FinalTHREESG

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Questions and Answers

Which condition is defined as content that cannot be replaced into the abdomen?

Incarcerated hernia (correct)

Painless hernia

Reducible hernia

Strangulated hernia

What is a common risk factor for developing a hernia?

High body mass index

Age over 60 (correct)

Daily exercise

Sedentary lifestyle

Symptoms of a strangulated hernia may include which of the following?

Colicky abdominal pain (correct)

Sudden unilateral scrotal pain

Reduced pain with lying down

Intermittent swelling

What is the appropriate action if a hernia is identified as strangulated?

Refer immediately for surgery Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about reducible hernias is true?

They can be easily replaced with gentle pressure. Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom indicates that a hernia may be worsening?

Bulge in the groin increasing with sitting Signup and view all the answers

What follow-up measure is crucial after surgical hernia repair?

Monitoring for recurrence or infection Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings is likely associated with testicular torsion?

Severe pain in one side of the scrotum Signup and view all the answers

Which lifestyle modification may help address underlying causes of erectile dysfunction?

Smoking cessation Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum recommended dose of sildenafil for erectile dysfunction?

100 mg Signup and view all the answers

What should patients avoid when taking tadalafil?

Concomitant use of nitrates Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment is a second-line option for erectile dysfunction?

Intracavernous injection therapy Signup and view all the answers

What is the success rate of alprostadil when used as an intracavernous injection?

31-72% Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is contraindicated for the use of sildenafil?

Heart failure Signup and view all the answers

Which sexually transmitted disease is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

Gonorrhea Signup and view all the answers

What is a common psychological factor contributing to erectile dysfunction?

Stress Signup and view all the answers

What is the optimal time to wait between pregnancies for better maternal and child health?

18-24 months Signup and view all the answers

Which contraceptive method is especially convenient for long-term use without daily attention?

Intrauterine devices (IUDs) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential benefit of hormonal contraceptive methods?

Menstrual regularity Signup and view all the answers

What is a common limitation of natural family planning methods?

User error Signup and view all the answers

What should individuals planning pregnancy discuss during preconception counseling?

Folic acid supplementation Signup and view all the answers

Why is postpartum family planning important soon after delivery?

To assure timely contraception initiation if desired Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of individual circumstances should be considered when discussing contraceptive options?

Lifestyle factors and family planning goals Signup and view all the answers

What role should partners play in family planning discussions?

They should engage in open communication regarding choices Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the fundus after 36 weeks of pregnancy?

It begins to drop as the fetus descends into the pelvis. Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended dosage of folic acid to prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy?

400 mcg Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic test is appropriate for a patient suspected of infertility with a varicocele?

Scrotal ultrasound with color Doppler imaging Signup and view all the answers

In men with varicocele, what effect might it have on sperm production?

May lead to low sperm production or quality issues Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic feature of a Grade 1 varicocele?

Palpable only when performing the Valsalva maneuver Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of a semen analysis in the evaluation of a varicocele?

It evaluates sperm quality and potential fertility issues. Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary consequence of untreated varicocele?

Possible infertility or complications in sperm production Signup and view all the answers

What imaging technique is used to confirm the presence of a varicocele through visualizing testicular blood flow patterns?

Ultrasound with color Doppler imaging Signup and view all the answers

When should a baby with a scrotal mass or hydrocele be reassessed by a doctor?

If the swelling is firm, painful, or large by 1 year old Signup and view all the answers

What is cryptorchidism?

A condition where one or both testicles have not descended into the scrotum Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended age range for performing an orchiopexy?

6 months to 1 year of age Signup and view all the answers

What is a common cause of erectile dysfunction?

High cholesterol Signup and view all the answers

Why is early surgical intervention for cryptorchidism important?

To reduce the risk of infertility and testicular cancer Signup and view all the answers

What are the potential risks of leaving undescended testicles untreated?

Impaired sperm production and risk of testicular cancer Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is known as the first FDA-approved treatment for erectile dysfunction?

Sildenafil (Viagra) Signup and view all the answers

What condition is NOT typically associated with erectile dysfunction?

Chronic fatigue Signup and view all the answers

What is the impact of aging on erectile dysfunction?

Aging increases the likelihood of developing ED without causing it Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary first-line medication used for managing depression during pregnancy?

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key symptom of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy?

Visual disturbances Signup and view all the answers

What is the main advantage of insulin as a treatment for diabetes during pregnancy?

It does not cross the placenta Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is known for having the longest track record of safety in treating high blood pressure during pregnancy?

Methyldopa Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by excessive nausea in pregnancy, likely due to elevated hormone levels?

Hyperemesis Gravidarum Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common dermatologic disorder during pregnancy?

PUPP Signup and view all the answers

What is a common management strategy for hyperemesis gravidarum?

IV fluids Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following blood pressure medications needs to be administered only once a day in its extended-release form?

Nifedipine Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of chronic bacterial prostatitis?

Can be asymptomatic Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about taking sildenafil is correct?

It should be taken on an empty stomach one hour before intercourse Signup and view all the answers

Which factor most commonly causes acute bacterial prostatitis in younger men?

Chlamydia and Gonorrhea Signup and view all the answers

What should NOT be done if acute prostatitis is suspected?

Massage the prostate Signup and view all the answers

How long can tadalafil remain effective after taking it?

24 to 36 hours Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the follow-up visit schedules for testicular cancer after initial treatment?

Every 2 to 6 months for the first 3 years Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary reason for referring a child for urologic evaluation regarding cryptorchidism?

If the testicle has not descended by age 6 months Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding the likelihood of cure for testicular cancer?

Even late-stage testicular cancer has a high likelihood of being cured Signup and view all the answers

What is a common risk factor for cryptorchidism?

Low birth weight Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic finding is associated with cryptorchidism during a physical exam?

One or both testicles absent upon palpation Signup and view all the answers

What physical examination finding is commonly associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

A uniformly enlarged, firm, and rubbery prostate Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is NOT typically associated with BPH?

Weight loss Signup and view all the answers

What situation may lead to acute urinary retention in men with BPH?

Use of anticholinergics Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging technique is used for diagnosing a varicocele?

Scrotal ultrasound Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely size change of a varicocele when the patient is in a supine position?

Decrease in size Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely result of a urine culture in a case of acute prostatitis?

Positive for E. coli Signup and view all the answers

Which antibiotics are recommended for treating prostatitis in men younger than 35 years?

Doxycycline and ceftriaxone Signup and view all the answers

What is a classic physical sign associated with epididymitis?

Prehn's sign Signup and view all the answers

What blood tests might be necessary for a patient with suspected prostatitis and urinary retention?

Blood cultures and PSA levels Signup and view all the answers

In cases of acute epididymitis, what pathogen is commonly identified in men over 35 years old?

E. coli Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended treatment duration for chronic prostatitis?

6-12 weeks Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging study is primarily utilized to evaluate significant voiding dysfunction in patients suspecting prostatitis?

Ultrasound Signup and view all the answers

What key symptom distinguishes testicular torsion from epididymitis?

Rapid onset of pain Signup and view all the answers

What is one advantage of minimally invasive hernia repair over open surgery?

It may result in quicker recovery and less discomfort. Signup and view all the answers

Which is the primary method used to perform minimally invasive hernia repair?

Laparoscopic or robotic instruments. Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of gas in minimally invasive hernia repair?

It inflates the abdomen for better visibility of organs. Signup and view all the answers

After a minimally invasive hernia repair, what should patients expect regarding their ability to resume normal activities?

A quicker return to normal activities compared to open surgery. Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is typically used to treat gonorrhea?

Ceftriaxone. Signup and view all the answers

What is one characteristic symptom of gonorrhea in men?

Blood tinged urethritis. Signup and view all the answers

How are HPV infections typically diagnosed?

Clinical findings. Signup and view all the answers

What is often true about the lesions caused by HPV?

They are usually asymptomatic. Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended application frequency for Podofilox solution or gel?

Twice daily three times per week until resolved Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment is NOT a recommended provider-administered option for external warts?

Podofilox solution application Signup and view all the answers

What is the potential side effect reported by patients using Podofilox?

Itching or pain Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a treatment option for yeast infections?

Not mentioned in the content Signup and view all the answers

How often is Sinecatechins 15% ointment applied for treating warts?

Three times a day for 16 weeks Signup and view all the answers

What common symptom might females report when infected with Chlamydia?

Mucopurulent vaginal discharge Signup and view all the answers

What is the duration of treatment using Imiquimod cream for external warts?

16 weeks Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is a common route of administration for Azithromycin in treating Chlamydia infection?

Oral Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Prostate Screening Guidelines

USPSTF recommends against routine screening.
ACS and AUA guidelines recommend an individualized approach with shared decision-making.
For most men, screening with PSA and DRE should begin at age 50.
Consider screening at 45 for men at high risk (first-degree relative with prostate cancer before age 65, or black ethnicity).
Men with more than one first-degree relative with a history of prostate cancer should begin screening at age 40.
Asymptomatic men with a 10-year life expectancy should not be offered PSA testing.
Routine screening involves PSA testing and digital rectal examination (DRE).
PSA levels above 4 ng/mL may warrant further investigation (e.g., biopsy or imaging).
Screening frequency depends on risk factors (age, family history, and ethnicity).

Risk Factors

Age: Risk increases after age 50.
Family history of prostate cancer.
African American ethnicity.
Diet high in red meat and low in fruits and vegetables.

Diagnostics

Digital Rectal Exam (DRE): Palpable abnormalities suggest malignancy.
Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) Testing: Elevated levels require follow-up. PSA is usually <4 ng/mL. Evaluate change in PSA velocity in conjunction with DRE. A PSA value > 10ng/mL necessitates biopsy. A PSA value of 4-9.9ng/mL is often biopsied, but only 20% of these patients have prostate cancer.
Prostate cancer antigen 3 (PCA3), TMPRSS2-ERG gene fusion, and prostate health index are adjunctive tests to use with PSA.
Alkaline phosphatase: elevated with metastasis.
Testosterone and liver function tests if androgen deprivation is suspected.
Transrectal biopsy with transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) guidance.
CT, primarily to evaluate prostate size and pelvic lymph node involvement in the preoperative stage, or for evaluating metastasis.

Testicular Cancer

Malignant tumor of the testicle.
Two types: germ cell (most common) and non-germ cell.
Germ cell types: seminoma, teratoma, teratocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma.
Non-germ cell types: Leydig cell, gonadoblastoma, adenocarcinoma.
Screening: Early detection is crucial.
Risk Factors: history of cryptorchidism, family history, White race.
Assessment Findings: painless testicular mass, swelling, discomfort, feeling of heaviness, possible loss of libido or erectile dysfunction, enlargement of testicle.

Testicular Torsion

Sudden, severe, unilateral scrotal pain.
Scrotal edema and erythema.
Firm tender mass (may be retracted upward).
No pain relief with testicular elevation.
Lower abdominal pain.
Reactive hydrocele.
High-riding testicle with "bell-clapper" deformity.
Horizontal lie within the scrotum.
Nausea and vomiting.
Absent cremasteric reflex.
Negative Prehn's sign.

Active Surveillance and Follow-up

Clinical examinations with PSA every 6 months for first 5 years, then annually; DRE annually.
Repeat prostate biopsies 1 year after original diagnosis, and then every 2-4 years.
Evaluation for CVD and prevention in patients treated with ADT.
Screening for urinary tract dysfunction, sexual dysfunction, depression, anxiety, suicidality, and caregiver distress in patients treated with adjuvant therapy.

Erectile Dysfunction

Inability to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual performance.
Risk Factors: Cardiovascular disease, hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hyperlipidemia, radiation of the pelvis, COPD, sleep apnea, neurologic disorders, injuries to spinal cord/brain, Parkinson's disease, Alzheimer's, multiple sclerosis, stroke, Peyronie's disease, cavernous fibrosis, penile fracture, epispadias, priapism, hypogonadism, hyper/hypothyroidism, hyperprolactinemia.
Drug-induced: antihypertensives, antidepressants, antipsychotics, antiandrogens, recreational drugs, pain medication (especially opioids and anticholinergics), 5-alpha reductase inhibitors, and alcohol use.
Psychogenic: performance anxiety, PTSD, relationship problems, lack of arousal, anxiety, depression, etc.
Surgical procedures which lead to postoperative disruption in neurologic function, atherosclerosis, smoking, hypertension, diabetes.

Studying That Suits You

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Description

Test your knowledge on the latest prostate screening guidelines as recommended by USPSTF, ACS, and AUA. This quiz covers the age recommendations, risk factors, and screening processes for prostate cancer. Understand when to begin screening and the criteria for high-risk individuals.