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Questions and Answers
What is the primary result of meiosis in terms of chromosome number?
What is the primary result of meiosis in terms of chromosome number?
What happens to the chromosomes during the anaphase of meiosis?
What happens to the chromosomes during the anaphase of meiosis?
Which process contributes to genetic variation during meiosis?
Which process contributes to genetic variation during meiosis?
How does fertilization impact the chromosome number of the zygote?
How does fertilization impact the chromosome number of the zygote?
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What is the significance of the cleavage furrow during cytokinesis?
What is the significance of the cleavage furrow during cytokinesis?
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Which statement accurately describes the genetic characteristic of daughter cells produced by meiosis?
Which statement accurately describes the genetic characteristic of daughter cells produced by meiosis?
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At which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes line up side by side?
At which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes line up side by side?
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What is the primary purpose of crossing-over during Prophase I?
What is the primary purpose of crossing-over during Prophase I?
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Meiosis II is most similar to which other type of cell division?
Meiosis II is most similar to which other type of cell division?
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What phase follows after meiosis I without any DNA replication occurring?
What phase follows after meiosis I without any DNA replication occurring?
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During which stage of meiosis do the centromeres divide?
During which stage of meiosis do the centromeres divide?
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Which outcome results from the process of fertilization in meiosis?
Which outcome results from the process of fertilization in meiosis?
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What best describes the genetic composition of gametes produced through meiosis?
What best describes the genetic composition of gametes produced through meiosis?
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What is the main purpose of genetic recombination during meiosis?
What is the main purpose of genetic recombination during meiosis?
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How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?
How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?
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In comparison to mitosis, meiosis results in daughter cells that are:
In comparison to mitosis, meiosis results in daughter cells that are:
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What is the consequence of nondisjunction during meiosis?
What is the consequence of nondisjunction during meiosis?
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Which event occurs during meiosis but not during mitosis?
Which event occurs during meiosis but not during mitosis?
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What indicates that meiosis has successfully occurred?
What indicates that meiosis has successfully occurred?
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What characterizes the daughter cells produced by mitosis?
What characterizes the daughter cells produced by mitosis?
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How does independent alignment during meiosis contribute to genetic variation?
How does independent alignment during meiosis contribute to genetic variation?
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What is a significant effect of chromosomal translocation during meiosis?
What is a significant effect of chromosomal translocation during meiosis?
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What characterizes meiosis in terms of chromosome number?
What characterizes meiosis in terms of chromosome number?
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Where does spermatogenesis occur within the male reproductive system?
Where does spermatogenesis occur within the male reproductive system?
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Which of the following is a function of the prostate gland?
Which of the following is a function of the prostate gland?
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Which process is responsible for introducing genetic variation during gamete formation?
Which process is responsible for introducing genetic variation during gamete formation?
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What is the primary energy source found in semen that aids sperm motility?
What is the primary energy source found in semen that aids sperm motility?
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How many divisions are involved in the process of meiosis?
How many divisions are involved in the process of meiosis?
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Which reproductive organs contribute nutrients to seminal fluid?
Which reproductive organs contribute nutrients to seminal fluid?
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What is the term for a fertilized egg formed by the fusion of sperm and egg?
What is the term for a fertilized egg formed by the fusion of sperm and egg?
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Which of the following statements is true regarding egg production in females?
Which of the following statements is true regarding egg production in females?
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What is the pH level of semen, and why is it significant?
What is the pH level of semen, and why is it significant?
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What characterizes the cells formed at the end of meiosis I in spermatogenesis?
What characterizes the cells formed at the end of meiosis I in spermatogenesis?
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Which process occurs in oogenesis but not in spermatogenesis?
Which process occurs in oogenesis but not in spermatogenesis?
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How does meiosis contribute to genetic variation?
How does meiosis contribute to genetic variation?
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What defines the primary oocyte in female reproduction?
What defines the primary oocyte in female reproduction?
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What is a direct consequence of spermatogenesis during puberty?
What is a direct consequence of spermatogenesis during puberty?
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After meiosis II in oogenesis, what is the expected outcome?
After meiosis II in oogenesis, what is the expected outcome?
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What is the role of the polar body in oogenesis?
What is the role of the polar body in oogenesis?
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What triggers the completion of meiosis II in oocytes?
What triggers the completion of meiosis II in oocytes?
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Which statement accurately describes metaphase I of meiosis?
Which statement accurately describes metaphase I of meiosis?
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Why is genetic recombination significant in meiosis?
Why is genetic recombination significant in meiosis?
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The atlas vertebra allows the head to shake side to side, permitting the 'no' motion.
The atlas vertebra allows the head to shake side to side, permitting the 'no' motion.
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Intervertebral disks are composed of hyaline cartilage.
Intervertebral disks are composed of hyaline cartilage.
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Ribs 8 to 12 are classified as true ribs.
Ribs 8 to 12 are classified as true ribs.
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The rib cage plays a part in protecting the liver and kidneys.
The rib cage plays a part in protecting the liver and kidneys.
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Floating ribs are defined as ribs 1 to 7 that do not connect to the sternum.
Floating ribs are defined as ribs 1 to 7 that do not connect to the sternum.
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The primary function of the skeletal system is to create hormones.
The primary function of the skeletal system is to create hormones.
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The diaphysis of a long bone is the expanded end of the bone.
The diaphysis of a long bone is the expanded end of the bone.
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Red bone marrow is primarily found in the medullary cavity of long bones.
Red bone marrow is primarily found in the medullary cavity of long bones.
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Canaliculi connect lacunae with one another and with the central canal in bone tissue.
Canaliculi connect lacunae with one another and with the central canal in bone tissue.
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Spongy bone is heavier than compact bone but lacks structural strength.
Spongy bone is heavier than compact bone but lacks structural strength.
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Compact bone is composed of tubular units called osteons.
Compact bone is composed of tubular units called osteons.
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Cartilage is stronger than bone and contains blood vessels for nutrient supply.
Cartilage is stronger than bone and contains blood vessels for nutrient supply.
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The periosteum is a connective tissue that covers only the ends of bones.
The periosteum is a connective tissue that covers only the ends of bones.
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Fibrocartilage is found in the disks between vertebrae and in the knee joints.
Fibrocartilage is found in the disks between vertebrae and in the knee joints.
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Ligaments connect bone to muscle within the human body.
Ligaments connect bone to muscle within the human body.
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Estrogen exerts positive feedback on the anterior pituitary to increase FSH secretion during the follicular phase.
Estrogen exerts positive feedback on the anterior pituitary to increase FSH secretion during the follicular phase.
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The luteal phase is characterized by high levels of estrogen and reduced levels of progesterone.
The luteal phase is characterized by high levels of estrogen and reduced levels of progesterone.
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Menopause typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 40.
Menopause typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 40.
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During the uterine cycle, low levels of estrogen and progesterone prompt the endometrium to disintegrate.
During the uterine cycle, low levels of estrogen and progesterone prompt the endometrium to disintegrate.
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A surge of LH on day 14 of the cycle causes the regression of the corpus luteum.
A surge of LH on day 14 of the cycle causes the regression of the corpus luteum.
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Thick myofilaments are primarily made up of ______.
Thick myofilaments are primarily made up of ______.
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The ______ is the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber.
The ______ is the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber.
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Calcium is stored in the ______ reticulum of muscle cells.
Calcium is stored in the ______ reticulum of muscle cells.
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The neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft is called ______.
The neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft is called ______.
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Calcium ions bind to ______ during muscle contraction.
Calcium ions bind to ______ during muscle contraction.
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The ______ is the space that separates the axon terminal and the sarcolemma.
The ______ is the space that separates the axon terminal and the sarcolemma.
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The vesicular follicle bursts, releasing the ______.
The vesicular follicle bursts, releasing the ______.
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If the egg is not fertilized, the corpus luteum ______.
If the egg is not fertilized, the corpus luteum ______.
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The corpus luteum produces ______ and some estrogen.
The corpus luteum produces ______ and some estrogen.
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Days 6 to 13 are known as the ______ phase, where estrogen increases and the endometrium thickens.
Days 6 to 13 are known as the ______ phase, where estrogen increases and the endometrium thickens.
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On day 14, the process of ______ occurs, signaling the release of the egg.
On day 14, the process of ______ occurs, signaling the release of the egg.
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During the secretory phase from days 15 to 28, the corpus luteum secretes ______, which further prepares the endometrium.
During the secretory phase from days 15 to 28, the corpus luteum secretes ______, which further prepares the endometrium.
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If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum regresses, leading to a drop in ______ levels, which results in menstruation.
If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum regresses, leading to a drop in ______ levels, which results in menstruation.
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The fertilized egg, after several divisions, is referred to as a ______ when it reaches the embryonic stage.
The fertilized egg, after several divisions, is referred to as a ______ when it reaches the embryonic stage.
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The process of bone formation is known as ______.
The process of bone formation is known as ______.
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During the growth of long bones, ______ are responsible for bone formation.
During the growth of long bones, ______ are responsible for bone formation.
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In endochondral ossification, the cartilage model is replaced by ______.
In endochondral ossification, the cartilage model is replaced by ______.
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Vitamin D is essential for the absorption of ______ from food.
Vitamin D is essential for the absorption of ______ from food.
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The hormone that stimulates growth in bones is called ______.
The hormone that stimulates growth in bones is called ______.
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Osteocytes are mature bone cells that help regulate ______ in bone tissue.
Osteocytes are mature bone cells that help regulate ______ in bone tissue.
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When the epiphyseal plates close, ______ can no longer occur.
When the epiphyseal plates close, ______ can no longer occur.
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Osteoblasts are responsible for forming ______ by secreting the organic matrix and promoting calcium deposition.
Osteoblasts are responsible for forming ______ by secreting the organic matrix and promoting calcium deposition.
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Intramembranous ossification primarily forms ______ bones, such as those in the skull.
Intramembranous ossification primarily forms ______ bones, such as those in the skull.
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Ossification refers to the process of ______ formation during the development of the skeletal system.
Ossification refers to the process of ______ formation during the development of the skeletal system.
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Osteocytes are mature bone cells that develop from ______, which have surrounded themselves with calcified matrix.
Osteocytes are mature bone cells that develop from ______, which have surrounded themselves with calcified matrix.
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Endochondral ossification is the process by which ______ bones are formed from hyaline cartilage.
Endochondral ossification is the process by which ______ bones are formed from hyaline cartilage.
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Osteoblasts in the periosteum carry out further ______.
Osteoblasts in the periosteum carry out further ______.
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Trabeculae form and fuse into ______ bone.
Trabeculae form and fuse into ______ bone.
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Endochondral ossification forms most ______, like the tibia.
Endochondral ossification forms most ______, like the tibia.
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The primary ossification center is where blood vessels bring ______ for bone formation.
The primary ossification center is where blood vessels bring ______ for bone formation.
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The epiphyseal plate plays a vital role in ______ lengthening.
The epiphyseal plate plays a vital role in ______ lengthening.
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Cartilage cells are produced in the ______ zone of the epiphyseal plate.
Cartilage cells are produced in the ______ zone of the epiphyseal plate.
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The first step of endochondral ossification involves the formation of a ______ model.
The first step of endochondral ossification involves the formation of a ______ model.
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As the primary ossification center develops, it leads to the formation of the ______ cavity.
As the primary ossification center develops, it leads to the formation of the ______ cavity.
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In the degenerating zone, cartilage cells are ______ off.
In the degenerating zone, cartilage cells are ______ off.
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The layer nearest the epiphysis in the epiphyseal plate is called the ______ zone.
The layer nearest the epiphysis in the epiphyseal plate is called the ______ zone.
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Smooth muscle fibers are striated and multinucleated.
Smooth muscle fibers are striated and multinucleated.
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Skeletal muscle contraction is involuntary and helps maintain a constant body temperature.
Skeletal muscle contraction is involuntary and helps maintain a constant body temperature.
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Cardiac muscle fibers are branched and interlock at intercalated disks.
Cardiac muscle fibers are branched and interlock at intercalated disks.
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All types of muscle tissue are striated and controlled voluntarily.
All types of muscle tissue are striated and controlled voluntarily.
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Cardiac muscle contraction can occur with nervous stimulation.
Cardiac muscle contraction can occur with nervous stimulation.
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The fascia is the connective tissue that covers muscles and extends to become the tendon.
The fascia is the connective tissue that covers muscles and extends to become the tendon.
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Bursae function primarily as fluid-filled sacs that provide rigidity to the joint area.
Bursae function primarily as fluid-filled sacs that provide rigidity to the joint area.
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When the biceps brachii contracts, it serves as the antagonist muscle during the movement of the forearm.
When the biceps brachii contracts, it serves as the antagonist muscle during the movement of the forearm.
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The insertion of a muscle is the site where the muscle attaches to a stationary bone.
The insertion of a muscle is the site where the muscle attaches to a stationary bone.
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The primary role of skeletal muscles is to facilitate movement through the action of agonist and antagonist pairs.
The primary role of skeletal muscles is to facilitate movement through the action of agonist and antagonist pairs.
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The muscle that is contracting is known as the antagonist.
The muscle that is contracting is known as the antagonist.
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Skeletal muscles can work together to cause movement.
Skeletal muscles can work together to cause movement.
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Myofibrils are the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber.
Myofibrils are the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber.
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The myofibrils within a muscle fiber are composed of myofilaments.
The myofibrils within a muscle fiber are composed of myofilaments.
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Calcium is stored in the sarcolemma.
Calcium is stored in the sarcolemma.
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Glycogen in the sarcoplasm provides energy for muscle relaxation.
Glycogen in the sarcoplasm provides energy for muscle relaxation.
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Thick myofilaments are primarily composed of actin.
Thick myofilaments are primarily composed of actin.
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Myoglobin in the sarcoplasm binds to carbon dioxide.
Myoglobin in the sarcoplasm binds to carbon dioxide.
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The sarcoplasmic reticulum is an essential site for protein synthesis in muscle fibers.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is an essential site for protein synthesis in muscle fibers.
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If both the agonist and antagonist muscles contract simultaneously, it results in movement.
If both the agonist and antagonist muscles contract simultaneously, it results in movement.
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Study Notes
Skeletal System - Part 1
- The skeletal system consists of two types of connective tissue: bone and cartilage.
- Ligaments, formed of fibrous connective tissue, join the bones.
- Functions of the skeleton:
- Supports the body.
- Works with the muscular system to move the body.
- Protects internal organs (skull protects brain, rib cage protects heart and lungs, vertebrae protect spinal cord).
- Produces blood cells.
- Stores minerals (calcium and phosphate) and fat.
Anatomy of a Long Bone1
- Diaphysis-shaft of the bone.
- Medullary cavity-inside the diaphysis; its walls are made of compact bone.
- The medullary cavity is lined with the endosteum and is filled with yellow bone marrow, which stores fat.
- Epiphysis-expanded end of a long bone.
- Composed of spongy bone that contains red bone marrow, where blood cells are made.
Anatomy of a Long Bone2
- The epiphyses are coated with a thin layer of hyaline cartilage, also called articular cartilage, because it occurs at a joint.
- Metaphysis-between the epiphysis and diaphysis.
- Contains the epiphyseal plate, a region of cartilage that allows for bone growth.
- Periosteum-connective tissue covering all bones; continuous with ligaments and tendons.
Bone 1
- Two types of bone tissue: compact and spongy.
- Compact bone is highly organized and composed of tubular units called osteons.
- Osteocytes are bone cells; they lie in lacunae (singular, lacuna), tiny chambers arranged in concentric circles around a central canal.
- Matrix fills the space between the rows of lacunae.
Bone 2
- Tiny canals called canaliculi connect the lacunae with one another and with the central canal.
- Osteocytes stay in contact with each other in the canaliculi.
- They exchange nutrients and wastes through gap junctions that connect adjacent osteocytes.
Bone 3
- Spongy bone contains numerous thin plates called trabeculae.
- Although lighter than compact bone, spongy bone is still designed for strength.
- Red bone marrow is in the spaces of spongy bone.
- Produces all types of blood cells.
- Osteocytes of spongy bone are irregularly placed within the trabeculae.
Cartilage1
- Cartilage-not as strong as bone but is more flexible.
- Matrix contains collagen and elastic fibers.
- Chondrocytes-cartilage cells; lie within lacunae.
- Has no nerves or blood vessels; relies on neighboring tissues for nutrient and waste exchange.
- This makes it slow to heal.
- Three types of cartilage: hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic cartilage.
Cartilage2
- Locations of cartilage:
- Hyaline cartilage: ends of long bones, nose, ends of ribs, larynx, and trachea.
- Fibrocartilage: disks between vertebrae and in the knee.
- Elastic cartilage: ear flaps.
Fibrous Connective Tissue
- Made of rows of fibroblasts separated by bundles of collagenous fibers.
- Makes up ligaments and tendons.
- Ligaments connect bone to bone.
- Tendons connect muscle to bone at a joint (also called an articulation).
Bones of the Axial Skeleton 2
- The 206 bones of the skeleton are classified as the axial or appendicular skeleton.
- Axial skeleton-midline of the body.
- Mainly consists of the skull, vertebral column, and the rib cage.
- Skull:
- Formed by the cranium and facial bones.
- Cranium contains and protects the brain.
- In adults, made of eight bones.
- In newborns, cranial bones are joined by membranous fontanels.
- Usually close by the age of 16 months.
The Skull 2
- Bones: frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal, sphenoid, ethmoid.
- Foramen magnum-a hole in the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes.
- External auditory canal-in each temporal bone; leads to the middle ear.
- The sphenoid completes the sides of the skull and contributes to forming the orbits (eye sockets).
- The ethmoid bone also helps form the nasal septum.
The Vertebral Column1
- Vertebral column-consists of 33 vertebrae.
- There are four curvatures that provide more strength for an upright posture than a straight column.
- Scoliosis-abnormal sideways curvature of the spine.
- Kyphosis-abnormal posterior curvature; "hunchback."
- Lordosis-abnormal anterior curvature; "swayback."
The Vertebral Column 2
- Vertebral canal-in the center of the column; the spinal cord passes through.
- Intervertebral foramina (singular, foramen, “a hole”) on each side of the column; spinal nerves travel through.
- Spinal nerves control skeletal muscle contraction, among other things.
- If the spinal cord and/or spinal nerves are injured, there can be paralysis or even death.
Types of Vertebrae
- Cervical vertebrae-neck
- Atlas-first cervical vertebra; holds up the head. Movement permits the “yes” motion of the head.
- Axis-second cervical vertebra is named because it rotates around the long axis of the body when we shake the head "no."
Intervertebral Disks 1
- Composed of fibrocartilage.
- Prevent the vertebrae from grinding
- Absorb shock caused by movements such as running, jumping, and even walking.
- Allows the vertebrae to move as we bend forward, backward, and from side to side.
- Become weakened with age and can rupture.
- Pain results if a disk presses against the spinal cord and/or spinal nerves.
The Rib Cage (Thoracic Cage)
- Composed of the thoracic vertebrae, the ribs and their associated cartilages, and the sternum.
- Part of the axial skeleton.
- Protects the heart and lungs.
- Swings outward and upward upon inspiration and then downward and inward upon expiration.
The Ribs 1
- There are 12 pairs; all connect directly to the thoracic vertebrae in the back.
- Curve outward and then forward and downward.
- True ribs-ribs 1 to 7; connect directly to the sternum by means of a long strip of hyaline cartilage called costal cartilage.
- False ribs-ribs 8 to 12; their costal cartilage does not connect directly to the sternum.
- Floating ribs-ribs 11 and 12; they have no connection with the sternum.
- Sternum (breastbone)
- Along with the ribs, it helps protect the heart and lungs.
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Test your knowledge on meiosis, its stages, and its significance in genetic variation. This quiz covers key concepts including chromosome behavior, crossing over, and the implications of fertilization on genetic diversity. Great for students studying biology and genetics.