Microbial Genetics and Immune Systems
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Questions and Answers

What is a primary disadvantage of sexual reproduction compared to asexual reproduction?

  • Slower to produce offspring (correct)
  • Generates fewer mutations
  • Requires more energy to perform
  • Produces identical offspring

Which of the following processes involves the transfer of DNA through a virus?

  • Transduction (correct)
  • Binary fission
  • Conjugation
  • Transformation

In horizontal transmission of genetic material, which mechanism involves a physical connection between two bacteria?

  • Conjugation (correct)
  • Transduction
  • Mitosis
  • Transformation

What is a limitation of transformation as a method for introducing genetic diversity?

<p>Dependent on the availability of environmental DNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes generalized transduction?

<p>Transfers random pieces of DNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the conjugation pilus in bacterial gene transfer?

<p>To facilitate direct cell-to-cell contact for gene transfer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding specialized transduction is correct?

<p>It results in the transfer of specific bacterial genes associated with the viral DNA. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the core genome in bacterial populations?

<p>The genetic material shared by all strains of a species (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic feature of dysbiosis in the human microbiome?

<p>Dominance of pathogenic bacteria and decreased microbial diversity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do chromosomal islands provide evidence for foreign origin in bacterial genomes?

<p>Their nucleotide composition differs from the rest of the genome and often contains inverted repeats. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do the epithelial cells in alveoli play in the immune defense of the lungs?

<p>They produce surfactant, which can act as an antimicrobial agent. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the microbial environment of the skin?

<p>Antimicrobials produced by skin bacteria help control S.aureus colonization. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can the gut microbiota stimulate the immune system in healthy individuals?

<p>By stimulating the production of mucosal antimicrobial compounds. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic feature of microbiota in the urogenital tract of women?

<p>A weakly acidic environment is created by the fermentation of glycogen into lactic acid. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens in the gastrointestinal tract when there is a decrease in stomach acidity?

<p>Pathogenic bacteria are more likely to establish infections. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primary impact does a high-fiber diet have on the gut microbiome?

<p>It increases gut motility and helps diversify the microbiome. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is least likely to contribute to dysbiosis?

<p>Living in an area with diverse flora. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do short-chain fatty acids (SCFA) affect gut health?

<p>They can modulate immune responses and promote tissue repair. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the role of Archaea in the gut microbiome?

<p>They produce methane, which can increase acetate and potentially favor pro-obesity conditions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What limitation is associated with using mouse models to study human gut microbiota?

<p>Differences in gut anatomy prevent accurate comparisons. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism allows pathogens to evade phagocytosis by using a protective layer around themselves?

<p>Capsule (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme helps pathogens to break down connective tissue and facilitate further invasion into host tissues?

<p>Hyaluronidase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of secretion system allows bacteria to inject proteins directly into the host cell?

<p>Type III (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do adhesins play in the pathogenicity of bacteria?

<p>They facilitate the attachment to host cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential drawback of using prebiotics to promote gut health?

<p>They can also nourish harmful bacteria. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes the role of exotoxins?

<p>They are proteins that can disrupt host cell functions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of bacterial virulence, what does LD50 signify?

<p>The lethal dosage required to kill 50% of infected hosts. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does botulinum toxin affect muscle contraction?

<p>It prevents vesicle fusion, reducing muscle contraction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the outcome of a pathogen that can remain inside the phagosome without fusing with a lysosome?

<p>It can be carried into the circulatory system without being digested. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly defines bacteremia?

<p>It can be caused by mundane activities like dental work. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action for cholera toxin?

<p>It increases cAMP levels, affecting ion transport. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does diphtheria toxin have on host tissues?

<p>It blocks protein synthesis, causing tissue death. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the term 'cytotoxin'?

<p>A toxin that causes cell lysis by targeting cell membranes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement most accurately describes the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins?

<p>Exotoxins can directly kill cells, whereas endotoxins primarily stimulate immune reactions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do peptidoglycan layers play in bacterial cell walls?

<p>They provide shape and rigidity while resisting osmotic stress. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the structure of gram-negative bacteria differ from that of gram-positive bacteria?

<p>Gram-negative bacteria possess an outer membrane containing LPS; gram-positive bacteria do not. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacterial structure is primarily responsible for maintaining cell morphology during division?

<p>Bacterial cytoskeleton proteins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What protects the DNA within bacterial endospores from environmental stress?

<p>The calcium-dipicolonic acid complex (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which protein is involved in the segregation of chromosomes during bacterial cell division?

<p>ParM (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The function of the capsule in bacteria primarily relates to which of the following?

<p>Preventing dehydration and enhancing pathogenicity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do alveolar macrophages play in the immune defense of the lungs?

<p>They directly engulf and destroy pathogens. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do resident bacteria in the vagina help maintain its acidic environment?

<p>By fermenting glycogen to produce lactic acid. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a consequence of taking antibiotics for women concerning their vaginal microbiota?

<p>Rise in commensal bacteria that could cause infections. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does an Hfr strain indicate about the genetic makeup of the bacterial cell?

<p>The F plasmid is integrated into the host chromosome. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic of the gut microbiome plays a role in energy generation for humans?

<p>Fermentation of sugars leading to short-chain fatty acids. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What contributes to the sterility of the kidney and bladder?

<p>Effective immune response from epithelial cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does specialized transduction differ from generalized transduction in phage-mediated gene transfer?

<p>Generalized transduction can transfer any bacterial DNA segment. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of chromosomal islands that suggests they originate from foreign DNA?

<p>They have differing nucleotide compositions from the core genome. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect can dysbiosis have on the immune system?

<p>It can cause increased inflammation and immune disorders. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In human microbiome dynamics, what primarily distinguishes a healthy state from a diseased state?

<p>The diversity and balance of microbial populations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential long-term impact of dysbiosis on human health?

<p>Active promotion of inflammatory diseases (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is most likely to promote the development of a healthy gut microbiota?

<p>High-fiber diet with a variety of fiber sources (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might the presence of Archaea in the gut microbiome influence obesity?

<p>By producing methane that leads to increased acetate production (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical condition required for inflammation to occur in the gut?

<p>Stimulation of innate immune cells due to a physical barrier breach (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes probiotics from prebiotics in terms of their function?

<p>Probiotics directly affect gut health; prebiotics feed existing bacteria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary benefit of sexual reproduction compared to asexual reproduction?

<p>It generates genetic diversity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process describes the uptake of naked DNA from the environment by bacteria?

<p>Transformation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In generalized transduction, what determines the genes that can be transferred between bacteria?

<p>The size of the bacteriophage's capsid (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant downside of asexual reproduction in bacteria?

<p>It results in offspring with identical genomes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term defines the transfer of DNA between species that are not directly related?

<p>Horizontal transmission (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mechanisms is NOT typically used by bacteria to colonize host tissues?

<p>Activation of host immune cells to enhance pathogen invasion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of hyaluronidase in the context of bacterial infections?

<p>To break down hyaluronic acid, facilitating tissue invasion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Type III secretion systems is correct?

<p>They facilitate direct interaction between bacterial proteins and host cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential consequence of a bacterial capsule?

<p>Inhibition of the host's immune response by preventing phagocytosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the limitations of using prebiotics in gut health?

<p>They may inadvertently support the growth of harmful bacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary consequence of the lipid A component of the LPS molecule in gram-negative bacteria?

<p>It triggers a strong immune reaction in the host. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which function does the glycocalyx primarily serve for pathogenic bacteria?

<p>Enhancing virulence by adhering to surfaces. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The formation of endospores is a characteristic feature of which type of bacteria?

<p>Gram-positive bacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the structure of the cell wall in gram-negative bacteria differ from that in gram-positive bacteria?

<p>Gram-negative bacteria possess an outer membrane with lipid A. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which protein is primarily involved in the septation process during bacterial cell division?

<p>FtsZ (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of dipicolonic acid in bacterial endospores?

<p>It helps protect and stabilize the DNA. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding exotoxins and endotoxins is correct?

<p>Endotoxins cause a strong immune reaction without directly killing cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term virulence specifically refer to in relation to pathogens?

<p>The severity of disease caused by a pathogen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best explains the difference between bacteremia and septicemia?

<p>Bacteremia involves localized bacterial presence, while septicemia is a systemic infection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of the Diphtheria toxin produced by C. diphtheriae?

<p>It blocks protein synthesis within cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the cholera toxin primarily cause diarrhea in infected individuals?

<p>By increasing cAMP levels, disrupting ion transport. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism by which botulinum toxin affects muscle contraction?

<p>It prevents the uptake of acetylcholine, leading to paralysis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes the function of exotoxins?

<p>They are secreted proteins that target specific host cells to disrupt their function. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the action of cytolytic toxins such as hemolysins?

<p>They form pores in the cell membrane leading to cell lysis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism of horizontal transmission is characterized by the transfer of genetic material through a virus?

<p>Transduction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant drawback of asexual reproduction in bacteria?

<p>Limited genetic diversity among offspring (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the process of transformation, which part of the bacterial cell binds to the double stranded DNA from the environment?

<p>Pilus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of genetic material transfer includes the integration of DNA into the bacterial chromosome as recombinant DNA?

<p>Transformation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the F pilus in bacterial conjugation?

<p>To facilitate direct cell-cell contact for gene transfer (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes specialized transduction?

<p>It results in the simultaneous transfer of both viral and bacterial DNA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do chromosomal islands differ from the core genome of bacteria?

<p>Chromosomal islands contain specialized functions and are often of foreign origin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant outcome of dysbiosis in the human microbiome?

<p>Overgrowth of pathogenic bacteria leading to inflammation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes an Hfr strain of bacteria?

<p>It has integrated the F plasmid into its chromosomal DNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic of the vaginal microbiota helps maintain its weakly acidic environment?

<p>Fermentation of glycogen into lactic acid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the impact of the stomach's acidity on microbial colonization?

<p>Many bacteria do not survive and colonize the stomach. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do Peyer's patches play in the immune response of the gastrointestinal tract?

<p>They detect bacteria in the gut and present information to the local immune system. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature of skin microbiota helps to limit the colonization of Staphylococcus aureus?

<p>Production of antimicrobial compounds by resident bacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does decreased stomach acidity potentially lead to infections in the gastrointestinal tract?

<p>It allows more pathogens from food to survive passage to the intestines. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a high-fiber diet specifically support a diverse gut microbiome?

<p>By providing various fiber sources that feed beneficial bacteria. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of a high-fat diet on gut health?

<p>It can lead to increased absorption of endotoxins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor is critical in determining the severity of inflammation in the gut?

<p>The relationship between host immune function and pathogen virulence. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which short-chain fatty acid (SCFA) is primarily associated with promoting a pro-obesity phenotype?

<p>Acetate, which stimulates lipid synthesis and storage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one major limitation of using human-microbiota-associated mouse models?

<p>Human microbiota effectively resist mouse gut environments. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of adhesins in bacterial pathogenesis?

<p>They facilitate the attachment of bacteria to host cells and tissues. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the role of hyaluronidase in bacterial invasion?

<p>It degrades connective tissue, facilitating deeper tissue invasion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic of Type III secretion systems distinguishes them from Type II systems?

<p>They secrete proteins from the bacterial cytoplasm directly into host cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism allows bacteria to alter their growth conditions and evade the host immune response?

<p>The use of antiphagocytic proteins that inhibit phagocytosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do various types of pili contribute to bacterial adherence to host tissues?

<p>Type 1 pili create a strong attachment through carbohydrate binding. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) in gram-negative bacteria?

<p>To act as an endotoxin triggering immune response (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does the presence of thick peptidoglycan layers in gram-positive bacteria have?

<p>Strengthens cell wall integrity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the action of the Shiga-like toxin produced by certain E. coli strains?

<p>It inhibits protein synthesis resulting in cell death. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the structure of an endospore in gram-positive bacteria?

<p>Multiple protective layers including a spore coat and dipicolonic acid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacterial structural component is primarily responsible for maintaining morphology during cell division?

<p>FtsZ protein (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In contrast to exotoxins, what is a critical feature of endotoxins during an immune reaction?

<p>They primarily potentiate inflammation without immediate cell lysis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the glycocalyx in bacterial cells?

<p>Providing adherence and protecting against dehydration (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary mechanism by which a pathogen evades digestion inside a macrophage?

<p>By resisting lysosomal enzymes and multiplying within (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes septicemia from bacteremia?

<p>Septicemia involves a systemic infection affecting the bloodstream (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the mechanism of cholera toxin?

<p>It disrupts ion transport by increasing cAMP levels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the tetanus toxin affect muscle contraction?

<p>By blocking the degradation of acetylcholine at synapses (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does LD50 measure in terms of pathogenicity?

<p>The lethality of a substance to kill 50% of a test group (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about exotoxins is true?

<p>Exotoxins are proteins that can be denatured by heat (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What virulence factor allows a pathogen to mimic cytokines and alter host immune responses?

<p>Surface proteins that mimic immune signaling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of diphtheria toxin on host tissues?

<p>Blocking protein synthesis leading to tissue death (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bacteria has a thick peptidoglycan layer and appears purple when stained?

<p>Gram-positive bacteria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structural component is present in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria that contributes to its characteristics?

<p>Lipopolysaccharide (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which protein is essential for the organization of cell wall extension in bacterial cells?

<p>MreB protein (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one primary function of the glycocalyx in bacteria?

<p>Facilitating attachment to surfaces (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structural feature distinguishes acid-fast bacteria from other types of bacteria?

<p>Waxy outer coating of mycolic acid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do lysozymes affect the bacterial cell wall?

<p>They cleave glycosidic bonds between sugars. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does FtsZ play in bacterial cell division?

<p>It maintains the cell's diameter and forms a ring around the septum. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of endospores provides protection against environmental stresses?

<p>Spore coat enriched with dipicolonic acid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do archaea differ from bacteria in terms of their plasma membrane structure?

<p>Archaea contain ether-linked lipids instead of ester-linked lipids. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of MreB in bacterial cells?

<p>To assist with the cell's elongation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature distinguishes the endospore production process from typical bacterial division?

<p>The mother cell is lysed to release the spore. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure is involved in the movement of genetic material between bacteria during conjugation?

<p>Pili (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary advantage of endospore formation for bacteria in unfavorable conditions?

<p>Preserves genetic material while minimizing active metabolism. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism do archaea use to rotate their archaella?

<p>ATP energy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key feature distinguishes a retrovirus from other viruses?

<p>It uses reverse transcriptase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a method that bacteria use to defend against viral infections?

<p>Restriction endonucleases (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of ABC transporters in bacteria?

<p>Transporting nutrients and antibiotics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what way do animal viruses enter host cells compared to bacteriophages?

<p>Animal viruses can use receptor-mediated endocytosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the lytic cycle of bacteriophages?

<p>Phage DNA is replicated, proteins synthesized, leading to cell lysis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic of archaeal DNA distinguishes it from bacterial DNA?

<p>Presence of histones (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism is primarily responsible for the adaptation of bacteria to resist viral infection via genetic changes?

<p>CRISPR-Cas system (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adaptation helps thermophilic bacteria stabilize their proteins at elevated temperatures?

<p>Formation of more ionic bonds on protein surfaces (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do halophiles adapt to high salinity environments?

<p>By using a sodium motive force to balance ion concentrations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic feature of microaerophiles?

<p>They require lower levels of oxygen than what is present in the atmosphere. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism do bacteria use to communicate cell density in quorum sensing?

<p>Synthesizing and releasing autoinducers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do exopolysaccharides play in biofilm formation?

<p>They anchor bacteria to surfaces and provide structural integrity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do obligate anaerobes cope with the toxic effects of oxygen?

<p>By producing enzymes to break down reactive oxygen species (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of biofilms, what is an autolysin's primary function?

<p>To aid in the release of DNA during cell death (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary benefit of cell-to-cell communication in quorum sensing for bacterial populations?

<p>Enables bacteria to function as a coordinated collective. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between substrate-level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation?

<p>Substrate-level phosphorylation does not require oxygen while oxidative phosphorylation does and generates more ATP. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which of the following conditions would fermentation be utilized over aerobic respiration?

<p>When no terminal electron acceptor is available. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What unfavorable condition is likely to affect microbial growth in cold environments?

<p>Decreased enzymatic function. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the proton-motive force?

<p>It is the energy stored from the movement of ions across a gradient and influences ATP production. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What phenomenon occurs during the stationary phase of bacterial growth?

<p>The number of reproducing bacteria and dying bacteria are roughly equal. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which category of microbe would require organic carbon sources as a primary nutrient?

<p>Chemotroph (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of respiratory process relies on an alternative acceptor for electrons other than oxygen?

<p>Anaerobic respiration (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common challenge faced when culturing hyperthermophilic organisms?

<p>Ensuring the integrity of proteins at elevated temperatures. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates sessile growth from planktonic growth in microbial populations?

<p>Sessile growth is associated with nutrient-rich environments. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about NAD+ in cellular metabolism is correct?

<p>NAD+ is crucial for the transfer of electrons in metabolic reactions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Sexual Reproduction

Two organisms combine their DNA to create an offspring with mixed genetic material.

Asexual Reproduction

One organism creates an offspring with identical DNA.

Horizontal Gene Transfer

Transfer of genetic material between different organisms (not parent to offspring).

Bacterial Transformation

Bacteria take up free DNA from the environment and incorporate it into their own genome.

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Bacterial Transduction

Transfer of genes between bacteria via a virus.

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Specialized Transduction

A specific piece of DNA is transferred from one infected bacterial cell to another by a phage. The phage has a preference for where it inserts itself into the bacterial chromosome.

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Conjugation

A process where bacteria transfer genetic material through direct cell-to-cell contact using a conjugation pilus, encoded by a plasmid.

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Hfr (High Frequency of Recombination)

A strain of bacteria where the F plasmid has integrated into the host chromosome, leading to a high frequency of gene transfer during conjugation.

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Generalized Transduction

A phage accidentally packages bacterial DNA instead of its own during replication, transferring it to other bacteria.

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Chromosomal Islands

Clusters of genes with a specific function, often related to pathogenicity, that are not essential for survival and are likely of foreign origin.

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Mucociliary Escalator

A mechanism in the respiratory system that sweeps foreign particles, like microbes, out of the lungs and back through the mouth using cilia on mucosal cells and mucus.

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Alveoli Defense

Alveoli, delicate air sacs in the lungs, protect themselves from microbes through various mechanisms like surfactant with antimicrobial properties, mucus secretion, alveolar macrophages, and immune cells like dendritic cells.

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Urogenital Microhabitat

The urogenital tract has different microbial habitats, with the vagina being weakly acidic due to lactic acid produced by resident bacteria, while the bladder and kidneys are normally sterile.

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Skin Microbiome

The skin microbiome varies depending on the location's characteristics like moisture, acidity, and oil content, creating different microhabitats like the dry epidermis and oily dermis.

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Commensal Gut Bacteria

Commensal bacteria in the gut benefit by obtaining nutrients and protection from the host, while contributing to human health by aiding in digestion, producing vitamins, and strengthening the immune system.

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What strengthens a healthy gut microbiota?

A high-fiber diet, varied in the types of fiber, can support a diverse and healthy gut microbiome. This diversity helps beneficial bacteria outcompete harmful ones.

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What factors can influence dysbiosis?

Dysbiosis, an imbalance in the gut microbiome, can be influenced by various factors such as diet, smoking, age, genetics, BMI, infections, pre-existing conditions, and even where you live.

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How does a high-fiber diet benefit the gut?

A high-fiber diet promotes a diverse microbiome, increases gut motility, and stimulates the production of SCFAs which have various benefits for gut health, including immune system regulation and anti-inflammatory effects.

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How do pathogens cause dysbiosis?

Pathogens can disrupt the balance of the gut microbiota, leading to dysbiosis and potential disease. They outcompete beneficial bacteria for resources and can cause inflammation.

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Inflammation in the gut: What conditions must be met?

Inflammation in the gut requires a stimulation of the innate immune system, either by a break in the intestinal barrier, an increase in pathogenic antigens, or a deregulation of the immune system favoring pathogens. The severity of the inflammation depends on the host-pathogen interaction.

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What is a virulence factor?

A structure or substance that helps a microorganism cause disease.

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Adhesins

Proteins on the surface of bacteria that help them stick to host cells and tissues.

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Capsule

A protective outer layer of sugar molecules around some bacteria.

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Hyaluronidase

An enzyme that breaks down hyaluronic acid, a substance that holds cells together.

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Type III Secretion System

A needle-like structure that bacteria use to inject proteins directly into host cells.

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Bacterial Shapes

Bacteria can be classified into three main shapes: rods (bacilli), spheres (cocci), and spirals (spirochetes).

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Glycocalyx Function

The glycocalyx, a capsule-like structure, plays a crucial role in bacterial pathogenicity. It facilitates adherence to surfaces, biofilm formation, and resistance against phagocytosis.

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Cell Wall Comparison

Gram-positive bacteria have thick peptidoglycan layers and stain purple, while Gram-negative bacteria have thin peptidoglycan layers and stain pink. Acid-fast bacteria possess a waxy outer layer.

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Plasma Membrane Function

The bacterial plasma membrane acts as a barrier for selective permeability, anchors proteins, and generates a proton motive force for ATP synthesis.

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Bacterial Cytoskeleton

Essential proteins like FtsZ, MreB, and Crescentin contribute to bacterial morphology and division. FtsZ forms a ring for septation, MreB elongates the cell, and Crescentin shapes a crescent.

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Nucleoid and Ribosomes

The nucleoid is the region within the bacterial cytoplasm that contains DNA. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis.

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Endospore Function

Endospores are dormant, highly resistant structures formed by some bacteria under harsh conditions. They are characterized by multiple layers, calcium-dipicolonic acid, and small acid soluble proteins.

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Intracellular Immune Avoidance

A pathogen's strategies to survive inside a host cell, evading the immune system by resisting digestion, escaping the phagosome, or manipulating host cell functions.

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Inclusion Bodies

A cluster of bacteria that resist digestion within the phagosome, multiplying and forming a visible mass inside the host cell.

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Bacteremia vs. Septicemia

Bacteremia is the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, often harmless, while Septicemia is a systemic blood infection causing a dangerous immune response.

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Virulence

The degree of severity or harm a pathogen can cause, measured by infectivity and virulence factors.

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ID50 and LD50

ID50 is the amount of pathogen needed to infect 50% of test animals, while LD50 is the amount needed to kill 50% of test animals.

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Exotoxin vs. Endotoxin

Exotoxins are proteins secreted by bacteria, while Endotoxins are components of the bacterial cell wall.

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Cytotoxin

A toxin that specifically targets and kills cells, often by disrupting cell membranes.

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Botulinum and Tetanus Toxins

Neurological exotoxins produced by Clostridium bacteria, with opposite effects on muscle contractions.

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Vertical Transmission

Passing genetic material from one generation to the next. Like a mother cell giving DNA to a daughter cell.

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Horizontal Transmission

Transferring small pieces of DNA between different organisms, not just parent to offspring.

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Transformation

Bacteria taking up free DNA from the environment and incorporating it into their own genome.

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Transduction

Transfer of genes between bacteria via a virus.

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Alveoli Defense Mechanisms

The alveoli, delicate air sacs in the lungs, have several defense mechanisms against microbes, including antimicrobial surfactant (AT2 cells), mucus secretion, alveolar macrophages, and dendritic cells for immune response.

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Urogenital Microbiome

The urogenital tract, including the vagina, bladder, and kidneys, has a unique microbial environment. The vagina is usually acidic due to lactic acid produced by resident bacteria, while the bladder and kidneys are normally sterile.

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Conjugation Pilus

A thin, hair-like structure on the surface of bacteria that allows for direct transfer of genetic material between cells through cell-to-cell contact.

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Hfr Strain

A bacterial strain with the conjugation plasmid integrated into its chromosome. This allows for a higher frequency of gene transfer during conjugation.

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What is dysbiosis?

An imbalance in the gut microbiota, where harmful bacteria outnumber beneficial ones, potentially leading to health issues.

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How does a high-fiber diet help gut health?

A varied fiber diet promotes diverse gut bacteria, increases gut motility to prevent harmful bacteria from staying too long, and stimulates production of beneficial short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs).

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What are the conditions for gut inflammation?

Gut inflammation requires a stimulation of the immune system, either by damage to the gut lining, an increase in harmful bacteria, or an immune system dysfunction favoring pathogens.

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How do gut bacteria influence obesity?

Gut bacteria can produce short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs) that may contribute to either weight gain or loss. Certain bacteria, like methanogens, can also increase acetate production, potentially leading to obesity.

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What are probiotics and prebiotics?

Probiotics are live microorganisms that can benefit the gut when consumed in adequate amounts. Prebiotics are non-digestible food ingredients that promote the growth of beneficial bacteria in the gut.

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Main bacterial shapes

Bacteria come in three main shapes: rods (bacilli), spheres (cocci), and spirals (spirochetes).

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Gram-positive vs. Gram-negative

Gram-positive bacteria have thick peptidoglycan layers and stain purple, while Gram-negative bacteria have thin peptidoglycan layers and stain pink.

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Bacterial cell membrane function

The bacterial cell membrane acts as a barrier, controls what goes in and out, anchors proteins, and generates energy.

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What is the nucleoid?

The nucleoid is the region in a bacterial cell where DNA is located, but it's not enclosed by a membrane.

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ID50 & LD50

ID50 is the number of pathogens needed to infect 50% of test animals. LD50 is the number needed to kill 50% of test animals.

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What are adhesion receptors?

Proteins on host cells that bind to bacterial adhesins, allowing bacteria to attach to tissues.

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What is a capsule?

A protective layer of sugar molecules surrounding some bacteria, shielding them from immune cells.

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What is hyaluronidase?

An enzyme produced by bacteria that breaks down hyaluronic acid, a substance holding cells together, allowing bacteria to invade tissues.

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How does the Type III Secretion System work?

A needle-like structure bacteria use to inject proteins directly into host cells, manipulating their functions to benefit the bacteria.

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What are effector proteins?

Proteins injected by bacteria via Type III Secretion Systems, altering host cell functions for bacterial advantage.

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What are the main bacterial shapes?

Bacteria are classified into three primary shapes: rods (bacilli), spheres (cocci), and spirals (spirochetes).

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What is the function of the glycocalyx?

The glycocalyx, which includes the capsule and slime layer, plays a crucial role in bacterial virulence. It helps with adherence to surfaces, biofilm formation, and protection against phagocytosis by immune cells.

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How do Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria differ?

Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer that retains the crystal violet dye, making them appear purple under a microscope. Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and only retain the safranin counterstain, resulting in a pink color.

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What is the function of the bacterial plasma membrane?

The bacterial plasma membrane acts as a permeability barrier, controlling what enters and exits the cell. It also anchors proteins and generates the proton motive force essential for ATP synthesis.

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What are the key components of the bacterial cytoskeleton?

The bacterial cytoskeleton plays a crucial role in maintaining cell shape and division. It is composed of proteins like FtsZ, which forms a ring for cell division, MreB, which helps with cell elongation, and Crescentin, which contributes to cell curvature.

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What are endospores?

Endospores are highly resistant dormant structures formed by some bacteria under harsh conditions. They have multiple layers, contain calcium-dipicolonic acid (DPA), and are dehydrated, making them very resistant to heat, radiation, and chemicals.

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What is the difference between exotoxins and endotoxins?

Exotoxins are proteins secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are components of the bacterial cell wall, specifically the lipid A portion of lipopolysaccharide (LPS). Exotoxins often target specific cells, while endotoxins trigger a general immune response.

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Pathogen Entry

For an infection to occur, a pathogen must first enter the body through a portal of entry, such as the respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, or skin.

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Tissue Invasion

After adhering, pathogens use enzymes like hyaluronidase to break down tissues and invade further, enabling them to spread.

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Virulence Factors

Virulence factors are tools that pathogens use to cause disease. These can include adhesins, enzymes, toxins, and secretion systems.

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Bacterial Cell Wall

The cell wall provides structure and protection for bacteria, helping them resist osmotic stress. It's made up of peptidoglycan, a complex polymer of sugars and amino acids.

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Endospores

Endospores are highly resistant dormant structures formed by some bacteria under harsh conditions. They have multiple layers, contain calcium-dipicolonic acid (DPA), and are dehydrated, making them very resistant to heat, radiation, and chemicals.

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Hopanoids

Lipid molecules found in bacterial plasma membranes that stabilize the membrane by limiting the motion of phospholipid tails, similar to cholesterol in eukaryotic membranes. They help bacteria adapt to extreme temperatures.

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Bacterial Cytoskeleton Structure (FtsZ)

FtsZ is a tubulin-like protein that forms a ring around the septum during cell division. It helps maintain the cell's diameter and facilitates the separation of the mother cell into two daughter cells.

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Bacterial Cytoskeleton Structure (MreB)

MreB is an actin-like protein that helps with the elongation of bacterial cells, ensuring they grow longer.

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Bacterial Cytoskeleton Structure (Crescentin)

Crescentin is a filament-like protein that gives bacteria a crescent shape.

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Bacterial Endospore Function

Endospores are highly resistant, dormant structures formed by some bacteria under stressful conditions. They are dehydrated and contain special molecules like dipicolonic acid to protect their DNA from harm.

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What is Sporulation?

Sporulation is a process where a bacterium forms an endospore. It involves DNA replication, membrane formation, and multiple layers to create a highly resistant structure.

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Catabolism

The breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones, releasing energy.

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Anabolism

The building of complex molecules from simpler ones, requiring energy.

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Oxidation-Reduction Reactions

Chemical reactions involving the transfer of electrons, where one molecule is oxidized (loses electrons) and another is reduced (gains electrons).

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Substrate-Level Phosphorylation

Direct transfer of a phosphate group from a substrate molecule to ADP, generating ATP. Occurs in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.

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Oxidative Phosphorylation

ATP generation using the proton-motive force generated by the electron transport chain.

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Proton-Motive Force

The potential energy stored in the form of a concentration gradient of protons across a membrane.

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ATP Synthase

An enzyme that uses the proton-motive force to synthesize ATP.

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Aerobic Respiration

Cellular respiration that uses oxygen as the final electron acceptor, generating a large amount of ATP.

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Anaerobic Respiration

Cellular respiration that uses a molecule other than oxygen as the final electron acceptor.

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Fermentation

Metabolic process that partially breaks down organic food without using an electron transport chain or a terminal electron acceptor, producing less ATP.

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Cytoplasmic Membrane Flexibility

The cytoplasmic membrane of microbes in cold environments is enriched with unsaturated fatty acids and shorter chains to maintain flexibility. This looser lipid packing allows for better movement and function at low temperatures.

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Heat Shock Response

Microbes living in hot environments have adaptations like saturated fatty acids, longer chains, and increased ionic bonds in their membrane to prevent protein unfolding and maintain stability at high temperatures.

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Acidophiles

Microbes that thrive in highly acidic environments with a pH below 3.

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Alkaliphilles

Microbes that prefer alkaline environments with a pH above 9.

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Obligate Aerobe

Microbes that absolutely require oxygen for growth and energy production.

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Obligate Anaerobe

Microbes that cannot grow in the presence of oxygen and are killed by it.

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Biofilm Formation

Biofilms are communities of bacteria attached to surfaces, often forming a protective matrix of extracellular materials.

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Quorum Sensing

A bacterial communication system that allows microbes to sense population density and coordinate activities like biofilm formation or virulence factor production.

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Archaea vs. Bacteria

Archaea and bacteria are both prokaryotes lacking a nucleus, but have distinct differences. Archaea share DNA/RNA machinery with eukaryotes, while bacteria are more similar in gene regulation and metabolism. Archaea also have unique features like modified tRNA bases and reverse gyrase.

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Reverse Gyrase

A special enzyme found in some archaeal thermophiles that helps protect their DNA from damage at high temperatures by introducing positive supercoils. This tightens the DNA structure and increases its stability.

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What distinguishes eukaryotes from prokaryotes?

Eukaryotes have a nucleus containing their DNA, while prokaryotes lack a nucleus. Eukaryotes also have internal membrane-bound organelles like mitochondria and chloroplasts, while prokaryotes lack these structures. Eukaryotes generally have larger cells and more complex organization than prokaryotes.

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Viral Genome

The genetic material of a virus, which can be either DNA or RNA, is contained within a protein coat called a capsid. This genome carries the instructions for the virus to replicate and spread within a host cell.

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Bacteriophage vs. Animal Virus

Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria, while animal viruses infect animal cells. They have different structures and mechanisms of entry and replication due to the differences between bacteria and animal cells.

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Lytic vs. Lysogenic Cycle

The lytic cycle is a viral replication process that results in the destruction of the host cell. In the lysogenic cycle, the viral genome integrates into the host's DNA and replicates without killing the host cell.

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Bacteria's Defense Against Viruses

Bacteria have developed various mechanisms to defend against viruses, including genetic resistance, restriction endonucleases, and CRISPR. Genetic resistance involves changing the receptors viruses use for attachment. Restriction endonucleases destroy viral DNA/RNA. CRISPR is a bacterial immune system that uses viral DNA fragments to remember and attack.

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Animal Virus Entry Mechanisms

Animal viruses have three main mechanisms of entry: 1) Receptor-mediated endocytosis of non-enveloped viruses, where the entire virus is taken into the cell by a vesicle. 2) Membrane fusion of enveloped viruses, where the viral envelope fuses with the host cell membrane. 3) Endocytosis of enveloped viruses, where the virus is taken in by a vesicle and then fuses with the cell membrane.

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Study Notes

Microbial Genetics and Genomics

  • Sexual vs. Asexual Reproduction:

    • Both transmit genetic material vertically (parent to offspring).
    • Sexual reproduction combines DNA from two parents, generating genetic diversity via chromosomal crossover. This increases the frequency of mutations, potentially advantageous in changing environments. However, it is slower.
    • Asexual reproduction creates identical offspring from a single parent, lacking genetic diversity (mutations are random and rare). It is faster.
  • Vertical vs. Horizontal Transmission:

    • Vertical transmission is the transfer of genetic material from one generation to the next (e.g., mother cell to daughter cell).
    • Horizontal transmission (HT) involves transferring small DNA fragments between closely or distantly related species. This is a mechanism for asexual organisms like bacteria to gain genetic diversity. Examples include transformation, transduction, and conjugation.
  • Transformation:

    • Uptake of naked DNA from the environment.
    • A pilus binds to double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) and pulls it into the periplasm.
    • DsDNA becomes single stranded (ssDNA), and the other strand degrades.
    • ssDNA integrates into the bacterial chromosome.
    • Bacteria have nucleases to degrade dsDNA but are ineffective against ssDNA.
    • Not a very efficient method of genetic diversity as environmental DNA is often scarce, and nucleases can degrade ssDNA.
    • Can occur when bacteria are dead.
  • Transduction:

    • Gene transfer via a virus (phage).
    • Generalized: Phage DNA transfer is random from one cell to another in infected host cells.
    • Specialized: Phage DNA incorporates into the host's chromosome in a specific location.
    • The genes transferred are limited by the space in the phage's head.
    • Bacteria must be alive to be infected.
  • Conjugation:

    • Direct cell-to-cell contact via a conjugation pilus (sex pilus) to transfer genes.
    • The ability to form a pilus is encoded on a plasmid.
    • F+ to F- conjugation:
      • Pilus formation and retraction brings cells together.
      • One plasmid strand is cut, transferred, and the complementary strand is synthesized in both cells.
      • The recipient cell becomes F+.
    • Hfr (high frequency of recombination): F plasmid integrates into host chromosome. Genes closest to the integration site are transferred first. May not become F+ but still transfer genetic information. Bacteria must be alive.
  • Generalized vs. Specialized Transduction:

    • Generalized transduction: Random transfer of bacterial DNA by a virus. The host's DNA can be packaged into viral particles and transferred to another bacterium - Specialized transduction: Specific portions of DNA are transferred. The specific location from where the DNA was integrated from was transferred to the new bacteria.
  • Consequences of Genetic Diversity:

    • Transduction: V. cholera can acquire genes for cholera toxin via a CTX phage (specialized transduction), transitioning from non-pathogenic to pathogenic.
  • Pan and Core Genomes:

    • Core genome: Shared genes across all strains of a species.
    • Pan genome: Includes core genome plus additional genes unique to certain strains.
  • Chromosomal Islands:

    • Clusters of genes for specialized functions (e.g., pathogenicity) not essential for survival.
    • Often of foreign origin from horizontal gene transfer (HGT) due to differences in nucleotide composition from the core genome and often containing inverted repeats.
  • Microbial Diversity Evolution: Mechanisms like horizontal gene transfer and the transfer of functional genes via transduction create microbial diversity.

Microbial Symbiosis with Humans

  • Diversity and Dynamics of Microbial Populations:

    • Most microbes are harmless and beneficial to the host, with different microhabitats supporting distinct microbial communities.
  • Dysbiosis:

    • Symbiosis: A healthy gut microbiome involves symbiotic bacteria producing metabolites and antigens, supporting tolerance. - Dysbiosis: Pathogenic bacteria can disrupt healthy microbiota. They secrete antigens and toxins, stimulating immune cells to increase inflammation. This continuous inflammation can lead to pathogenic colonization, intestinal damage, immune disorders, and metabolic dysfunction (immunopathology).
  • Oral Cavity and Airways:

    • Saliva and immune responses combat microbes in the upper respiratory tract.
    • Low microbial presence in the lower respiratory tract, with mucociliary escalator and alveolar defenses.
  • Urogenital Tract:

    • Kidney/bladder are normally sterile.
    • Vaginal acidity and glycogen fermentation by resident bacteria maintain a healthy environment.
    • Microbiota composition varies with hormonal changes.
  • Skin:

    • Microbiota composition varies by environmental conditions (dryness, acidity).
    • Mostly gram-positive bacteria reside on the skin.
    • Antimicrobial peptides and healthy bacteria help to lower S. aureus colonization.
  • Gut Microbiota Roles:

    • Fermentation producing SCFA for energy.
    • Prevent pathogenic colonization via antimicrobial compounds and nutrient competition.
    • Development of immune response (tolerance or inflammation) and stimulation of naïve T cells.
    • Supporting Vitamin K, and chemical compound digestion (i.e. medications).
  • Gut Microbiota Alterations:

    • Microbiome development begins before birth, influenced by factors like birth method (vaginal vs. C-section), feeding (breast milk vs. formula), diet, and age. Microbiota diversity decreases with aging and some dietary choices and other factors.

Gut Microbiota and Disease

  • Factors influencing Gut Microbiota: Diet, drugs, age, genetics, pre-existing conditions, microbial diversity, lifestyle (e.g., smoking).
  • Mechanisms of Dysbiosis: High-fiber diets support diversity and outcompete pathogens to maintain a healthy microbiota. High-fat diets promote endotoxin absorption and inflammation dysregulating the healthy microbiota.
  • Pathogen-Induced Dysbiosis: Disruptions in the balance of commensal and pathogenic bacteria allow pathogens to proliferate.

Host-Pathogen Responses

  • Infection Conditions: Exposure, adhesion to surfaces, invasion, growth, spread, and tissue/systemic damage.

  • Virulence Factors:

    • Adherence: Molecules like adhesins, pili, fimbriae, capsules for attachment to host cells.
      • Pili: Used in conjugation and adhesion .
    • Invasion: Enzymes (hyaluronidase, coagulase, streptokinase) for breaking down tissue barriers.
    • Toxicity: Exotoxins (diphtheria toxin, botulinum toxin, tetanus toxin, cholera toxin) or endotoxins for damaging tissues.
    • Immune Evasion: Anti-phagocytic proteins, immune inhibitors, and secretion systems.
    • Intracellular Avoidance: Bacteria can survive and multiply inside host cells. This can involve resisting digestion, preventing lysosome fusion, exiting the phagosome etc.
  • Infection vs. Bacteremia vs. Septicemia:

    • Infection: Presence of a microorganism.
    • Bacteremia: Bacteria in the bloodstream, often transient and not necessarily harmful.
    • Septicemia: Systemic infection in the bloodstream, intense immune response to bacteria.
  • Virulence and LD50/ID50:

    • Virulence: Severity of disease by a pathogen.
    • LD50: Lethal dose (kills 50% of test animals).
    • ID50: Infectious dose (infects 50% of test animals)
  • Cytotoxins, Endotoxins, Exotoxins, Hemotoxins:

    • Cytotoxins: Cell-killing agents
    • Exotoxins: Secreted protein toxins (diphtheria, botulinum, cholera).
    • Endotoxins: (Lipid component of Gram-negative cell walls).
    • Hemotoxins: Affect red blood cells.
    • E. coli Toxins:
      • Labile toxin causes watery diarrhea.
      • Shiga-like toxin causes bloody diarrhea .
  • Virulence mechanisms Specific examples of toxins: Toxins like diphtheria, botulinum, tetanus, cholera, cytolytic toxins (hemolysins), and endotoxins cause specific tissue damage by interfering with cellular mechanisms or by triggering immune responses.

Bacteria

  • Bacterial Cell Morphologies: Rods (bacilli), spheres (cocci), spirals (spirilla/spirochetes).
  • Glycocalyx: Capsule or slime layer, for protection, adherence, and biofilm formation.
  • Cell Walls: Different structures between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Gram positive contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan and stains purple. Gram negative has a thin layer of peptidoglycan encased in 2 membranes and stains pink. Acid-fast bacteria have a waxy outer layer making them resistant to stains.
  • Cytoplasmic Membrane: Permeability barrier, protein anchor, proton motive force generation (energy storage).
  • Cytoskeleton: MreB (elongation), FtsZ (division), crescentin (shape).
  • Nucleoid and Ribosomes: Nucleoid houses bacterial chromosome (no membrane), ribosomes synthesize proteins.
  • Endospores: Dormant forms for survival under harsh conditions .
  • Sporulation: Complex process creating an endospore, for bacterial survival .
  • Flagella, Fimbriae, Pili: Used for mobility (flagella) and adhesion/gene transfer (fimbriae/pili).
  • Bacterial Locomotion: Run (CCW flagellar rotation) and tumble (CW).
  • Unique Bacterial Structures: Peptidoglycan cell wall, endospores, single chromosome, flagella, fimbriae, pili.
  • Chemotaxis: Bacteria move in response to chemical gradients by changing flagellar rotation.

Archaea

  • Archaea as a Separate Domain: Distinctive rRNA sequences, different metabolic pathways, and unique cell wall structures separate archaea from bacteria.
  • Archaeal Cell Structures: similar to bacteria in basic shapes and functions, but use different molecules for cell wall and lipids.
  • Cell Walls: Composed of pseudomurein or other unique polysaccharides, different from peptidoglycan.
  • Plasma Membranes: Ether-linked membrane lipids with isoprene chains (more stable). Can form lipid bilayer or monolayer.
  • Cytoskeleton: TubZ, crenactin, ESCRT.
  • Unique Archaeal Structures/Pathways: Hami (attachment), archaella (movement with ATP).

Viruses

  • Viral Structure: Nucleic acid (DNA or RNA), protein capsid, some have an envelope.
  • Bacteriophages, Plant Viruses, Animal Viruses: Differences in host range, entry mechanisms, and replication cycles.
  • Lytic and Lysogenic Cycles: Lytic cycle results in phage release, lysogenic cycle results in phage incorporation into host's chromosomes.
  • Bacterial Defense Mechanisms: Genetic resistance, restriction enzymes, CRISPR-Cas.
  • Animal Virus Entry: Endocytosis, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and membrane fusion.
  • Animal Virus Replication: Lytic or lysogenic cycle (DNA or RNA polymerase, transcription of viral mRNA, production of new viral particles, release by budding or cell lysis).
  • Retroviruses: Use reverse transcriptase.
  • Latent Viruses: Integrate into host's genome, remain inactive until environmental cues trigger replication.

Microbial Metabolism

  • Nutrient Transport: Passive/active transport, ABC transporters, siderophores, periplasmic binding proteins for uptake.
  • Catabolism vs. Anabolism:
    • Catabolism: Breaking down molecules, releasing energy.
    • Anabolism: Building up molecules, requiring energy.
  • Oxidation-Reduction: Vital for energy transfer in metabolism.
  • Substrate-Level vs. Oxidative Phosphorylation:
    • Substrate-level: Direct ATP generation.
    • Oxidative: ATP generation driven by electron transport chain.
  • Fermentation: Partial breakdown without electron transfer to inorganic acceptors (does not require oxygen) – results in lesser ATP byproducts of different organic compounds.
  • Aerobic vs. Anaerobic Respiration: Use oxygen or other electron acceptors for energy production.
  • ATP, NAD+, etc.: Energy carriers for metabolic processes.

Microbial Growth

  • Binary Fission: Bacterial cell division.
  • Batch vs. Continuous Culture: Batch culture has a limited nutrient supply. Continuous culture maintains a steady state.
  • Growth Phases: Lag, log, stationary, death.
  • Sessile vs. Planktonic Growth: Sessile bacteria attach to surfaces, planktonic bacteria remain free in solution.
  • Biofilms vs. Cell Mats: Biofilms are surface-attached communities; cell mats are multilayered.
  • Temperature Adaptations: Microbes adapt to temperature by altering their membrane fluidity, enzyme structure, or by producing heat-shock proteins.
  • pH Adaptations: Microbes adjust their internal pH based on the external environment.
  • Oxygen Requirements: Microbes have different oxygen needs including: obligate aerobes, obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, aerotolerant anaerobes, microaerophiles.
  • Oxidation and ROS: Oxygen can be toxic to some microbes causing oxidative stress and/or damage.
  • Salinity and Osmotic pressure requirements: microbes have specific needs depending on salt and water in their environments
  • Bacterial growth: Adapt to different environments including temperature, pH, and oxygen concentrations.

Microbial Regulatory Systems

  • Quorum Sensing: Cell-to-cell communication in bacteria based on cell density.
  • Autoinducers: Molecules used in quorum sensing.
  • Quorum sensing in gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria: The mechanisms of communication difference.
  • Quorum Quenching: Methods to interfere with bacteria's ability to communicate.
  • Spatial Organization: MreB, FtsZ, Crescentin, and other proteins that play a role in cell division, maintenance of cellular shape, and localization.
  • Cell Polarity: Spatial localization of proteins and cellular structures.
  • Negative vs Positive Gene Regulation: How regulatory proteins either suppress or promote bacterial gene expression.
  • Operons: Groups of genes transcribed together.
  • Two-Component Systems: Sensory systems in bacteria.
  • Chemotaxis in E. coli: How bacteria respond to chemical gradients using proteins such as Che proteins.
  • Stringent Response: Mechanism to cope with environmental changes, slowing growth to preserve resources.
  • Global Response Networks and Regulons: Networks that coordinate gene expression in response to stresses.

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This quiz explores key concepts in microbial genetics, focusing on mechanisms of genetic transfer in bacteria as well as the role of the microbiome in human health. It covers topics such as sexual and asexual reproduction, transduction, transformation, and immune defense roles of epithelial cells. Deepen your understanding of how microorganisms interact with their hosts and each other.

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