Microbiology MEGATEST

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 focuses of global health?

  • Food safety and security
  • The ecosystem (correct)
  • Addressing antimicrobial resistance
  • Zoonotic disease control

Why was Koch's work with anthrax important?

  • It proved that anthrax was deadly
  • Supported spontaneous generation
  • It rejected germ theory of disease
  • It linked a specific organism to a specific disease (correct)

Who created the modern classification of living organisms?

  • Edouard Chatton
  • Robert Koch
  • Francesco Redi
  • Carl Linnaeus (correct)

What is True of the Three Domain System?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which function is not essential for a microorganism in the environment?

<p>Causing disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who discovered the existence of microorganisms?

<p>Hooke and Leeuwenhoek (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Viruses can be visualized with light microscopy.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true? (multiple answers)

<p>Louis Pasteur created pasteurization (A), Louis Pasteur proposed the germ theory of disease (C), Complex living things can only come from other living this, via reproduction. Therefore, modern life can not rise from non-living material (E), Louis Pasteur discovered yeast play an important role in alcohol fermentation (F)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is false about the spontaneous generation debate?

<p>It is the belief that life could be generated from non-life, proven to be true later by Francesco Redi (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is true about abiogenesis?

<p>It's the theory that life could develop from non-life as a result of random chemical processes leading to the creation of self- replicating molecules (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are limitations to Koch's postulates?

<p>Host immune system already has immunity to pathogen (B), Asymptomatic and subclinical infection (A), Prions and viruses are not culturable (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Griffith's experiment with type s and type R bacteria was the first part to the what discovery?

<p>Bacterial transformation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not one of the three building blocks of nuclei acids?

<p>Hydrocarbon Tail (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is true about purines?

<p>Double ring; A and G (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bond links two sugars between two nucleotides?

<p>Phosphodiester (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Leading strand is made in the direction the fork is moving & the lagging strand is made by Okazaki fragments

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct order of stages for transcription.

<p>Initiation; elongation; termination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During translation, the mRNA is read in group of 3 nucleotide bases – which are called exons

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You send a sample out to the lab and the test you requested is to detect RNA in the sample. Which molecular test would do this?

<p>Northern Blot (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is Not a Cellular Component of the Immune System?

<p>Hepatocytes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Adaptive immunity generates general immune response, induced against a wide variety of pathogens/molecules

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In order for a CD8+ T Cell to tell another CD8+ T cell to come help kill the bad guys, what would they use to do so?

<p>Cytokines (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You have a dog come into the clinic and their test comes back positive for the virus that causes kennel cough. Which MHC receptor would the CD8+ T cell bind to on the APC? Does this kill the cell or just send signals to activate other cells?

<p>MHC-1; kills the target cell (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is not an organ of the Immune System?

<p>Pancreas (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The adaptive immune response is the first line of defense.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the innate immune system is not functioning properly, you get chronic susceptibility to infection.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a compliment pathway?

<p>Troponin pathway (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is not a phagocytic cell?

<p>Megakaryocyte (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

This is the order of phagocytosis? Chemotaxis-adherence-ingestion-digestion-elimination

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cat jumps over a fence and cuts his leg on the rusty fence. What immune response would immediately fight against the rust?

<p>Innate immune response (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

MHC class 1 binds to?

<p>CD 8 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

MHC class 1 is found

<p>All nucleated cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

On an APC you will find?

<p>Both MHC class 1 and 2 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is not a cardinal sign of inflammation?

<p>Pus formation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is involved with the MAC of the complement system (membrane attack complex)?

<p>C5-C9 (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The complement system is part of the?

<p>Innate immune response (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An adult feral cat comes into your clinic with a newly emerging mystery virus X which has caused a severe viral infection. You do not know what to do so you begin to run diagnostics. The owner used all his money on diagnostics and could not afford to do anything else. The cat goes home and a week later the cat has fully recovered. What type of immunity is acting in this situation?

<p>Natural active (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Is it easier to make a vaccine against an endotoxin or exotoxin? Bonus Why?

<p>Exotoxin. Exotoxin b/c protein antigen, lipid antigens are hard to make vaccines for.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best explanation of quorum sensing?

<p>is bacteria produce and release autoinducers that increase in concentration as a function of cell density which in turn regulate gene expression (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient comes in showing signs of multiple-organ system failure, shock, and fever. Which type of virulence factor likely caused this?

<p>Exotoxin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Virulent gene factors transfer to other bacteria via a viral vector, which mechanism is this?

<p>Bacterial transduction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All bacterial cell walls contain peptidoglycan

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following has a thick peptidoglycan layer with (lipo)teichoic acids?

<p>Gram-positive (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is correct regarding Gram-negative bacteria?

<p>Double plasma membrane with LPS (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nucleoid contains genetic material for virulence

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacterial cell structure helps evade phagocytosis?

<p>Capsule (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which uses Zeihl-Neelsen (acid-base) staining?

<p>Mycobacteria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the phase when there is a balance between death of cells and slow multiplication of cells?

<p>Maximal stationary phase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You're counting bacteria and you're doing this by looking at how many visible masses are seen on top and within a medium. Which method is this?

<p>Pour plate method (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is not a way to classify bacteria in polyphasic taxonomy?

<p>Virulency (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a microorganism is only able to multiply and transmit is by infecting and causing disease in a host, which type of pathogen is this?

<p>Obligate pathogen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Virulence, resistance, and survival are aspects to which parts of the infectious disease complex?

<p>Pathogen (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An infection always causes disease

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Within infection, the step after entering a host is to trigger an inflammatory response

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An infection will always lead to a carrier of the disease

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase is when the bacteria is multiplying but not yet contagious?

<p>Latent (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The onset of symptoms occurs at the end of which phase?

<p>Incubation period (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bacteria make direct contact temporarily to transfer the genetic material from donor to recipient

<p>Bacterial conjugation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is NOT a virulence factor?

<p>Mesophilic (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A dog come into your clinic with signs of the flu. After diagnostics you suspect lepto because this organism is seen on a urinalysis. What virulence factor does this visually spirochete express?

<p>Endoflagella (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A noobie forgets the alcohol step in gram staining. How would this affect your gram staining?

<p>All Bacteria would be Purple (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bacteria actually do contain sterols but no cell wall?

<p>Mycoplasma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step in the formation of biofilm?

<p>Attachment to a surface (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A Superantigen is a?

<p>Exotoxin that evades MHC complexes and creates a cytokine storm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is the most important procedure to detect a bacterial agent?

<p>Microscopy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the lab, you use a specific media type to differentiate the bacteria and observe that half the plate is pink. Choose the type of agar used, and what caused it to turn pink, respectively.

<p>MacConkey agar; lactose fermentation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is used to detect LPS

<p>LAL (Limulus amoebocyte lysate) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Air filtration is sterilizing

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All antibiotics are antimicrobials, and all antimicrobials are antibiotics

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Choose the antimicrobial that inhibits protein synthesis

<p>Tetracycline (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An antibiotic works against G+ and G- bacteria, this is a broad- spectrum

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If you want to use an antimicrobial agent that will inhibit growth so your patient's immune system can complete elimination you would use what agent?

<p>Bacteriostatic agent (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is used for?

<p>Obligate anaerobes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How would you recommend giving a Bordetella vaccine to a client's puppy?

<p>Only 1 dose of IN vaccine (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is not a commensal in our equine species?

<p>Streptococcus (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

There is a pathognomonic diamond back lesion. What bacteria would have to cause this?

<p>Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae</p> Signup and view all the answers

A farmer has released that his silage has gone spoiled. What clinical signs would you warn the farmer about in his cattle?

<p>Circling disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does my cat have Staphylococcus pseudointermedius and now has a terrible middle ear infection?

<p>B and C are correct (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Your coworker's dog has been very lethargic and now your coworker has influenza-like symptoms. What's your top differential?

<p>Leptospira (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasites with their common names:

<p>Nematodes = Roundworms Cestodes = Tapeworms Trematodes = Flatworms Arthropods = Insects / Arachnids</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match these terms:

<p>Definitive = Hosts sexual stage Paratenic = AKA transfer host, no development Intermediate = Hosts asexual stage Aberrant = Unusual hosts, dead end, usually cause severe disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

Is this a direct or indirect life cycle and who is the final host?

<p>Indirect, Cattle</p> Signup and view all the answers

The intermediate host of Leucochloridium paradoxum the parasitic trematode is most likely what animal? Bonus: What is the final host?

<p>Gastropod (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a parasite NOT use its host for?

<p>Typically kills the host (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

E. Coli lives in the body regularly. It can cause problems when the host immunity is compromised. What type of pathogen does that make E. coli?

<p>Opportunistic (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aquatic ectoparasitic is viviparous with a direct life cycle, two hooks, and is extremely pathogenetic to marine life?

<p>Gyrodactylus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of trematode eggs used in diagnostics?

<p>Sedimentation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Digenea are flukes that have a ventral and oral sucker, often found in the digestive tract, but can occur throughout other organs of vertebrates

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Trematodes hosts, DH and IH, are usually broad-spectrum aside from the 1st IH in some.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is false about Trematodes?

<p>Indirect/complex life cycle only with 1 IH (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Protozoa make up one natural group in the “tree of life"

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does protozoan sexual reproduction take place in the indirect life cycle?

<p>DH (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which disease causes these clinical signs in poultry? Lethargy, yellow diarrhea, blackhead, appetite/weight loss, death

<p>Histomoniasis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You have a 7-day old puppy with pale mucous membranes, dull, depressed, slight cough, and you run a PCV and realize there is anemia. What do you do?

<p>Treat puppy and mother. Then treat at 2, 4, 6, 8 weeks (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How would I decrease nematode infections in my flock of sheep?

<p>A, B, and E are true (F)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ancylostoma caninum would cause what clinical sign in a healthy adult large breed dog?

<p>Some non-severe clinical signs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A large breed healthy adult dog with a tapeworm or a hookworm infection would have severe clinical signs?

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is true regarding cestode proglottids?

<p>The more mature proglottids are farther away from the scolex (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main goal of a cestode larvae?

<p>To form a scolex (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Taenia solium in a dead end host can cause?

<p>Neurocysticercosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why would I treat the heathy adult cat or final host if I suspect a tapeworm infection?

<p>B and D are correct (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

T/F - A large breed healthy adult dog with a tapeworm or a hookworm infection would have severe clinical signs?

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are on a farm doing a physical exam on a horse. These are the clinical signs you see:

  1. Ataxia: Lack of coordination, often seen in the limbs.
  2. Weakness: Generalized muscle weakness, especially in the hindquarters.
  3. Abnormal Gait: Horses may exhibit a wide-based stance or difficulty walking.
  4. Lameness: May appear as a result of muscle weakness or incoordination.
  5. Tremors: Muscle tremors, particularly in the face or limbs.
  6. Altered Behavior: Changes in temperament or personality, including increased aggression or anxiety.
  7. Difficulty Swallowing: This may lead to drooling or difficulty eating.
  8. Facial Asymmetry: Uneven muscle tone in the face, often seen as drooping. 10.Seizures: In severe cases, horses may experience seizures.

As an intelligent vet you realizes this is probably EPM from S. neurona, so what is the final host?

<p>Opossum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do we deworm for tapeworms in vet med?

<p>Aesthetics, client compliance, and zoonotic concern</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a human get NCC?

<p>From a 1 star restaurant because of bad human hygiene (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a human get NCC from tenia solium a pig cestode parasite

<p>Not washing your hands after the bathroom (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Parasites benefit from their hosts in several ways. Which of the following options describe a key survival advantage for parasites?

<p>They obtain nutrients and energy for growth and reproduction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes phoresis?

<p>The movement of one organism or substance carried by another, usually involving no physiological dependence. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding Acanthocephala?

<p>They possess spiny proboscises (head) for attachment to the intestinal wall of their hosts. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is trophic transmission in the context of parasitology?

<p>The acquisition of parasites by predators when they consume infected prey. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes Leucochloridium paradoxum?

<p>Its life cycle involves manipulation of snail behavior to enhance transmission to birds. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

T/F - helminths have a complete alimentary canal

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic of Demodex mites makes them opportunistic ectoparasites?

<p>They primarily infect hosts that are immunocompromised or stressed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding Gyrodactylus species?

<p>They are viviparous monogeneans that can reproduce while attached to their host. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the Kingdom Protozoa?

<p>It is a kingdom that contains multiple phyla, including Amoebozoa. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are protozoa primarily classified?

<p>By their mode of locomotion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements correctly describes the different forms of zoites?

<p>Merozoites are numerous and can be involved in infections with two hosts. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes schizogony (merogony) in relation to pathogenicity?

<p>Schizogony involves the multiple fission of a parasite, often leading to high levels of infection and pathogenicity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary consequence of infection with Histomonas meleagridis in poultry?

<p>It causes blackhead disease, characterized by inflammation of the liver and ceca. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is Histomonas meleagridis primarily transmitted among poultry?

<p>By ingestion of nematode eggs containing the parasite from contaminated environments (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes Balantidium in the context of veterinary medicine?

<p>Balantidium is a ciliate protozoan and is the only pathogenic ciliate known to infect animals. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do Apicomplexa, such as Plasmodium and Toxoplasma, primarily move within their hosts?

<p>“Gliding” or they are largely non-motile and rely on host movement or other mechanisms for transmission. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the structure of Eimeria oocysts in protozoa?

<p>Eimeria oocysts have 4 sporocysts, and each sporocyst contains 2 sporozoites. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes Sarcocystis neurona in relation to equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)?

<p>As a dead-end host, horses cannot complete the life cycle of Sarcocystis neurona, which leads to a severe infection of the central nervous system. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Toxoplasma gondii influence the behavior of infected mice?

<p>It alters their behavior to become less fearful of cats, increasing the likelihood of predation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes Babesia canis?

<p>The definitive host for Babesia canis is the tick, which facilitates its life cycle and transmission to dogs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant clinical sign associated with Myxobolus cerebralis infection in fish, commonly known as whirling disease?

<p>Erratic tail-chasing behavior and a blackened caudal area due to CNS damage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the effects of Kudoa infections in commercial fish species?

<p>Kudoa causes very serious diseases, resulting in white cysts in the muscle and autolysis of the fish meat. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A dog with A. caninum would have what clinical signs?

<p>Poor hair coat (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common mode of transmission for Ancylostoma caninum in puppies?

<p>Via transmammary transmission from the mother during nursing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the general characteristics of nematodes?

<p>Nematodes are round, elongated or cylindrical, have a complete alimentary canal, and usually have separate sexes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true regarding the nematode life cycle?

<p>E - L1 - L2-L3 - L4 - L5 - Adult (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is not true regarding nematodes?

<p>Multiply within the host (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of larvae in organisms that develop a scolex, such as certain parasitic flatworms?

<p>To attach to the host's tissues or organs, ensuring survival and nutrient absorption. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which one is positive and negative sense with regards to viral RNA replication?

<p>Left - Positive (A), Right - Negative (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes horizontal transmission from vertical transmission?

<p>Horizontal transmission involves the spread of an infection between individuals of the same generation, while vertical transmission refers to the spread from mother to offspring. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the eclipse period refer to in the viral life cycle?

<p>The period during which the virus is uncoated, replicates its genome, and loses infectivity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes pathogenicity?

<p>It refers to the ability of a virus to cause disease, with varying levels of severity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is incorrect about viruses?

<p>Animal viruses are always naked (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An envelope is the lipid bilayer outer membrane surrounding the protein capsid

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is not a type of genome architecture?

<p>These are all part of genome architecture (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the basic subunit of the capsid?

<p>Capsomere (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bacteriophage is helical in symmetry

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an important viral reservoir due to human and animal health risks?

<p>Bat (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes a reservoir for an infectious agent?

<p>A reservoir is a habitat or population where an infectious agent lives, grows, and multiplies, but may not always cause disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You walk into class and hug your bestie <3 but then they get you sick </3, this is likely an example of what transmission route?

<p>Direct contact (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A mommy cow passes a virus to her baby cow from feeding, this is an example of which transmission?

<p>Vertical transmission (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase occurs following penetration of a virus into host cell?

<p>Uncoating (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Endocytosis requires passive transport for virus to be engulfed

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which viruses are capable of membrane fusion and cell lysis, respectively?

<p>Enveloped viruses, naked viruses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Most DNA viruses replicate in nucleus and most RNA viruses replicate in cytoplasm

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is not an example of cell damage/death

<p>Cancer cell transformation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Oncolytic viruses infect and kill bacteria

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase(s) are present within the latent period?

<p>Both A &amp; B (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A virus is spreading to other organs/tissues within the blood, which type of viremia is this?

<p>Secondary (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A viral disease often has persistent shedders that have a low level of constant or intermittent shedding, which pattern of infection is this?

<p>Chronic (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Viruses can grow on artificial media

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following represents the number of microbes required to cause infection on 50% of the animals

<p>ID50 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A way to detect a virus by both visualizing the viral proteins and also the viral antigens

<p>Immunohistochemistry (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which virus replication cycle is this?

<p>Pox virus because it is a DNA virus replicating in the cytoplasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

What Virus replication cycle is this?

<p>Retroviridae: because pseudodiploid RNA</p> <ol> <li>Reverse transcriptase</li> <li>Integrase (inserts provirus)</li> <li>RNA polymerase (remember these enzymes in order) Also, it’s an RNA virus replicating in the nucleus</li> </ol> Signup and view all the answers

What Virus replication cycle is this?

<p>Orthomyxoviridae: Influenza (flu) because it is segmented and an RNA virus replication in the nucleus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

You go to a field call where a few cattle in the herd are showing acute clinical signs of a rhinitis (red nose), decreased appetite, and conjunctivitis. Which of the following virus would you consider as a differential?

<p>IBR (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The CAV2 live-attenuated vaccine only provides immunization for kennel cough

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following viridae will have intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies as a hallmark of infection?

<p>Pox viridae (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A local farmer asks you to visit the farm because one of his female breeding pigs had a stillbirth with mummified piglets, but she showed no clinical signs prior. Which disease process and viridae would you consider, respectively?

<p>Porcine parvovirus; parvoviridae (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which viridae have a tegument in its structure and normally causes latent infections

<p>herpesviridae (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The enzootic nasal tumor virus and Jaagsiekte virus contain their own reverse transcriptase, integrase, and RNA polymerase II enzymes (they don't use them from host cell)

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a gene that in the right circumstances can turn into a gene that potentially causes cancer

<p>Proto-oncogene (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is the correct pairing

<p>Acutely transforming virus → infection of cell &amp; integration of proto-oncogene (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A sheep comes into your clinic with difficultly breathing and with what looks like an enlarged/swollen nasal cavity/nose. You order a CT scan and find a large mass within the nasal epithelium. Which virus would cause this?

<p>ENTV (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You make a field call because a farmer is concerned for one of his cattle, upon physical exam you find lymphadenopathy and a protrusion of conjunctival membrane in their eyes – which virus would cause this?

<p>Bovine Leukemia Virus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which virus is a USDA reportable disease- causing anemia, thrombocytopenia, fever, weight loss, and leg swelling . Caused by stable flies

<p>EIA/swamp fever (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Both feline leukemia and FIV can be vaccinated for

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Negri bodies will be present in rabies virus, this virus infects what in the body

<p>Neurons (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You're casually walking around in a country that has rabies and come across a roaming dog that is irritable, hyperresponsive to stimuli and seems disoriented, which phase of rabies is this

<p>Furious (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Small changes in genes over time is known as what and occurs in what genera

<p>Antigenic drift; influenza B and C (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which viridae is bullet shaped and which is filamentous, repectively?

<p>Rhabdoviridae; filoviridae (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You have a bull with “red nose” and with a fever and conjunctivitis. The farmer tells you that the bull was healthy two days ago at purchase. What would be the CAUSE of these clinical signs?

<p>The bull was shipped to the farm after purchase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the hallmark of FPV?

<p>Panleukopenia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You see this is a kitten. What virus?

<p>Cerebellar Hypoplasia (FPV) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes Orf virus (Parapoxvirus) from Capripoxvirus?

<p>Orf virus is transmitted through direct contact with lesions, whereas Capripoxvirus is primarily transmitted by arthropod vectors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true about Orf virus and Capripoxvirus?

<p>Orf virus causes skin lesions in sheep, Capripoxvirus causes systemic disease in goats. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical sign is commonly seen in dogs with canine parvovirus type 2 (CPV-2)?

<p>Bloody diarrhea, splenomegaly, and lymphopenia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true about African swine fever?

<p>Ticks, fomites, and swill are common vectors of trnasmission (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What animal is most susceptible to African swine fever in Africa?

<p>Juvenile warthogs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is in the nucleocapsid?

<p>DNA or RNA with capsid of capsomeres (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a virion

<p>infectious particle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are protomeres?

<p>Aggregate to form capsomers which are either hexons or pentons (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two complex viruses?

<p>Parapox and Bacteriophage (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between a mechanical vector and a biological vector in the transmission of diseases?

<p>A mechanical vector transmits pathogens passively on its body surface, while a biological vector hosts and allows the pathogen to develop or multiply inside its body. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of hematogenous spread of infection?

<p>A lung infection spreading through the bloodstream to the brain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the five evolutionary stages of cross-species transmission of infectious diseases?

<p>Stage 1: Infection only within the original host species, Stage 2: Infection in different individuals of the same species, Stage 3: Infection in closely related species, Stage 4: Infection in more distant species, Stage 5: Stable establishment in a new host species (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cell must be what for a virus to be taken up AND replicate?

<p>Permissive and susceptible (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

BVDV, Dengue, Zika and WNV are in what family?

<p>Flaviviridae (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What two enzyme do host cell NOT have?

<p>RNA dependent RNA polymerase (B), Reverse transcriptase (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true about Papillomavirus

<p>G1 to S phase transition (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Three Domain System

A system classifying life into Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryota, based on ribosomal RNA gene sequencing.

Spontaneous generation

Pasteur disproved this idea that life arises spontaneously from non-living matter.

Abiogenesis

The theory that life originated from non-living matter via random chemical processes.

Phagocytosis

This is the process by which cells engulf and digest particles or other cells.

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Innate immune response

This is the first responder to cuts and scrapes on a rusty fence

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MHC class 1

Found on all nucleated cells and presents antigens to CD8+ T cells.

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MHC class 2

Found on antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and presents antigens to CD4+ T cells.

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Cardinal signs of inflammation

Redness, heat, pain, swelling, pus formation, and loss of function

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Complement System

A cascade of serum proteins that tag, kill, or activate other immune cells.

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Natural Active Immunity

Activation of immune system without outside help that creates long term memory.

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Exotoxin vs. Endotoxin Vaccines

Exotoxins are easier to make vaccines against because they are proteins that can be easily targeted by antibodies, while endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides (LPS) that are less immunogenic.

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Quorum sensing

Bacteria produce and release autoinducers that increase in concentration as a function of cell density which in turn regulate gene expression.

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Endotoxin

A virulence factor released from Gram-negative bacteria that causes widespread inflammation, organ system failure, shock, and fever.

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Bacterial Transduction

The transfer of virulent gene factors to other bacteria via a viral vector.

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Gram-positive bacteria

Bacteria with a thick peptidoglycan layer and lipoteichoic acids in their cell wall.

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Gram-negative bacteria

Bacteria with a double plasma membrane with LPS in their outer membrane.

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Capsule

A bacterial structure that helps evade phagocytosis.

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Bacterial Conjugation

The transfer of genetic material from donor to recipient through direct cell-to-cell contact.

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Obligate pathogen

A pathogen that is only able to multiply and transmit by infecting and causing disease in a host

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Attachment to a surface

First step in the creation of a biofilm.

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Detecting Bacterial Agents

Culturing and analyzing samples is the most important procedure.

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MacConkey Agar

MacConkey agar is used; lactose fermentation causes the color change.

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Detecting LPS

LAL (Limulus amoebocyte lysate) assay.

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Air Filtration: Sterilizing?

False. Air filtration reduces microbes, but does not eliminate all life forms.

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Antibiotics vs. Antimicrobials

False. all antibiotics are antimicrobials, but not all antimicrobials are antibiotics.

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Inhibiting Protein Synthesis

Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis.

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Broad-Spectrum Antibiotics

True. Broad-spectrum antibiotics work against many types of bacteria.

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Antimicrobial Agent

Bacteriostatic agent; it inhibits growth, allowing the immune system to clear the infection.

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Hyperbaric oxygen

Obligate anaerobes

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Bordetella Vaccine

Vaccinate at 2, 4, 6, 8 weeks for best protection

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Intermediate host of Leucochloridium paradoxum

Gastropods, like snails, serve as the intermediate host for the parasitic trematode Leucochloridium paradoxum. The final host is a bird.

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What a parasite does NOT use host for

Parasites use hosts for food, water, habitat, heat and transmission, but not to be killed by the parasite.

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E. coli pathogen type

E. coli is an opportunistic pathogen that causes problems when the host immunity is compromised.

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Aquatic ectoparasite with direct life cycle

Gyrodactylus is an ectoparasite that is viviparous with a direct life cycle, two hooks, and is extremely pathogenetic to marine life.

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Trematode Egg Characteristic for Diagnostics

Trematode eggs are identified by their granularity.

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Digenea Characteristics

Digenea are flukes with ventral and oral suckers, commonly in the digestive tract, but can be found throughout other organs of vertebrates.

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Trematodes Host Spectrum

Trematodes do not typically have a broad host spectrum.

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Trematodes Life Cycle

Trematodes' life cycle may involve more than one intermediate host.

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Protozoa and Phylogeny

Protozoa do not make up one natural group in the tree of life because they are polyphyletic.

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Protozoan Sexual Reproduction Location

Protozoan sexual reproduction takes place in the definitive host (DH).

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Poultry Disease Signs: Histomoniasis

Histomoniasis causes signs such as lethargy, yellow diarrhea, blackhead, appetite/weight loss and death in poultry.

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Treating Anemia in Puppies

Treat both the puppy and mother, then treat at 2, 4, 6, 8 weeks for anemia.

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Decreasing Nematode Infections in Sheep

Rotate pasture before lambing to decrease nematode infections in sheep.

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Clinical Sign of Ancylostoma caninum

Ancylostoma caninum can cause anemia and lassitude in a healthy adult large breed dog.

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Cestode Proglottids: Location

Mature proglottids are located farther away from the scolex.

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Cestode Larvae Goal

The main goal of cestode larvae is to form a scolex.

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Taenia solium dead end

In a dead-end host, Taenia solium can cause neurocysticercosis.

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Treating Tapeworm Infections

Treat tapeworms because they can be zoonotic and aesthetically unpleasing.

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Sarcocystis neurona in horses

Sarcocystis neurona, as a dead-end host, causes neurological disease.

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How humans get NCC

Eating undercooked pork

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Parasite Benefit

Parasites obtain nutrients and energy for growth and reproduction from their hosts.

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Phoresis Definition

Phoresis is non-physiological transport.

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Acanthocephala Characteristics

Acanthocephala have spiny proboscises for attachment.

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Trophic Transmission

Trophic transmission in parasitology is acquisition of parasites by predators consuming infected prey.

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Horizontal vs. Vertical Transmission

Spread between individuals of the same generation vs. mother to offspring.

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Viral Eclipse Period

The period when the virus uncoats, replicates, and loses infectivity inside the host cell.

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Pathogenicity

The ability of a virus to cause disease, varying in severity.

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Misconception about Animal Viruses

Animal viruses are NOT always naked (non-enveloped).

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Genome Architecture

A genome in single, double, or mixed strandedness.

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Capsomere

A basic protein subunit of the viral capsid.

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Reservoir of Infection

A habitat where an infectious agent lives, grows, and multiplies, whether or not it causes disease.

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Direct Contact Transmission

A main route of transmission, spread face-to-face.

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Vertical transmission

Transfer of pathogen from mother to offspring.

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Uncoating

Uncoating, freeing of viral genome after cell entry.

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IBR Virus

Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis, consider in cattle with rhinitis, decreased appetite, and conjunctivitis.

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Intracytoplasmic Inclusion Bodies

Pox viridae, known for producing inclusion bodies, which are hallmark indicators of viral infection within the cell.

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Porcine Parvovirus

Porcine parvovirus is most likely the cause of the stillbirths and mummified piglets.

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Herpesviridae

The herpesviridae family, which is known to establish latent infections.

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Proto-oncogene

A gene that has the potential to cause cancer.

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ENTV

ENTV, or Enzootic Nasal Tumor Virus, is associated with nasal tumors in sheep.

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Bovine Leukemia Virus

Bovine Leukemia Virus results in lymphadenopathy and protruding conjunctival membrane.

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EIA/swamp fever

EIA/swamp fever, a USDA reportable disease, is transmitted by stable flies and causes anemia, thrombocytopenia, fever, weight loss, and leg swelling.

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Negri Bodies

Neurons, within which Negri bodies are present following a Rabies infection.

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Antigenic Drift

Antigenic drift refers to small genetic changes in viruses like influenza B and C over time.

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Cause of "red nose" in bull?

Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD) is the most probable cause. Clinical signs include fever, conjunctivitis, and nasal discharge.

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Hallmark of FPV

Lymphopenia is the hallmark of Feline Panleukopenia Virus (FPV).

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Kitten virus?

Feline panleukopenia virus, which causes cerebellar hypoplasia in kittens if the mother is infected during pregnancy.

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Orf vs. Capripoxvirus

Orf virus causes pustular dermatitis, while Capripoxvirus causes systemic diseases. Orf transmits via direct contact with lesions and Capripoxvirus transmits primarily by arthropod vectors.

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African Swine Fever Vectors

Ticks, fomites (inanimate objects), and swill (food waste) are vectors of transmission.

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ASF Susceptibility

Boars are most susceptible to African swine fever.

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What's in the nucleocapsid?

The nucleocapsid contains the genomic material (DNA or RNA) and the capsid made of capsomeres.

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Virion

A virion is an infectious viral particle.

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Protomeres

Protomeres aggregate form capsomers, the structural units of a viral capsid that consist of either hexons or pentons.

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Complex Viruses

Pox and Herpesviruses are two examples of complex viruses.

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Study Notes

Bull Clinical Signs

  • Red nose, fever, and conjunctivitis in a bull recently purchased may indicate a Parapoxvirus infection.

Feline Panleukopenia Virus (FPV) Hallmarks

  • Lymphopenia is a hallmark of FPV.

Kitten Virus Identification

  • Cerebellar hypoplasia can be caused by FPV in kittens.

Orf Virus vs. Capripoxvirus

  • Orf virus causes pustular dermatitis in sheep and goats; Capripoxvirus causes a systemic disease in cattle.
  • Orf virus transmits through direct contact with lesions, while Capripoxvirus spreads through arthropod vectors.

Orf Virus and Capripox Virus Traits

  • Orf virus causes skin lesions in sheep, and Capripoxvirus causes a systemic disease in goats.

Canine Parvovirus Type 2 (CPV-2)

  • Bloody diarrhea, splenomegaly, and lymphopenia are clinical signs commonly seen in dogs with canine parvovirus type 2 (CPV-2).

African Swine Fever

  • Ticks, fomites, and swill are common vectors of transmission for African Swine Fever.
  • African Swine Fever is most effectively prevented by ticks, fomites, and swill.
  • Boars are the most vulnerable to African swine fever in Africa.

Nucleocapsid Composition

  • The nucleocapsid includes DNA or RNA along with a capsid of capsomeres.

Virion

  • A virion is an infectious particle.

Protomeres

  • Protomeres aggregate to form capsomers, which are either hexons or pentons.

Complex Viruses

  • Two complex viruses are Pox and Herpes.

Mechanical vs. Biological Vectors

  • A mechanical vector transmits pathogens passively on its body surface, while a biological vector hosts and allows the pathogen to develop or multiply inside its body.

Hematogenous Spread

  • A lung infection spreading through the bloodstream to the brain is an example of hematogenous spread of infection.

Cross-Species Transmission Stages

  • Stage 1: Infection only within original host species.
  • Stage 2: Infection in different individuals of the same species.
  • Stage 3: Infection in closely related species.
  • Stage 4: Infection in more distant species.
  • Stage 5: Stable establishment in a new host species.

Prerequisites for Viral Uptake and Replication

  • A cell must be permissive and susceptible for a virus to be taken up and replicate.

Viral Families - BVDV, Dengue, Zika, WNV

  • BVDV (Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus), Dengue, Zika, and WNV (West Nile Virus) are in the Flaviviridae family.

Host Cell Enzyme Deficiencies for Viruses

  • Host cells do not possess reverse transcriptase or RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

Papillomavirus Characteristics

  • Papillomavirus transitions cells from G1 to S phase.
  • E6 and E7 proteins lead to uncontrolled cell growth.
  • HPV infects basal epithelial cells.
  • Infection causes genomic instability and eventual tumor formation.

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