
- This increases susceptibility to C. difficile infection.
Clostridium difficile Clinical Infections
- Pseudomembranous colitis (colonic disease).
- Usually due to toxin-mediated pathogenesis.
- Associated with prolonged, and sometimes excessive use of antimicrobial therapies.
Clostridium difficile Laboratory Diagnosis
- Cultures on selective (different) media—e.g., CCFA or Cycloserine-Cefoxitin-Fructose Agar or egg yolk agar.
- Lecithinase (white zone of opacity), Lipase (iridescent), and Proteolytic E (complete narrow clearing).
Studying That Suits You
Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.