PATCARE, ANAPHY, MEDTERM,EJC,ALE
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Questions and Answers

What is the normal range for adult blood pressure?

  • 110-140 mmHG/60-90 mmHG (correct)
  • 110-140 mmHG/60-80 mmHG
  • 120-160 mmHG/70-90 mmHG
  • 90-120 mmHG/50-70 mmHG

    • Which type of infection is acquired through intervention or treatment by a physician?

  • Iatrogenic (correct)
  • Idiopathic
  • Community acquired
  • Nosocomial

    • What does medical asepsis primarily focus on?

  • Reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted (correct)
  • Eliminating all microorganisms from surfaces
  • Cleaning surfaces with disinfectants
  • Sterilizing surgical instruments

    • What is the normal pulse rate for infants?

    <p>100-140 bpm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes surgical asepsis?

    <p>Eliminating all microorganisms; sterile technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical respiration rate for children aged 4 to 10 years?

    <p>20-30 breaths/min</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What practice is recommended to avoid transmission of organisms?

    <p>Regular handwashing and proper cleaning techniques</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following methods is used to destroy pathogens?

    <p>Disinfection with chemicals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary condition presented in the text that is characterized by four specific defects?

    <p>Tetralogy of Fallot</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which defect in Tetralogy of Fallot involves a narrowing of the pulmonary valve?

    <p>Pulmonary stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of intracranial hemorrhage involves bleeding into the brain itself?

    <p>Intracerebral bleeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by an increase in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the brain's ventricles?

    <p>Hydrocephalus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bleeding condition is often caused by trauma to the temporal bone and results in bleeding outside the brain but within the skull?

    <p>Epidural hematoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT one of the four defects of Tetralogy of Fallot?

    <p>Aortic regurgitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the condition involving leakage of blood into the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater?

    <p>Subdural hematoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to the defect that allows oxygenated blood to flow from the left ventricle to the right ventricle instead of the aorta?

    <p>Ventricular septal defect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common complication associated with gastric ulcers?

    <p>Gastric carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

    <p>Loss of cut-off blood supply (ischemia)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and weight changes?

    <p>Regional enteritis / Crohn's disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of primary brain neoplasm accounts for about 15% of all intracranial tumors?

    <p>Meningioma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of bowel obstruction is caused by structural abnormalities?

    <p>Mechanical obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can arise from bowel adhesions following abdominal surgery?

    <p>Volvulus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by a congenital defect where the lamina fail to unite?

    <p>Spina bifida</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition involves the infection and bleeding of diverticula?

    <p>Diverticulitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main characteristic of polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?

    <p>Presence of multiple cysts within the kidneys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes a slow-growing, usually benign tumor arising from astrocytes in the brain?

    <p>Astrocytoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can cause appendicitis?

    <p>Appendicolith</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key symptom associated with spinal stenosis?

    <p>Narrowing of the spinal canal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of neoplasm originates in glandular tissue?

    <p>Adenocarcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can arise from a renal abscess?

    <p>Sepsis from blood infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes a hard mass of entangled material found in the digestive tract?

    <p>Bezoar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about kidney hypoplasia is true?

    <p>It describes diminished growth of a kidney.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is NOT a cause of bowel obstruction?

    <p>Hepatic cysts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a meningocele condition involve?

    <p>Only the meninges are herniated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can result from the entrapment of feces within a diverticulum?

    <p>Diverticulitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition involves the accumulation of plaque within blood vessels?

    <p>Thrombus formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What principle asserts that one must not intentionally cause harm?

    <p>Non-maleficence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ethical principle emphasizes the importance of life above all?

    <p>Sanctity of life</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for a valid patient consent?

    <p>Patient must be of sound mind and legal age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a type of contract?

    <p>Implicit contract</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ethical principle relates to the fair treatment and equal rights of individuals?

    <p>Justice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which stage of Maslow's hierarchy is about achieving personal potential?

    <p>Self-actualization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does confidentiality aim to protect in a healthcare context?

    <p>Patient's personal and private information</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes an implied contract?

    <p>Contract derived from the parties' conduct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the goal of beneficence in healthcare?

    <p>Attaining a good result for the patient</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who can act as a designated surrogate or proxy in healthcare decisions?

    <p>A spouse or immediate relative</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a requirement for a valid contract?

    <p>Parties must have legal capacity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the ethical principle of veracity?

    <p>Being honest with oneself and others</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic of a formal contract?

    <p>It is legally enforceable under specific conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of consent arises when a patient acts in a way that implies acceptance of a medical procedure?

    <p>Implied consent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does hyperextension refer to in terms of body movement?

    <p>Forced or excessive extension of a limb or joints</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the term 'distal'?

    <p>Parts farthest from the point of attachment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the action of abduction entail in body movement?

    <p>Movement away from the central axis of the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the outward turning of the foot at the ankle?

    <p>Eversion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'medial' indicate in anatomical terminology?

    <p>Parts toward the median plane of the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is osteomalacia characterized by?

    <p>Softening of bones due to mineral deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment method that does NOT apply to malignancies?

    <p>Physical therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is associated with a bacterial infection causing bone abscess formation?

    <p>Osteomyelitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is Osgood-Schlatter disease primarily characterized by?

    <p>Inflammation at the tibial tuberosity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

    <p>Congenital bone disorder leading to fragile bones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary focus of surgical asepsis?

    <p>Eliminating all microorganisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of infection is characterized by its occurrence during a hospital stay?

    <p>Nosocomial</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In terms of blood pressure, what is considered a normal range for adults?

    <p>110-140 mmHg/60-80 mmHg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of antiseptics in infection control?

    <p>They stop the growth of microorganisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term best describes an infection with an unspecified origin?

    <p>Idiopathic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definition of contamination in the context of infection control?

    <p>Soiling or degrading the quality of something</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical pulse rate range for a child aged 4 to 10 years?

    <p>90-100 bpm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process involves the destruction of pathogens using chemicals?

    <p>Disinfection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of pulmonary stenosis in Tetralogy of Fallot?

    <p>It narrows the pulmonary valve, restricting blood flow.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which intracranial hemorrhage is characterized by bleeding within the brain tissue?

    <p>Intracerebral hemorrhage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by an excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain's ventricles?

    <p>Hydrocephalus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which defect in Tetralogy of Fallot allows deoxygenated blood to mix with oxygenated blood?

    <p>Ventricular septal defect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of intracranial hemorrhage is often associated with trauma to the temporal bone?

    <p>Epidural hematoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the consequence of right ventricular hypertrophy in Tetralogy of Fallot?

    <p>Increased workload on the heart muscle.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes subarachnoid bleeding?

    <p>Rupture of blood vessels in the brain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by bleeding outside the brain but within the skull?

    <p>Epidural hematoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential complication of gastric carcinoma?

    <p>Gastric ulcers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of mechanical bowel obstruction?

    <p>Twisting of the bowel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What typically causes the formation of diverticulitis?

    <p>Entrapment of chyme or feces</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes a typical presentation of appendicitis?

    <p>Localized abdominal pain and fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hernias can occur due to what primary issue?

    <p>Weakening of the abdominal wall</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true about bezoars?

    <p>They can lead to bowel necrosis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is described as chronic inflammation of the bowel?

    <p>Crohn's disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes hepatic cysts?

    <p>Benign, thin-walled sacs that can contain fluid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible consequence of bowel adhesions following surgery?

    <p>Increased abdominal pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common cause of bowel obstruction related to volvulus?

    <p>Intestinal twisting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal range for diastolic blood pressure?

    <p>60 to 90 mmHG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which device is specifically used to measure blood pressure?

    <p>Sphygmomanometer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What reading is indicative of hypotension?

    <p>90 mmHG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the body controls both respiration rate and blood pressure?

    <p>Medulla Oblongata</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines hypertension in terms of systolic pressure?

    <p>Above 140 mmHG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'dorsiflexion' refer to?

    <p>Moving the feet upward</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the rotation of the forearm so that the palm is facing up?

    <p>Supination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does 'plantar flexion' involve?

    <p>Moving the feet downward</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In anatomical terms, what does 'caudad' indicate?

    <p>Away from the head</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following terms refers to the back part of a body or organ?

    <p>Posterior</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which microorganism is characterized as a one-celled organism without a typical nucleus?

    <p>Bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does 'supine' describe?

    <p>Position lying on the back</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term describes substances that invade the body and induce the production of antibodies?

    <p>Antigens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical term refers to parts within or on the inside of an organ?

    <p>Internal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'circumduction' describe?

    <p>Moving a limb in a circular motion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of microorganism primarily reproduces through budding or spore formation?

    <p>Fungi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which microorganisms are known to be able to move using flagella or cilia?

    <p>Protozoa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vector is specifically known to transmit Lyme disease through biting?

    <p>Deer ticks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical structure is identified as the vertebra prominens?

    <p>C7</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of a tubercle in anatomical terminology?

    <p>A small, rounded and elevated process</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which body position involves lying flat on the stomach with legs straight?

    <p>Prone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'fissure' refer to in anatomical terminology?

    <p>A cleft or deep groove</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical position is characterized by the head and torso being lower than the heart?

    <p>Trendelenburg position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by coughing of blood?

    <p>Hemoptysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process is often associated with protrusion through a defect in the abdominal wall?

    <p>Hernia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'tuberosity' refer to?

    <p>A large, rounded process at the junction of neck and shaft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the position of being on one side with the top leg over the bottom?

    <p>Sims’ position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical term refers to a small, smooth-surfaced process for articulation?

    <p>Facet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the condition characterized by the abnormal alignment of the kidneys within the body?

    <p>Ectopic Kidneys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is most commonly associated with kidney stones?

    <p>Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the disease where gastric contents flow back into the esophagus?

    <p>Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tumor is most prevalent in infancy and early childhood?

    <p>Wilm's Tumor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary condition that may lead to dysphagia and halitosis?

    <p>Zenker’s Diverticulum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is an abnormal backflow of urine into the ureter?

    <p>Vesicoureteral Reflux (VUR)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What results from portal hypertension and may lead to life-threatening complications?

    <p>Esophageal Varices</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition involves an outpouching of the ureter and may lead to infections?

    <p>Ureteral Diverticula</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What disease can be a result of a bacterial infection and also arise from various dietary factors?

    <p>Peptic Ulcer Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to a calcified valve found within veins surrounding the urinary bladder?

    <p>Phleboliths</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is commonly referred to as 'rickets' and is characterized by the softening of bones?

    <p>Osteomalacia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment method is NOT one of the primary methods for treating malignancies?

    <p>Radiation therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary symptom of Osgood-Schlatter disease?

    <p>Inflammation of the tibial tuberosity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of Osteomyelitis?

    <p>Bacterial infection leading to bone destruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

    <p>A rare congenital bone disorder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of benign neoplasms?

    <p>They are self-limited and do not metastasize.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cancer originates from epithelial tissues?

    <p>Carcinoma/Adenocarcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is caused by the loss of blood supply to an organ?

    <p>Infarct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common result of ischemia in tissues?

    <p>Possible tissue infarction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which neoplasm is characterized by highly malignant soft tissue growths?

    <p>Sarcoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary characteristic of malignant neoplasms?

    <p>Ability to metastasize.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cancer primarily affects the production of lymphocytes?

    <p>Lymphoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does collateral circulation represent?

    <p>The body's mechanism to enhance blood flow.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the condition commonly referred to as 'brittle bone disease'?

    <p>Osteogenesis Imperfecta</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What joint condition is characterized by morning stiffness and pain, affecting women three times more often than men?

    <p>Rheumatoid Arthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is identified by the formation of excessively hard and dense bones known as 'marble bone disease'?

    <p>Osteopetrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of arthritis is primarily linked to metabolic issues, specifically an increase in uric acid production?

    <p>Gout</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the condition known as 'bamboo spine'?

    <p>Fusion of SI joints and vertebral bodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition involves the secondary subluxation of a vertebral body causing canal narrowing?

    <p>Spondylolisthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an example of a benign, radiolucent lesion filled with fluid commonly referred to as?

    <p>Bone cysts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of arthritis is the most common degenerative condition leading to the natural loss of joint cartilage?

    <p>Osteoarthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic of an abscess?

    <p>It involves a buildup of pus in a wall-off structure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term best describes a congenital defect where there is no organ formation?

    <p>Atresia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the meaning of the term 'idiopathic' in the context of pathology?

    <p>The disease has no identifiable cause.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What differentiates a sign from a symptom in pathology?

    <p>Sign is a physical observation; symptom is subjective.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes ischemia?

    <p>Inadequate blood supply to an organ or tissue.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of a hematoma?

    <p>Pooling of blood outside the circulatory system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by an abnormal accumulation of fluid in body cavities?

    <p>Ascites</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines the process of hyperemia?

    <p>Dilation of capillaries allowing increased blood flow.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does edema represent in a pathological context?

    <p>An abnormal fluid accumulation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of phagocytosis in the inflammatory response?

    <p>It removes cellular debris and pathogens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main focus of beneficence in healthcare?

    <p>To promote good actions and prevent harm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a requirement for valid patient consent?

    <p>The patient must be of sound mind and legal age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the ethical principle of sanctity of life emphasize?

    <p>The highest regard for human life</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of contract requires express written or verbal consent?

    <p>Express contract</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the principle of non-maleficence primarily concerned with?

    <p>Avoiding intentional harm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which stage in Maslow's hierarchy addresses the need for friendship and intimacy?

    <p>Love and belonging</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for a formal contract to be valid?

    <p>It must comply with specific legal formalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ethical principle refers to the honesty of a person in their conduct?

    <p>Veracity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of patient rights, what does confidentiality protect?

    <p>The patient’s medical history and personal information</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'autonomy' in ethical principles refer to?

    <p>The right of individuals to make their own decisions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the goal of the ethical principle of justice?

    <p>To ensure fair treatment and equal rights for individuals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes an informal contract from other types of contracts?

    <p>It does not require special formalities under the law</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which principle asserts that one must respect the rights and decisions of others?

    <p>Respect for others</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes advance directives related to end-of-life issues?

    <p>They provide information on patient desires when they cannot communicate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What protein is insufficiently produced in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta?

    <p>Type I collagen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by bones that become overly dense and hard?

    <p>Osteopetrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is commonly associated with the inflammation of synovial membranes in joints?

    <p>Rheumatoid arthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the condition involving the chronic fusion of the sacroiliac joints and spine?

    <p>Ankylosing spondylitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition primarily manifests in the great toe due to increased uric acid levels?

    <p>Gout</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes osteoarthritis as a degenerative joint disease?

    <p>Loss of joint cartilage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is best described by bone islands?

    <p>Osteopoikilosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of rheumatoid arthritis?

    <p>Morning stiffness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary defect in the Tetralogy of Fallot that restricts blood flow to the pulmonary arteries?

    <p>Pulmonary stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of intracranial hemorrhage involves bleeding into the cerebrospinal fluid spaces surrounding the brain?

    <p>Subarachnoid bleeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which abnormality in Tetralogy of Fallot results from the heart's left ventricle directing blood to the right ventricle instead of the aorta?

    <p>Ventricular septal defect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition may arise due to excessive cerebrospinal fluid accumulation in the ventricles?

    <p>Hydrocephalus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of intracranial bleeding is often associated with trauma and occurs between the dura mater and the skull?

    <p>Epidural hematoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition describes the loss of blood within the cerebrum due to a ruptured artery or vein?

    <p>Intracerebral hemorrhage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defect results in the heart having to work harder due to narrowed pathways in Tetralogy of Fallot?

    <p>Right ventricular hypertrophy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common etiology for extracebral bleeding?

    <p>Trauma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes mechanical bowel obstruction?

    <p>Structural abnormalities in the intestines.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes diverticulitis?

    <p>Entrapment of feces causing infection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of neoplasm originates in glandular tissue?

    <p>Adenocarcinoma.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of bowel adhesions?

    <p>Chronic abdominal pain.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition may result from a volvulus in the intestines?

    <p>Paralytic bowel obstruction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of Crohn's disease?

    <p>Abdominal cramping.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following defines a hernia?

    <p>Weakness in the abdominal wall allowing organ protrusion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary risk associated with hepatic cysts?

    <p>They are usually asymptomatic.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common predisposing factor for appendicitis?

    <p>Presence of appendicolith.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What usually causes bezoars in the digestive tract?

    <p>Entangled material that cannot be digested.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical manifestation of Paget's disease?

    <p>Bone deformity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes osteochondroma?

    <p>A primary benign bone lesion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of lung disease is characterized by chronic obstruction of airflow?

    <p>Chronic bronchitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is commonly caused by inhalation of a foreign object leading to pneumonia?

    <p>Aspiration pneumonia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes multiple myeloma from other bone tumors?

    <p>Presence of Bence-Jones proteins in urine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does pneumothorax affect lung function?

    <p>Results in collapsed lung</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following cancers is often secondary to other primary malignancies?

    <p>Secondary bone cancer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of COPD?

    <p>Destruction of alveolar walls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of imaging appearance is associated with multiple myeloma?

    <p>Osteolytic lesions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary risk factor for developing emphysema?

    <p>Smoking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an osteolytic lesion commonly associated with?

    <p>Multiple myeloma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition results from inhaling dust or fibers, causing pulmonary fibrosis?

    <p>Silicosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of bone tumor is typically benign and associated with a cartilaginous cap?

    <p>Enchondroma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can occur from chronic pulmonary conditions?

    <p>Pleural effusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of infection is characterized by its unknown cause?

    <p>Idiopathic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical range for adult pulse rate?

    <p>60-100 bpm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which practice primarily helps reduce the likelihood of infection transmission in healthcare settings?

    <p>Medical Asepsis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?

    <p>Antiseptics are used on living tissue, while disinfectants are for non-living surfaces.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What temperature range is considered normal for adult body temperatures?

    <p>97.7F to 99.9F</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which classification of infection stems from contact with a healthcare facility?

    <p>Nosocomial</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the process of eliminating all microorganisms?

    <p>Surgical Asepsis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common feature of acute infections?

    <p>They resolve quickly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment method that involves the use of drugs to combat cancer?

    <p>Chemotherapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by softening of bones due to insufficient mineralization?

    <p>Osteomalacia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication is often associated with a bacterial infection in the bone?

    <p>Sequestrum formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the abnormal proliferation of immature blood cells?

    <p>Acute myeloid leukemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common name for the condition known as osteomalacia, particularly in children?

    <p>Rickets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct definition of supination?

    <p>Rotation of the forearm so that the palm is up</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to movement away from the head of the body?

    <p>Caudad</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the term 'anterior' best described in anatomical terms?

    <p>Forward or front part of the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What position is referred to as supine?

    <p>Lying face up</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which movement is characterized as circumduction?

    <p>Circular movement of a limb</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the anatomical term for the top surface of the foot?

    <p>Dorsum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In anatomical terms, what describes the position of malleolus?

    <p>Club-shaped process</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term best describes a vertical axis in anatomical references?

    <p>Longitudinal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary condition associated with cholelithiasis?

    <p>Biliary obstruction due to gallstones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fracture is characterized by a twisting apart of the bone?

    <p>Spiral fracture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes a greenstick fracture from other types?

    <p>Bending without breaking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of fracture involves the head of the 4th or 5th metacarpal?

    <p>Boxer's fracture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic of splenomegaly?

    <p>Enlargement of the spleen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of fracture is referred to as a torus fracture?

    <p>Buckle fracture in children</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of fracture is associated with hyperextension and affects the cervical region?

    <p>Hangman fracture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition involves derangement of the spine characterized by an abnormal posterior curvature?

    <p>Kyphosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of fracture specifically refers to a break in the shaft of the 5th metatarsal?

    <p>Jones fracture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a Hangman's fracture involve?

    <p>Fracture of the C2 vertebra arch</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during the actual disease period?

    <p>Signs and symptoms reach their fullest extent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which information is essential to include in a radiographic image?

    <p>Date of the examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does osmolality refer to in the context of contrast agents?

    <p>Total number of dissolved particles in solution</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is classified as a vasodilator?

    <p>Nitroglycerin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can occur if a patient has been NPO since midnight?

    <p>Syncope (fainting)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'viscosity' relate to in contrast agents?

    <p>Thickness or concentration of the agent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which stage does the recovery phase take place after an illness?

    <p>Period of convalescence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the bevel of a syringe face when performing intravenous injections?

    <p>It should face up</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an essential information in a radiographic image?

    <p>History of previous illnesses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these terms refers to an obligation to answer for an act done?

    <p>Responsibility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What principle should guide healthcare professionals to avoid causing harm intentionally?

    <p>Non-maleficence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ethical principle highlights the idea that life is the highest good?

    <p>Sanctity of life</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key requirement for valid patient consent?

    <p>The patient must be of sound mind and legal age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In healthcare ethics, what does confidentiality protect?

    <p>The patient's treatment records and personal information</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a formal contract?

    <p>A contract that must comply with specific legal formalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the ethical principle of beneficence?

    <p>To promote the good and beneficial actions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of contract does not require formalities and is created through actions?

    <p>Implied contract</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which level comes immediately after safety needs?

    <p>Love and belonging</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the principle of autonomy focus on in healthcare?

    <p>The right of individuals to make their own decisions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines the ethical principle of fidelity?

    <p>Continuous loyalty and support to a person or cause</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an advance directive in healthcare?

    <p>A legal document outlining a patient's wishes for medical treatment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a requisite for a valid contract?

    <p>The contract must be verbal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary focus of the principle of justice in healthcare?

    <p>To guarantee equal rights and fairness for all</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes maleficence?

    <p>To intentionally cause harm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of microorganism is characterized as a one-celled organism without a typical nucleus?

    <p>Bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which form of fungi is known to reproduce by budding?

    <p>Yeast</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What method do protozoa primarily use for movement?

    <p>Cilia and flagella</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are antigens responsible for in the body?

    <p>Inducing the body to produce antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes vectors in the context of disease transmission?

    <p>Insects or animals that carry diseases through contact</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of tumor makes up about 30% of all primary brain neoplasms?

    <p>Astrocytoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by the congenital absence of a kidney?

    <p>Kidney agenesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the implication of a meningocele in spina bifida?

    <p>Only meninges herniation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition involves the presence of multiple cysts within the kidneys?

    <p>Polycystic kidney disease (PKD)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

    <p>Infarction due to ischemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the situation where the lower poles of both kidneys fuse?

    <p>Horseshoe kidneys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of renal condition may originate from a blood infection?

    <p>Renal abscess</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of spina bifida involving both meninges and spinal cord?

    <p>Myelomeningocele</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does kidney hypoplasia refer to?

    <p>Diminished growth of a kidney</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary feature of a pituitary adenoma?

    <p>Usually benign and slow-growing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of a Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care (DPAHC)?

    <p>To appoint someone other than the physician to make health care decisions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which phase of grief does a person begin to mourn for their past life?

    <p>Depression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most accurate method to measure body temperature?

    <p>Rectal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the systolic blood pressure measure?

    <p>The wave of blood created by the heart's contraction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is recommended for the safe movement of heavy objects?

    <p>Balance the weight over your feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What phase of grief might involve making deals or promises to reverse the loss?

    <p>Bargaining</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pulse site is typically considered the primary site for monitoring during CPR in adults and children?

    <p>Carotid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the hypothalamus in body temperature regulation?

    <p>To control the balance of heat production and loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which best describes the action taken when assisting a patient to transfer towards their stronger side?

    <p>Move the patient towards their strong side</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered the fifth vital sign in patient assessment?

    <p>Pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a hallmark radiographic appearance of multiple myeloma?

    <p>Punched-out osteolytic lesions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Osteosarcoma commonly metastasizes to which organ?

    <p>Lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by a pattern of bone destruction followed by excessive bone growth?

    <p>Paget's Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom associated with Paget's Disease?

    <p>Bone deformity and pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of lung condition is bronchiectasis?

    <p>Irreversible dilation of bronchi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pneumothorax can lead to which of the following?

    <p>Collapsed lung</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines an osteochondroma?

    <p>A cartilaginous cap on a benign bone outgrowth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lung condition is a complication of pneumonia characterized by a necrotic area of lung tissue?

    <p>Lung abscess</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition would you typically expect to find Bence-Jones proteins?

    <p>Multiple myeloma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic appearance is associated with fibrosarcoma on radiographic imaging?

    <p>Moth-eaten appearance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lung condition involves inhaling foreign materials leading to inflammation?

    <p>Aspiration pneumonia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of lung cancer is most commonly associated with smoking?

    <p>Small cell lung cancer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by excessive fluid accumulation in the pleural space?

    <p>Pleural effusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition results from chronic exposure to particulate matter in the workplace?

    <p>Pneumoconiosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the principle of non-maleficence emphasize in healthcare?

    <p>Avoiding actions that intentionally cause harm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a requirement for valid patient consent?

    <p>The patient must be of sound mind and legal age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which principle relates to the responsibility of maintaining patient privacy?

    <p>Confidentiality</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the highest level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

    <p>Self-actualization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What key feature differentiates a formal contract from an informal contract?

    <p>Formal contracts require special legal formalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ethical principle advocates for the fairness and equality of treatment?

    <p>Justice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the ethical principle of fidelity emphasize?

    <p>Loyalty and commitment to patients</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes implied contracts?

    <p>Contracts inferred from the conduct of the parties</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a required element for forming a valid contract?

    <p>Consent must be signed in front of witnesses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the principle of veracity focus on in a healthcare setting?

    <p>Providing truthful information to patients</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which scenario would a designated surrogate be necessary in healthcare?

    <p>When the patient is legally incompetent or unable to make decisions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What principle asserts that all actions should be aimed at producing good results?

    <p>Beneficence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions would likely breach a contract?

    <p>Failing to deliver services as promised</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At which vertebral level can the lower costal margin be found?

    <p>L3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical process is rounded and located at an articular extremity?

    <p>Condyle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the position where the head and torso are lower than the heart?

    <p>Trendelenburg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical term refers to a large, rounded, elevated process located at the junction of the neck and shaft of the femur?

    <p>Trochanter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which position involves lying on the side with the top leg resting over the bottom leg?

    <p>Sims'</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by the proliferation of foreign cells forming a mass in an organ?

    <p>Neoplasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What anatomical structure is described as a cleft or deep groove?

    <p>Fissure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of neoplasm is known for having the ability to spread to distant sites in the body?

    <p>Malignant Neoplasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is identified as an indentation into the border of a bone?

    <p>Notch</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the position where the patient is lying flat on their back with knees bent and feet flat on the examination table?

    <p>Dorsal recumbent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the loss of blood supply to an organ, resulting in tissue damage?

    <p>Infarct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common outcome of collateral circulation in response to ischemia?

    <p>Restoration of blood flow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term describes a recess or cavity in a bone?

    <p>Sinus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following cancers arises primarily from blood-forming tissues?

    <p>Leukemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is defined as a small, smooth-surfaced process for articulation?

    <p>Facet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cancer originates from epithelial tissues, such as in the breast or colon?

    <p>Adenocarcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition causes a reduction in bone mass, making bones more susceptible to fractures?

    <p>Osteoporosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cancer type is highly malignant and affects soft tissue or connective tissue?

    <p>Sarcoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common benign tumor of the liver?

    <p>Hepatic hemangioma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which imaging modality is the method of choice for diagnosing hepatic hemangioma?

    <p>MRI</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by the prolapse of a section of bowel due to constriction by peristalsis?

    <p>Intussusception</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a bezoar?

    <p>A hard mass of undigested material in the digestive tract</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following cancers is least likely to spread to the liver?

    <p>Lung cancer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes mechanical bowel obstruction?

    <p>Caused by a structural abnormality like a tumor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic finding in a hepatocellular carcinoma diagnosis?

    <p>Presence of pools of blood within the liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of diverticulitis?

    <p>Infection and bleeding of diverticula</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is associated with the formation of fistulas?

    <p>Diverticulitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes a Colle’s fracture?

    <p>Fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of hernia occurs when the inguinal ring is compromised?

    <p>Inguinal hernia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary feature of liver metastasis?

    <p>Liver is a common site for many types of cancer to metastasize</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can occur due to the presence of intussusception?

    <p>Bowel obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can arise from bowel adhesions?

    <p>Volvulus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hepatic cysts are typically characterized as:

    <p>Benign, thin-walled sacs that may be fluid-filled</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of obstruction occurs due to the twisting of the bowel?

    <p>Volvulus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is often caused by fecal matter within the appendix?

    <p>Appendicitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes Crohn's disease?

    <p>Chronic inflammation of the bowel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What phase of grief involves a patient potentially feeling that if they behave in a certain way, they may be spared from death?

    <p>Bargaining</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of advance directive allows a person to appoint another individual to make healthcare decisions on their behalf?

    <p>Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is recommended for moving heavy objects safely?

    <p>Balance weight over your feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most accurate method of measuring body temperature?

    <p>Rectal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term describes the wave of blood created by the contraction of the left ventricle of the heart?

    <p>Pulse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pulse site is considered the most accessible for routine checks?

    <p>Radial</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered the fifth vital sign in healthcare assessments?

    <p>Pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method of transferring patients is recommended for those with spinal injuries?

    <p>Logrolling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pulse site is primarily used during CPR for adults and children?

    <p>Carotid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological mechanism regulates body temperature?

    <p>Hypothalamus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term describes the movement of a part away from the central axis of the body?

    <p>Abduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to parts that are nearer to the feet or situated below?

    <p>Inferior</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does hyperextension refer to in terms of joint movement?

    <p>Forced or excessive extension of a limb or joints</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the inward turning of the foot at the ankle?

    <p>Inversion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the opposite of flexion in joint movement terminology?

    <p>Extension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary way an infectious organism can remain transmissible in a specific area?

    <p>Reservoir</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does passive immunity differ from active immunity?

    <p>It is acquired by injection of antibodies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method of transmission involves direct contact with inanimate objects?

    <p>Fomites</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of autoimmune diseases?

    <p>Antibodies function as antigens and cause diseases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines the latent period in the infection process?

    <p>Pathogen lies dormant in the body.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common benign tumor of the liver?

    <p>Hemangioma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which imaging modality is preferred for diagnosing hepatic hemangioma?

    <p>MRI</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by a section of bowel constricted by peristalsis?

    <p>Intussusception</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cancers are commonly associated with liver metastasis?

    <p>Colorectal cancer and Ovarian cancer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the defining characteristic of hepatocellular carcinoma?

    <p>It is a primary liver cancer known as hepatoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of fracture is characterized by shattered or crushed bones?

    <p>Comminuted fracture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of fracture occurs with an open skin wound?

    <p>Compound fracture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of adult bowel obstruction cases is caused by intussusception?

    <p>1%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical feature is located at the C7 vertebra level?

    <p>Vertebra prominens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines a tuberosity in anatomical terms?

    <p>A large, rounded, and elevated process located at the junction of neck and shaft of femur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the position of a patient lying on their stomach with knees straight?

    <p>Prone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following anatomical processes is likely to be fracture-prone?

    <p>Epicondyle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What anatomical depression is described as a deep groove or cleft?

    <p>Fissure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In anatomical terminology, a 'sulcus' refers to what?

    <p>A shallow groove or furrow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the 'xiphoid process'?

    <p>It marks the tip located at T10</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which position requires elevation of the head and torso by 15° to 90°?

    <p>Fowler's</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What anatomical term refers to a beak-like process?

    <p>Coronoid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'stenosis' refer to in anatomical terms?

    <p>Narrowing of a passage or vessel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary emotion experienced in the denial phase of grieving?

    <p>Rejection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a durable power of attorney for health care?

    <p>A document appointing an agent for healthcare decisions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In moving heavy objects, what is recommended for maintaining stability?

    <p>Pulling rather than pushing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which thermometer method is considered the most accurate for measuring body temperature?

    <p>Rectal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the medulla oblongata in pulse rate regulation?

    <p>It controls heart rate through neural signals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When transferring a patient with a urinary catheter, what should be done with the urine collection bag?

    <p>Keep it below the level of the patient's bladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered the fifth vital sign in patient assessment?

    <p>Pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic is typical for patients in the depression phase of Kubler-Ross's model?

    <p>Exhibiting acceptant and quiet behavior</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pulse location is recognized as the primary site for measuring adults and children's heart rates during CPR?

    <p>Carotid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common guideline for logrolling patients with spinal injuries?

    <p>Maintain alignment of the spine during the maneuver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of infection specifically originates during a hospital stay?

    <p>Nosocomial</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes the practice of avoiding contamination in a clinical setting?

    <p>Medical Asepsis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal temperature range for adults?

    <p>97.7F to 99.9F</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is primarily used to halt the growth of microorganisms?

    <p>Antiseptics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical pulse rate for children aged 4 to 10 years old?

    <p>90-100 bpm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes community-acquired infections?

    <p>Infections contracted from the community before hospital admission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is characteristic of acute infections?

    <p>Short-term duration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cleaning agent is commonly used for disinfection?

    <p>Hypochlorite bleach</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a neoplasm?

    <p>An abnormal proliferation of cells forming a mass or tumor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term best describes the cancer that arises from cells of connective tissue?

    <p>Sarcoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes benign neoplasm from malignant neoplasm?

    <p>Benign neoplasm does not spread or metastasize</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by the obstruction of blood flow leading to tissue death?

    <p>Infarct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of collateral circulation?

    <p>To facilitate improved blood flow during ischemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cancer affects the production of white blood cells?

    <p>Lymphoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common cause of myocardial infarction?

    <p>Thrombic occlusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is characterized by a reduction in bone mass, making individuals more susceptible to fractures?

    <p>Osteoporosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an abscess characterized as?

    <p>An inflammatory reaction with a ball of pus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the body?

    <p>Edema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines ischemia in a medical context?

    <p>Inadequate blood supply to a tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which syndrome is characterized by a group of signs and symptoms associated with a specific disturbance?

    <p>Syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'iatrogenic' refer to in medical terminology?

    <p>An injury resulting from surgical intervention</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary definition of 'pathogenesis'?

    <p>Study of the process of how a disease evolves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable symptom of achalasia?

    <p>Abnormal contraction of the esophagus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about carcinoma is correct?

    <p>It is a mass or tumor indicating cancer.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'atrophy' refer to?

    <p>Shrinkage or decrease in size</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes a fistula?

    <p>An abnormal communication between two organs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common benign tumor of the liver?

    <p>Hepatic hemangioma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What modality is preferred for imaging hepatocellular carcinoma?

    <p>MRI</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cancer is NOT commonly associated with liver metastasis?

    <p>Prostate cancer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition describes the bowel being constricted and causing it to prolapse?

    <p>Intussusception</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of fracture is characterized by shattered or crushed bones?

    <p>Comminuted fracture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A compound fracture is defined as which of the following?

    <p>Fracture with an open skin wound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common symptom is associated with liver metastases?

    <p>Abdominal symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary imaging modality needed for evaluating hepatic hemangioma?

    <p>MRI</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common congenital anomaly of the urinary system?

    <p>Ectopic kidneys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common indication for performing an intravenous pyelogram (IVP)?

    <p>Renal calculi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can lead to dysphagia and halitosis in patients?

    <p>Zenker’s diverticulum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by an abnormal flow of urine from the bladder back into the ureter?

    <p>Vesicoureteral reflux</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common abdominal neoplasm of infancy and early childhood?

    <p>Wilms’ tumor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can be a result of portal hypertension and may rupture?

    <p>Esophageal varices</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is commonly associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

    <p>Hiatal hernia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can be a source of future urinary tract infections or trap kidney stones?

    <p>Ureteral diverticula</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is most commonly mistaken for kidney stones due to its calcified nature?

    <p>Phleboliths</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition describes the presence of ulcers in the stomach and duodenum?

    <p>Peptic ulcer disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for moving a body part away from the central axis?

    <p>Abduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the downward rotation of the forearm so that the palm faces down?

    <p>Pronation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct definition of hyperextension?

    <p>Excessive straightening of a joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to parts that are nearer to the trunk of the body?

    <p>Proximal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the meaning of eversion in terms of foot movement?

    <p>Outward turning of the foot</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of infection is primarily acquired through exposure in a healthcare setting?

    <p>Nosocomial</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an example of a practice that falls under medical asepsis?

    <p>Handwashing technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What temperature range is considered normal for adults?

    <p>97.7F to 99.9F</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of an acute infection?

    <p>Short-term presence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following methods is primarily used to stop the growth of microorganisms?

    <p>Antiseptics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In terms of respiratory rate, what is the normal range for adults?

    <p>12-20 breaths/min</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key difference between surgical asepsis and medical asepsis?

    <p>Surgical asepsis eliminates microorganisms; medical asepsis reduces them</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical pulse rate range for children aged 4 to 10 years?

    <p>60-100 bpm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of tumor accounts for approximately 30% of all primary brain neoplasms?

    <p>Astrocytoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition results from a congenital absence of a kidney?

    <p>Kidney agenesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term describes a condition where part of the spinal cord and meninges herniate?

    <p>Myelomeningocele</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

    <p>Blood vessel rupture or blockage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of neoplasm is known to originate from arachnoid tissue?

    <p>Meningioma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of horseshoe kidneys?

    <p>Fusion of the lower poles of both kidneys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by multiple cysts forming within the kidneys?

    <p>Polycystic kidney disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can arise from sepsis or bacterial infection in the urinary system?

    <p>Renal abscess</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition indicates a narrowing of the spinal canal?

    <p>Spinal stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does hypoplasia refer to in the context of kidneys?

    <p>Diminished growth of a kidney</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible complication of chronic gastrointestinal issues related to the development of bowel problems?

    <p>Bowel obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of peptic ulcers?

    <p>Located in the duodenum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hernia specifically involves the inguinal ring?

    <p>Inguinal hernia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by hard masses of entangled material within the digestive tract?

    <p>Bezoar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of diverticulitis?

    <p>Infection of diverticula with bleeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines a mechanical bowel obstruction?

    <p>Results from structural abnormalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which syndrome is associated with chronic inflammation of the bowel, potentially leading to bowel obstruction?

    <p>Crohn's disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a hepatic cyst?

    <p>A benign, thin-walled sac in or on the liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can bowel adhesions lead to complications?

    <p>May cause infertility and twisting of the bowel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What results from the reduction in peristaltic action of the intestines?

    <p>Adynamic or parlytic bowel obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the ethical principle of non-maleficence emphasize?

    <p>Promoting good action and preventing harm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which element is NOT a requisite of a contract?

    <p>Contract must be written down</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of patient consent?

    <p>To ensure patients are involved in their own healthcare decisions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the double effect principle?

    <p>Some actions may produce both good and bad effects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which stage of Maslow's hierarchy is the focus on friendship and intimacy?

    <p>Love and belonging</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What establishes the legal capacity for parties entering a contract?

    <p>Being of legal age or having a guardian</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ethical principle emphasizes respect for individual decision-making?

    <p>Autonomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary focus of the ethical principle of beneficence?

    <p>Promoting good actions and preventing harm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes an implied contract?

    <p>Consent inferred from actions or conduct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect is NOT a component of valid patient consent?

    <p>Patient must feel pressured</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ethical principle insists on honesty towards others?

    <p>Veracity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be true for a contract to be breached?

    <p>A party must violate the terms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the principle of justice mainly concerned with?

    <p>Equal rights and fairness for individuals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the highest level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

    <p>Self-actualization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is osteomalacia commonly characterized by?

    <p>Insufficient mineralization of bones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment method is NOT one of the three primary methods for treating malignancies?

    <p>Physical therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by inflammation at the tibial tuberosity, commonly affecting young athletes?

    <p>Osgood-Schlatter disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition involves a bacterial infection of the bone leading to abscess formation?

    <p>Osteomyelitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term describes the obstruction of normal blood flow leading to tissue hyperplasia?

    <p>Hyoergenesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The condition characterized by softening of bones due to insufficient mineralization is also known as what?

    <p>Rickets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of neoplasm arises from connective tissues such as muscle or fat?

    <p>Sarcoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of benign neoplasms?

    <p>They do not metastasize.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cancer type is characterized by the uncontrolled growth of lymphocytes?

    <p>Lymphoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition results from a loss of blood supply to an organ?

    <p>Infarct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of collateral circulation?

    <p>To provide a natural defense against ischemia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cancer is known for its ability to spread to distant sites in the body?

    <p>Malignant Neoplasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of an abscess?

    <p>Ball of pus resulting from inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the condition characterized by a reduction in bone mass, increasing fracture risk?

    <p>Osteoporosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes a congenital defect characterized by the absence of an organ?

    <p>Atresia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'iatrogenic' refer to?

    <p>Disease caused by medical intervention</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of hyperemia during an inflammatory response?

    <p>To allow fluids and white blood cells into the area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of pathology, what does 'pathogenesis' involve?

    <p>Study of the nature and development of diseases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by a bulge or balloon-like appearance of a blood vessel?

    <p>Aneurysm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does 'aplasia' refer to in pathological terms?

    <p>Inability of an organ to develop</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is considered a type of mechanical obstruction?

    <p>Volvulus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes the term 'leucocytes' in the context of inflammation?

    <p>White blood cells involved in immune response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does 'dysphagia' refer to?

    <p>Difficulty in swallowing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the incubation period in the context of infectious diseases?

    <p>The duration when microbes reproduce and disease process begins.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for every radiographic image according to standard procedures?

    <p>The date of examination and side marker.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes osmolality in the context of contrast agents?

    <p>The total number of dissolved particles in solution per kg of water.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the period of convalescence characterized by?

    <p>A phase where symptoms begin to diminish.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is classified as a chronodilator?

    <p>Epinephrine (Adrenalin)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important for a patient to be NPO since midnight before certain procedures?

    <p>To prevent the possibility of syncope (fainting) during the procedure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does viscosity refer to in the context of contrast agents?

    <p>The thickness or concentration of the contrast medium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What responsibilities do radiologic technologists have regarding patient care?

    <p>They must answer for their actions and provide safe care to patients.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is toxicity related to in contrast media?

    <p>The potential harm caused to the patient.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the bevel face up during injections?

    <p>During IV injections.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition involves the twisting of the bowel that can lead to obstruction?

    <p>Volvulus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common complication associated with peptic ulcers?

    <p>Bowel obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by chronic inflammation of the bowel?

    <p>Regional enteritis / Crohn's disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of mass is a bezoar?

    <p>Hard mass of undigested material</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hernia occurs when a portion of the bowel protrudes through the inguinal ring?

    <p>Inguinal hernia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of an obstruction caused by bowel adhesions after surgery?

    <p>Volvulus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is caused by the entrapment of feces within a diverticulum?

    <p>Diverticulitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What benign structure may be found within the liver as a thin-walled sac?

    <p>Hepatic cyst</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of bowel obstruction is caused by a mechanical issue due to a structural abnormality?

    <p>Mechanical obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of appendicitis?

    <p>Presence of appendicolith within the appendix</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'abduction' refer to in body movement terminologies?

    <p>Movement of a part away from the central axis of the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the bending of a joint?

    <p>Flexion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does 'medial' refer to in anatomical terms?

    <p>Parts toward the central plane of the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which movement is described as 'inversion'?

    <p>Turning the foot inward at the ankle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term indicates movement away from the center of the body?

    <p>Abduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What classification defines an infection acquired while in a healthcare facility?

    <p>Nosocomial</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of infection is characterized by being of unknown cause?

    <p>Idiopathic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is classified as a hypertensive reading?

    <p>Systolic pressure above 140 mmHG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pressure reading indicates hypotension?

    <p>Systolic pressure below 90 mmHG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of surgical asepsis?

    <p>To eliminate all microorganisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common practice in medical asepsis?

    <p>Handwashing technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which instruments are primarily used to measure blood pressure?

    <p>Stethoscope and Sphygmomanometer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What controls the respiration rate in the human body?

    <p>Medulla Oblongata</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cleaning method involves the destruction of pathogens through chemical materials?

    <p>Disinfection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal respiratory rate range for adults?

    <p>12-20 breaths/min</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the diastolic blood pressure reading represent?

    <p>Pressure during heart relaxation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to the state of soiling or making an object inferior through contact or mixture?

    <p>Contamination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal pulse rate range for adults?

    <p>60-100 bpm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of a peptic ulcer?

    <p>They are more common in the duodenum than in the stomach.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can cause a bowel obstruction due to mechanical factors?

    <p>Tumors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition involves the infection of diverticula and potential bleeding?

    <p>Diverticulitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common outcome of bowel adhesions following abdominal surgery?

    <p>Abdominal pain and potential bowel obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines a bezoar within the digestive system?

    <p>A hard mass of undigested material</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hernia is characterized by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing intestines to protrude?

    <p>Inguinal hernia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can arise from a volvulus?

    <p>Twisting of the bowel leading to obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of mechanical bowel obstruction?

    <p>Reduced blood flow to the affected area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What medical condition may develop from chronic inflammation in the bowel?

    <p>Crohn's disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hepatic cysts are often discovered through which method?

    <p>Ultrasound scans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does an increase in BUN levels indicate?

    <p>Decreased renal function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements best defines malpractice?

    <p>Improper care that leads to patient harm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which element is NOT required to establish negligence?

    <p>Settlement of a lawsuit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'informed consent' primarily refer to?

    <p>The provision of information to make a decision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is generally considered a first-degree murder?

    <p>Illegally killing another with premeditation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of patient care, what does the term 'assault' mean?

    <p>Imminent threat of bodily contact without consent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What kind of law does the Good Samaritan Act pertain to?

    <p>Tort law</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is defined as an act or omission that leads to harm in professional practice?

    <p>Malpractice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is true regarding 'mala in se' acts?

    <p>They are wrong due to their nature.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In legal terminology, what does the term 'plaintiff' refer to?

    <p>Person bringing the lawsuit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes 'due process'?

    <p>Key legal procedures to protect individual rights</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does 'tort' refer to in legal terms?

    <p>A legal wrong causing harm or injury</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which legal document requires a person to attend court?

    <p>Subpoena</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does 'holographic will' refer to?

    <p>A hand-written will by the testator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal range for diastolic blood pressure?

    <p>60 to 90 mmHG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which instrument is primarily used to measure blood pressure?

    <p>Sphygmomanometer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is indicated by a systolic blood pressure reading above 140 mmHG?

    <p>Hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the blood pressure when body metabolic activity increases?

    <p>It increases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the body primarily controls respiration rate?

    <p>Medulla Oblongata</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary way in which pathogens are transmitted through indirect contact?

    <p>By transfer of microbes through inanimate objects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the process of active immunity in relation to vaccinations?

    <p>Immunization is achieved through vaccination with weakened or dead strains of pathogens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definition of passive immunity?

    <p>Immunity acquired through injection of antibodies against a specific infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true about autoimmune diseases?

    <p>Antibodies mistakenly target the body's own tissues as antigens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the latent period in the context of infection?

    <p>The phase when a pathogen remains dormant before manifesting symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition involves a narrowing of the pulmonary valve, restricting blood flow to the pulmonary arteries?

    <p>Pulmonary Stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hemorrhage involves bleeding outside the brain but within the skull?

    <p>Extracerebral hemorrhage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of hydrocephalus characterized by excess cerebrospinal fluid in the brain?

    <p>Increased intracranial pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which defect in Tetralogy of Fallot allows oxygenated blood to flow from the left ventricle to the right ventricle?

    <p>Ventricular septal defect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of infection is defined as occurring while a person is in a healthcare facility?

    <p>Nosocomial</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of intracranial bleeding is often caused by trauma to the temporal bone?

    <p>Epidural hematoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference between medical asepsis and surgical asepsis?

    <p>Medical asepsis focuses on cleanliness and disinfection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a consequence of right ventricular hypertrophy in Tetralogy of Fallot?

    <p>Enlargement of the right ventricle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antiseptic method is commonly used to stop the growth of microorganisms?

    <p>Application of hypochlorite bleach</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal adult respiration rate range in breaths per minute?

    <p>12 to 20 breaths/min</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

    <p>Bleeding into the ventricles of the brain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical feature is associated with the presentation of hydrocephalus?

    <p>Enlarged heads and intracranial pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does disinfection of medical instruments typically involve?

    <p>Chemical materials to destroy pathogens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to an infection that has no identifiable cause?

    <p>Idiopathic infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about acute infections is true?

    <p>They are typically short-term.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary focus of controlling infections in healthcare settings?

    <p>Avoiding transmission of organisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What congenital defect is characterized by the misplacement of a kidney within the body?

    <p>Ectopic Kidneys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is commonly indicated by the presence of a kidney stone?

    <p>Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What abnormality results in the backward flow of urine from the bladder to the ureter?

    <p>Vesicoureteral Reflux</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by a malignant tumor of the kidneys with potential metastasis?

    <p>Renal Cell Carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is associated with abnormal protrusion of the stomach into the thorax?

    <p>Hiatal Hernia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can present with a 'ratty' radiographic appearance on a Barium swallow?

    <p>Esophageal Cancer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common cause of dysphagia and halitosis related to esophageal conditions?

    <p>Zenker’s Diverticulum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is a congenital abdominal neoplasm of infancy?

    <p>Wilm’s Tumor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can ureteral diverticula potentially complicate urinary health?

    <p>They can cause kidney stones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a phlebolith, and where is it typically found?

    <p>A calcified valve in a vein near the bladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    End of Life Care

    • Living Will: A document detailing a person's wishes regarding future medical care.
    • Directive to Physician: Appoints a physician to act as a proxy on a prescribed form.
    • Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care (DPAHC): Appoints a person other than the physician to make healthcare decisions if the patient is unable to do so.

    Moving Heavy Objects

    • Avoid bending from the waist.
    • Pull rather than push.
    • When assisting a patient to move:
      • Balance the weight over your feet
      • Stand close to the patient
      • Use your arms and legs
    • Avoid twisting
    • Ensure the floor area is clear of obstacles.

    Patient Transfer

    • Always assist the patient to transfer towards their strong side.
    • When transferring from a table to a wheelchair:
      • Place the wheelchair close and parallel to the table.
    • For stroke patients:
      • Position yourself on the patient's weak side and the patient with their strong side adjacent to the bed.
    • For patients with a urinary catheter:
      • Hold the urine collection bag below the level of the patient's bladder.
    • Logrolling:
      • A method of transferring patients with spinal injury or metastatic disease

    Vital Signs

    • Temperature: Represents the physiological balance between heat produced in the body and heat lost to the environment.
      • Acute: Localized in a specific part of the body
      • Chronic: Long-term

    Temperature Measurement Methods

    • Tympanic: Used for ear temperature
    • Axillary: Safest method (36.4 to 36.7°C)
    • Rectal: Most accurate and reliable (37.5°C)
    • Oral: Most accessible (37°C)

    Pulse

    • Measurement of the heart rate, or the number of heart beats per minute.
    • Wave of blood created by contraction of the left ventricle of the heart.
    • Controlled by the Medulla Oblongata.

    Pulse Types

    • Central: Apical pulse
    • Peripheral: Radial, ulnar, temporal, carotid, brachial, dorsalis pedis, popliteal, femoral, posterior tibial

    Apical Pulse

    • Located at the midclavicular line, at the sternal notch.

    Radial/Ulnar Pulse

    • Located on the wrist, most accessible

    Temporal Pulse

    • Located laterally, second most accessible

    Carotid Pulse

    • Located on the carotid artery, primary site for adults and children during CPR.

    Brachial Pulse

    • Located medially in the antecubital space.

    Dorsalis Pedis Pulse

    • Located lateral to the extensor of the hallux longus.

    Popliteal Pulse

    • Located above the knee

    Femoral Pulse

    • Located in the groin, not commonly used for leg circulation.

    Posterior Tibial Pulse

    • Located behind the medial malleolus

    Blood Pressure

    • Systolic blood pressure: Measures the pressure exerted on the arterial walls during ventricular contraction.

    Microorganisms

    • Tiny organisms such as viruses, protozoa, or bacteria that can only be seen under a microscope.
    • Bacteria: One-celled organisms without a typical nucleus, contain DNA and RNA.
    • Fungi: Exist in two forms, yeast and molds.
      • Require moisture and are found in complete darkness.
      • Reproduce by budding or spore formation.
    • Protozoa: Often parasitic and able to move from place to place by pseudopod formation, flagella, or cilia.
    • Viruses: Known to produce disease in humans.

    Disease Transmission

    • Vehicle: Food, water, drugs, or blood contaminated with infectious microorganisms.
    • Vectors: Insects or animals carriers of disease by means of stinging or biting.
      • Examples: Malaria, deer tick, lyme disease.

    Body Defense Against Disease

    • Antigens: Foreign or unrecognizable organic substances that invade the body and induce it to produce antibodies.
    • Antibodies/Immunoglobulins: Protein substances produced by a particular WBC or, more specifically, B-cells.

    Anatomical Landmarks

    • Gonion (Axis): C2-C3 vertebrae
    • Thyroid cartilage (Adam’s apple): C5 vertebrae
    • Vertebra prominens: C7 vertebrae
    • T1: 2 inches superior to the sternal notch
    • Manubrial or suprasternal notch, superior margin of scapula: T2-T3 vertebrae
    • Sternal angle: T4-T5 vertebrae
    • Inferior angle of scapula: T7 vertebrae
    • Xiphoid process: T9-T10 vertebrae
    • Xiphoid tip: T10 vertebrae
    • Lower costal margin: L3 vertebrae
    • Level of umbilicus: L3-L4 vertebrae
    • Most superior aspect of iliac crest: L4 vertebrae
    • ASIS: S1 vertebrae
    • Pubic symphysis & greater trochanter: C vertebrae

    Anatomical Processes

    • Condyle: Rounded process at an articular extremity
    • Coracoid: Beak-like process
    • Coronoid: Crown-like process
    • Crest: Ridge-like process
    • Epicondyle: Projection above a condyle
    • Facet: Small, smooth-surfaced process for articulation
    • Trochanter: Large, rounded, and elevated process
    • Tubercle: Small, rounded, and elevated process
    • Tuberosity: Large, rounded and elevated process located at the junction of the neck and shaft of the femur

    Anatomical Depressions

    • Fissure: Cleft or deep groove
    • Foramen: Hole in a bone for transmission of blood vessels and nerve
    • Notch: Indentation into the border of a bone
    • Sinus: Recess, groove, cavity, or hollow space
    • Sulcus: Furrow, trench, or fissure-like depressions

    Body Positions

    • Dorsal or Supine: Lying flat on back with knees straight and arms at sides
    • Prone: Lying flat on stomach with knees straight, arms can either be under head or at sides
    • Dorsal recumbent: Lying on back with knees bent and feet flat on the examination table
    • Lateral: On the side with the top leg over the bottom
    • Sims’: Lies between supine and prone with legs flexed in front of the patient
    • Fowler’s: Head and torso elevated 15° to 90°
    • Trendelenburg: Head and torso is lower than the heart
    • Reverse Trendelenburg: Head and torso is higher than the heart
    • Lithotomy: Laying on back with knees bent, thighs apart, and the feet in stirrups. Also known as Obstruction of the normal blood flow to an organ or structure.

    Medical Terms

    • Hemoptysis: Coughing of blood
    • Hematemesis: Vomiting of blood
    • Hernia: Protrudes
    • Ileus: Obstruction
    • Polyps: Inward pouching
    • Reflux: Abnormal flow
    • Rickets: Disease of the skeletal system
    • Sepsis: Blood infection
    • Spur: Bony projection growing out of a bone
    • Stenosis: Narrowing
    • Infarct: Loss of blood supply to an organ or structure will cause the surrounding tissue to die.
    • Collateral circulation: Body’s natural defense against ischemia
    • Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack): Caused by infact
    • Bezoar: Hard mass of entangled material found within the stomach or intestines that cannot be digested.
    • Bowel Obstruction:
      • Adynamic/Paralytic: Caused by reduction in the normal peristaltic action of the intestine.
      • Mechanical: Caused by motility disorder that results from some type of structural abnormality.
      • Inguinal hernia: When the inguinal ring compromised thus allowing a portion of the bowel to rupture through the abdominal wall.
    • Bowel Adhesions: Inevitable outcome of abdominal surgery.
    • Volvulus: Loop of intestine that has twisted around itself causing either a partial or complete obstruction.
    • Intussusception: When a section of bowel is constricted by peristalsis causing it to prolapse.
    • Adenocarcinoma: Type of neoplasm that originates in glandular tissue and can be a cause of bowel obstruction.
    • Regional Enteritis/Crohn’s Disease: Chronic inflammation of the bowel. Characterized by abdominal cramping, diarrhea, constipation, weight loss/gain, and vomiting.
    • Diverticulitis: Diverticulum become infected and bleeds. Often caused by entrapment of chyme or feces within the diverticulum.
    • Appendicitis: Result of feces within the appendix and the presence of appendicolith.
    • Hepatic Cysts: Benign, thin-walled sac that may be either empty or full of fluid.
    • Hepatic Hemangioma: Most common benign tumor of the liver.
    • Hepatocellular Carcinoma: Rare primary liver cancer that is also known as hepatoma.
    • Liver Mets: Liver is a common site for most any cancer mets.
    • Osteoporosis: Reduction in bone mass which makes the bones more susceptible to fracture formation.

    Medical Procedures

    • Barium Enema: Used to evaluate the lower gastrointestinal tract for obstruction, polyps, and other abnormalities.
    • DEXA Scan: Bone mineral density scan used to diagnose osteoporosis.

    Stages of Dying (Kubler-Ross, 1969)

    • Denial: Not accepting the truth, believing that diagnosis is somehow wrong.
    • Anger: May become angry preceding death or disfigurement.
    • Bargaining: If he/she becomes good and submissive, they may be spared or cured.
    • Depression: Accepts the impending loss and begins to mourn for his or her past life. Acquiscent, quiet, withdrawn, and may cry easily.

    Rules in Moving Heavy Objects

    • Do not bend from your waist
    • Pull rather than push
    • Stand close to the patient
    • Balance the weight over your feet
    • Use your arms and legs
    • Do not twist
    • Keep floor area free from all objects

    Patient Transfers

    • Always help the patient transfer toward the strong side
    • Table to wheelchair: Place wheelchair close and parallel to the table
    • Stroke patient: Position yourself on the px weak side, position the patient with the strong side adjacent to the bed
    • Patient with a urinary catheter: Hold urine collection bags below the level of the patient’s bladder
    • Logrolling: Method of transferring patients with spinal injury or metastatic disease

    Four Cardinal/Vital Signs

    • Temperature
    • Pulse
    • Respiration
    • Blood Pressure
    • Pain (considered as 5th vital sign)

    Body Temperature

    • Physiologic balance between heat produced in body tissues and heat lost environment
    • Controlled by the hypothalamus.

    Types of Thermometers

    • Tympanic: Aural thermometer
    • Axillary: Safest method (36.4 to 36.7c)
    • Rectal: Most accurate and reliable (37.5c)
    • Oral: Most accessible (37c)

    Pulse Rate

    • Measurement of the heart rate, or the number of heart beats per minute.
    • Wave of blood created by contraction of the left ventricle of the heart.
    • Controlled by the Medulla Oblongata

    Types of Pulses:

    • Central
    • Peripheral

    Central Pulse

    • Apical Pulse: Location at midclavicular line, at sternal notch

    Peripheral Pulses:

    • Radial/Ulnar: Wrist, most accessible
    • Temporal: Lateral, 2nd most accessible
    • Carotid Neck: Carotid artery, primary site for adult and children during CPR.
    • Brachial: Medial, antecubital space.
    • Dorsalis Pedis: Lateral to the extensor of hallucis longus.
    • Popliteal: Above the knee
    • Femoral groin: Not commonly used, leg circulation
    • Posterior Tibial: Back of the medial malleolus.

    Blood Pressure

    • Systolic blood pressure: Describes the amount of pressure exerted on the walls of the arteries when the ventricles contract.

    Advance Directives

    • Living Will: Patient wishes concerning their future medical care
    • Directive to physician: A physician is appointed by a person to serve as his proxy on a prescribed form.
    • Durable power of attorney for health care (DPAHC): Appoints a person other than the physician to act as the patient’s agent and make health care decisions if the patient is unable to do so.

    Cardinal Principles & Adult Normal Ranges

    • Normal blood pressure range: 110-140 mmHg/60-80 mmHg
    • Normal pulse rate range: 60-100 bpm
      • Infant pulse rate: 120 bpm
      • 4 to 10 years old pulse rate: 90-100 bpm
    • Normal temperature range: 97.7F to 99.9F or 36.5c to 37.5c
    • Normal respiration rate range: 12/15-20 breaths/min
      • Child respiration rate: 20 to 30/30 to 60 breaths/min

    Types of Infection

    • Origin:
      • Idiopathic: Unknown cause
      • Community-acquired: Person enters a healthcare facility
      • Nosocomial: While in the institution
      • Iatrogenic: Physician intervention or by medical procedure/treatment
    • Duration:
      • Acute: Short term

    Infection Control

    • Cleanliness: Avoid transmitting organisms by using proper cleaning equipment and techniques
    • Contamination: Soiling or making inferior by contact or mixture
    • Antiseptics: Used to stop the growth of microorganisms
    • Disinfection: Involves the destruction of pathogens by using chemical materials
      • Example disinfectants: Hypochlorite bleach and Lysol
    • Medical Asepsis: Deals with reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual
      • Example: Handwashing technique
    • Surgical Asepsis: Procedures to eliminate any microorganisms; sterile technique
      • Example: RADPATHOLOGY

    Common Pathology or Pathological Disease

    • Pathology: Study of disease and how it impacts the human body
    • Iatrogenic: Results from medical treatment
    • Nosocomial infection: Acquired from a healthcare environment
    • Pathogenesis: Study of the origin and development of disease
    • Sign: Observable by the healthcare worker
    • Symptom: Patient’s perception
    • Syndrome: Group of signs and symptoms that characterize the disturbance
    • Etiology: Study of the cause and origin of disease
    • Idiopathic: Refers to the fact that there may be no real cause for the disease

    Inflammation

    • Body’s ability to wall-off and sequester an injurious agent
    • Hyperemia: Process of dilating capillaries to allow fluids and leucocytes to infiltrate the infected area
    • Leucocytes: Will act to remove cellular debris through a process known as phagocytosis
    • Abscess: Inflammatory reaction causes the injurious agent to become a walled-off ball of pus
    • Ulcers: Type of inflammatory reaction that is a result of a healing wound that is located on the skin or a mucous membrane
    • Cellulitis: Acute bacterial infection of the skin and is a third example of an inflammatory reaction

    Edema

    • Abnormal accumulation of fluid in body cavities or intercellular spaces
    • Ascites: Edema of the peritoneal cavity

    Ischemia

    • Obstruction of the normal blood flow to an organ or structure
    • Results from either narrowing of blood vessels from plaque formation or as the result of a thrombic occlusion
    • Collateral circulation: Body’s natural defense against ischemia

    Infarct

    • Loss of blood supply to an organ or structure will cause the surrounding tissue to die
    • Diseases that may be caused by an infarct or may result in an infarct:
      • Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack)
      • Pulmonary Embolus
      • Cerebrovascular Accident (Stroke)
      • Hernia (Mechanical Obstruction)
      • Volvulus (Mechanical Obstruction)

    Hemorrhage

    • Loss of blood from the circulatory system (bleeding)
    • Hematoma: Result of a break in a blood vessel that causes a pooling of blood below the surface of the structure

    Aplasia

    • Inability of an organ or structure to form properly
    • Defective development can result in the partial or complete loss of an organ

    Atrophy

    • Shrinking or decrease in size
    • Hypertrophy: Abnormal increase in cell size. Also known as Hyoergenesis, and hyperplasia

    Neoplasm

    • Abnormal proliferation of foreign cells that form a mass of tissue within an organ or structure (mass or tumor)
    • Oncology: The study of neoplasm
    • Benign neoplasm: Self-limited and will not spread or mets
    • Malignant Neoplasm (cancer): Possess the ability to spread to distant sites in the body
    • Carcinoma/Adenocarcinoma: Type of cancer will arise from epithelial cells or tissues such as breast, colon, or pancreas
    • Sarcoma: Highly malignant cancer of soft tissue or connective tissue such as bone, cartilage, muscle, and fat
    • Lymphoma: Originates in lymphatic tissues and affects the production of lymphocytes (wbc)
    • Leukemia: Cancer of the blood and blood-forming tissue

    Osteoporosis

    • Reduction in bone mass which makes susceptible to fracture formation
    • Prone to hip fractures, compression fractures of vertebral bodies, and Colles’ fracture of the wrist
    • Uses DEXA scan (bone mineral density scan)
    • Factors involved in the pathogenesis of osteoporosis:
      • Most common congenital anomaly of the urinary system

    Ectopic Kidneys

    • Congenital defect where the kidney is located in an abnormal position within the body

    Renal calculi

    • Presence of a kidney stone is the most common indication for an IVP
    • Kidney stone

    Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)

    • Abnormal flow of the urine from the bladder back into the ureter
    • Underlying cause of a urinary track infection in one third of all children

    Renal cell carcinoma

    • Most malignancy of the kidneys
    • Propensity to metastasize to the lungs, brain, liver, and bone

    Wilm’s tumor

    • Neproblastoma
    • Most common abdominal neoplasm of infancy and early childhood
    • Possess a large, palpable abdominal mass
    • Propensity to metastasize to the lungs, liver, and skeletal system

    Ureteral Diverticula

    • Outpouching of the ureter
    • May be a source of future infections or may, in some instances, trap kidney stones

    Bladder Diverticula

    • Caused by an enlarged prostate or the result of a chronic bladder infection

    Phleboliths

    • Small calcified valve within a vein that surrounds the urinary bladder
    • Sometimes mistaken for kidney or bladder stone

    Intussusception

    • When a section of bowel is constricted by peristalsis causing it to prolapse
    • Cause of approximately 1% of all adult bowel obstruction and commonly affects the ileocecal valve

    Zenker´s Diverticulum

    • Outpouching of the posterior wall of the upper esophagus in the pharynx
    • Can cause dysphagia and halitosis

    Hiatal Hernia

    • Portion of the stomach protrudes (herniates) into the thorax through the esophageal opening in the diaphragm
    • Most common findings on an UGIS
    • Sliding hernia

    Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

    • Heartburn or acid reflux
    • Backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to an incompetent lower esophageal sphincter
    • Commonly associated with Hiatal hernia

    Esophageal Varices

    • Dilated, tortuous veins of the esophagus which may rupture
    • Commonly a result of portal hypertension and/or liver cirrhosis

    Esophagus Cancer/Esophageal Carcinoma

    • Presents with a very “ratty” radiographic appearance on a Barium swallow
    • Represents 2% of all cancers and there is a high incidence in smokers and alcoholics

    Peptic Ulcer Disease

    • Describes ulcers of the stomach and duodenum
    • Causes include aspirin, steroids, spicy foods, stress, and it can be the result of a bacterial infection.
    • Bird beak appearance

    Hepatic Hemangioma

    • Most common benign tumor of the liver
    • Consist of dilated blood vessels that create pools or lakes of blood within the liver
    • MRI modality of choice

    Hepatocellular Carcinoma

    • Rare primary liver cancer that is also known as hepatoma
    • MRI method of choice. CT and UTZ are often employed as well

    Liver Mets

    • Liver is a common site for most any cancer mets
    • Partial list of cancers that like to spread to the liver:
      • Breast Ca
      • Colon Ca
      • Malignant Melanoma
      • Ovarian cancer
    • Symptoms include abdominal pain, weight loss, and jaundice

    Orbital blow-out fracture

    • Floor of the eye socket may involve the orbital floor, wall, or roof
    • Following blunt trauma to the eye

    Colles’ Fx

    • Fx is most often caused when an individual falls backward onto a hard surface and brace themselves with an open hand
    • Fx of the distal radius, and ulnar styloid with posterior displacement

    Comminuted Fx

    • Fx with shattered bones or crushed bones (fragments)

    Compound Fx

    • Open fx or fx with open skin wound where the bone is exposed

    ### Cardnial Principles of Adult Normal Range

    • Blood pressure: 110-140 mmHG/60-80mmHG
    • Pulse rate: 60-100 bpm
      • Infant: 120bpm
      • 4 to 10 yrs old: 90-100bpm
    • Temperature: 97.7F to 99.9F or 36.5c to 37.5c
    • Respiration rate: 12/15-20 breaths/min
      • Children: 20 to 30/30 to 60 breaths/min

    Types of Infection

    • Origin
      • Idiopathic: Unknown cause
      • Community acquired: Person enters a health care facility
      • Nosocomial: While in the institution
      • Iatrogenic: Physician intervention or by medical procedure/treatment
    • Duration
      • Acute: Short term

    Control of Infection

    • Cleanliness: Avoid transmitting organisms by using proper cleaning equipment and techniques
    • Contamination: Soiling or making inferior by contact or mixture
    • Antiseptics: Used to stop the growth of microorganisims
    • Disinfection: Involves destruction pathogen by using chemical materials
      • Hypochlorite bleach and Lysol
    • Medical Asepsis: Deals with reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual
      • Ex. Handwashing technique
    • Surgical Asepsis: Procedures to eliminate any microorganisms; sterile technique
      • Ex.CLUSTER IV

    Body Movement Terminologies

    • Abduction: Movement of a part away from the central axis of the body or body part
    • Adduction: Movement of a part toward the central axis of the body or body parts
    • Extension: Straightening of a joint; normal position of joint.
    • Flexion: Act of bending a joint; the opposite of extension.
    • Hyperextension: Forced or excessive extension of a limb or joints
    • Hyperflexion: Forced over flexion of a limb or joints.
    • Eversion: Outward turning of the foot at the ankle.
    • Inversion: Inward turning of the foot at the ankle.
    • Pronation: Rotation of the forearm so that the palm is down.

    Chronic Disease

    • Gastric ulcers: Very rare and may be a complication of gastric carcinoma.

    Bowel Obstruction

    • Adynamic / Parlytic : Caused by a reduction of normal peristaltic action of the intestine
    • Mechanical: Caused by motility disorder that results from some type of structural abnormality (tumor)

    Hernia

    • Obstruction caused by a weakening of the abdominal wall that allows a portion of the small and large intestine to protrude
    • Inguinal hernia: When the inguinal ring is compromised, thus allowing a portion of the bowel to rupture through the abdominal wall

    Bowel Adhesions

    • Inevitable outcome of abdominal surgery
    • Can lead to abdominal pain, infertility, and bowel obstruction
    • Can cause a twisting of the bowel (volvulus) and loss of blood supply to the affected area
    • Volvulus: Loop of intestine that has twisted around itself causing either a partial or complete obstruction.

    Bezoar

    • Hard mass of entangled material found within the stomach or intestines that cannot be digested

    Adenocarcinoma

    • Type of neoplasm that originates in glandular tissue and can cause a bowel obstruction

    Regional Enteritis / Crohn's Disease

    • Mechanical bowel obstruction
    • Chronic inflammation of the bowel
    • Characterized by abdominal cramping, diarrhea, constipation, weight loss/gain, and vomiting
    • Fistulas may form

    Diverticulitis

    • Diverticulum become infected and bleeds
    • Often caused by entrapment of chyme or feces within the diverticulum

    Appendicitis

    • Result of feces within the appendix and the presence of appendicolith

    Hepatobiliary System

    • Liver

    Hepatic Cysts

    • Benign, thin-walled sac that may be either empty or full of fluid
    • Located within the liver or its external surface
    • Usually incidental findings on ultrasounds, CT scans and/or MRI scans of the abdomen

    Blood Pressure

    • Systolic blood pressure: Reading during pressure during contraction of the heart
      • Normal range: 110 to 140 mmHG
    • Diastolic blood pressure: Reading during relaxation
      • Normal range: 60 to 90 mmHG
    • Hypertension reading: Above 140mmHG systolic pressure
    • Hypotension reading: Lower than 90mmhG systolic pressure
    • Stethoscope and a Sphygmomanometer are used together to measure BP
    • Controlled by: Medulla Oblongata

    Respiration Rate

    • Number of breaths a person takes per minute
    • Controlled by: Medulla Oblongata
    • Ventilation: Act of breathing
    • Respiration: Exchange of gas

    Chain of Infection

    • Infectious Agent (Pathogens)
      • Infiltrates another living thing
      • Organism that can cause a disease
    • Reservoir: Temporary environment for pathogens
    • Portal of Exit: Might be the nose, mouth, urinary tract, intestine, or an open wound
    • Means of transmission: Modes of transmission
    • Portal of Entry: New host can be infected through inhalation, injection, etc., except fecal or oral route

    ### Systematic

    • Blood/Lymph

    Cardinal Principles - Adult Normal Ranges

    • Blood Pressure: 110-140 mmHG/60-80mmHG
    • Pulse Rate: 60-100 bpm
      • Infant: 120bpm
      • 4 to 10 yrs old: 90-100bpm
    • Temperature: 97.7F to 99.9F or 36.5c to 37.5c
    • Respiration Rate: 12/15-20 breaths/min
      • Children: 20 to 30/30 to 60 breaths/min

    Types of Infection

    • Origin
      • Idiopathic: Unknown cause
      • Community Acquired: Person enters a health care facility
      • Nosocomial: While in the institution
      • Iatrogenic: Physician intervention or medical procedure/treatment
    • Duration
      • Acute: Short term

    Control of Infection

    • Cleanliness
      • Avoid transmitting organisms by using proper cleaning equipment and techniques
    • Contamination
      • Soiling or making inferior by contact or mixture
    • Antiseptics
      • Used to stop the growth of microorganisms
    • Disinfection
      • Involves destruction of pathogens by using chemical materials
        • Hypochlorite bleach and Lysol
    • Medical Asepsis
      • Deals with reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual
        • Ex. Handwashing technique
    • Surgical Asepsis
      • Procedures to eliminate any microorganisms; sterile technique
        • Ex. Considered warning sign for a larger stroke

    Tetralogy of Fallot

    • Rare congenital heart defect that presents at birth
    • Boot-shaped radiographic appearance
    • 4 Defects
      • Pulmonary Stenosis: Narrowing of the pulmonary valve restricts the flow of blood into the pulmonary arteries
      • Right Ventricular Hypertrophy: Has to work harder (hyper) to pump blood and enlarges due to pulmonary stenosis
      • Ventricular Septal Defect: Hole located between ventricles, allows oxygenated blood to flow from the left ventricle to the right ventricle instead of into the aorta
      • Overriding aorta

    Nervous System

    Hydrocephalus

    • Excess CSF within the ventricles of the brain
    • Increased intracranial pressure, enlarged heads, and possible brain damage

    Intracranial Hemorrhage

    • Escape of blood from an artery or vein
    • Three Types of Intracranial Hemorrhage
      • Intracerebral/Parenchymal: Loss of blood within the cerebrum
      • Subarachnoid: Bleeding into the ventricles of the brain
      • Extracerebral: Bleeding outside of the brain but within the skull. Trauma is often the etiology

    Subdural Hematoma

    • Leaking of subdural veins into the space found between the dura mater or the dura mater (outmost covering) and the arachnoid mater (middle layer of meninges)

    Epidural Hematoma

    • Caused by the buildup of blood between the dura and the skull. Often caused by trauma to the temporal bone that damages the middle meningeal artery.

    Ectopic Kidneys

    • Most common congenital anomaly of the urinary system.
    • Congenital defect where the kidney is located in an abnormal position within the body

    Renal Calculi

    • Presence of a kidney stone is the most common indication for an IVP
    • Kidney stone

    Vesicoureteral Reflux (VUR)

    • Abnormal flow of the urine from the bladder back into the ureter
    • Underlying cause of a urinary tract infection in one third of all children

    Renal Cell Carcinoma

    • Most malignancy of the kidneys
    • Propensity to metastasize to the lungs, brain, liver, and bone

    Wilm’s Tumor

    • Neproblastoma
    • Most common abdominal neoplasm of infancy and early childhood
    • Possesses a large, palpable abdominal mass
    • Propensity to metastasize to the lungs, liver, and skeletal system

    Ureteral Diverticula

    • Outpouching of the ureter
    • May be a source of future infections or, in some instances, trap kidney stones.

    Bladder Diverticula

    • Caused by an enlarged prostate or the result of a chronic bladder infection

    Phleboliths

    • Small calcified valve within a vein that surrounds the urinary bladder
    • Sometimes mistaken for kidney or bladder stones

    Gastrointestinal System

    Zenker’s Diverticulum

    • Outpouching of the posterior wall of the upper esophagus in the pharynx
    • Can cause dysphagia and halitosis

    Hiatal Hernia

    • Portion of the stomach protrudes (herniates) into the thorax through the esophageal opening in the diaphragm
    • Most common findings on an UGIS
      • Sliding hernia

    Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)

    • Heartburn or acid reflux
    • Backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to an incompetent lower esophageal sphincter
    • Commonly associated with Hiatal hernia

    Esophageal Varices

    • Dilated, tortuous veins of the esophagus which may rupture
    • Commonly a result of portal hypertension and/or liver cirrhosis

    Esophagus Cancer/Esophageal Carcinoma

    • Presents with a very “ratty” radiographic appearance on a Barium swallow
    • Represents 2% of all cancers and there is a high incidence in smokers and alcoholics

    Peptic Ulcer Disease

    • Describes ulcers of the stomach and duodenum
    • Causes include aspirin, steroids, spicy foods, stress, and it can be the result of a bacterial infection

    Blood Pressure

    • Systolic blood pressure – Pressure during contraction of the heart
      • Normal range – 110 to 140 mmHG
    • Diastolic blood pressure – Reading during relaxation
      • Normal range – 60 to 90 mmHG
    • Hypertension reading – above 140mmHG systolic pressure
    • Hypotension reading – Lower than 90mmhG systolic pressure
    • Stethoscope and a Sphygmomanometer are used together to measure BP
    • Controlled by: Medulla Oblongata

    Respiration Rate

    • Number of breaths a person takes per minute
    • Controlled by: Medulla Oblongata
    • Ventilation – Act of breathing
    • Respiration – exchange of gas

    Mode of Transmissions

    • Reservoir - Site where an infectious organism can remain alive and from which transmission can occur
    • Direct Contact - Hand, kissing
    • Indirect Contact - transfer of pathogenic microbes by touching inanimate objects such as doorknobs (fomites)
    • Droplet - With diseases that can travel 3-5 feet and not via airborne route transmitted via large droplets expelled from the px while speaking, sneezing, or coughing
      • Rubella, Mumps, and Influenza
    • Airborne - Residue from evaporated droplets and is suspended in air for long periods of time.

    Chain of Infection

    • Infectious Agent (Pathogens)
      • Infiltrates another living thing
      • Organisms that can cause a disease
    • Reservoir - Temporary environment for pathogens
    • Portal of Exit - Might be the nose, mouth, urinary tract, intestine, or an open wound
    • Means of Transmission - Modes of transmission
    • React against specific antigens to produce immunity to further infection by a particular antigen
      • Active Immunity - Vaccination with dead or weakened strains of the infection microorganism or their products also effects immunity
      • Passive Immunity - Acquired by injection of antibodies of a particular infection into an individual
      • Autoimmune Diseases - Antibodies function as antigens and produce diseases, occurs when a substance identical to one’s own tissues stimulate antibody production

    Process of Infection

    • Latent Period - Pathogen enters the body and lies dormant, dormant period ends

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on medical asepsis, normal vital signs, and common medical conditions. This quiz covers essential topics including blood pressure ranges, pulse rates, and different types of infections. Challenge yourself with these questions to enhance your understanding of health and safety in medical settings.

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