Maternal Health and Fetal Monitoring Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the minimum number of episodes of acceleration of fetal heart rate required to be considered normal?

  • 2 episodes (correct)
  • 1 episode
  • 3 episodes
  • 4 episodes

What is the minimum duration of an acceleration of fetal heart rate to be considered normal?

  • 15 seconds (correct)
  • 5 seconds
  • 10 seconds
  • 20 seconds

What is the minimum increase in fetal heart rate required to be considered a normal acceleration?

  • 15 bpm (correct)
  • 5 bpm
  • 10 bpm
  • 20 bpm

What is the minimum amount of amniotic fluid required to be considered a normal qualitative volume?

<p>1 cm or more in two perpendicular planes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the procedure used to aspirate amniotic fluid?

<p>Amniocentesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a type of abuse defined in RA 9262?

<p>Financial violence (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is considered an intimate partner according to RA 9262?

<p>A person who has had any form of intimate relationship with the victim. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of physical violence according to RA 9262?

<p>Any act that includes causing bodily or physical harm to the victim, putting the victim in a situation that causes fear, and attempts to harm the victim. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A couple is considered at higher risk for having a child with a genetic disorder if they are:

<p>Closely related. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a demographic factor that should be considered during genetic counselling?

<p>Financial status of the family. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which age range is considered the optimal age for pregnancy?

<p>20-30 years old (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of a woman under the age of 18 getting pregnant?

<p>Increased risk of premature birth. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is genetic counselling recommended for couples with a child who has a congenital disorder?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of a nurse in genetic counselling?

<p>Providing education and support to clients. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is a reason for genetic counselling?

<p>History of recurrent miscarriages. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of genetic counselling, what does 'balanced translocation' refer to?

<p>A harmless exchange of genetic material between chromosomes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does it mean for a disease to be 'dominant'?

<p>Only one copy of the disease-associated mutation is needed to cause the disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for a gene combination where one gene is healthy and the other is unhealthy?

<p>Heterozygous (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a father has two dominant genes (BB) and a mother has two non-dominant genes (bb), what type of heterozygous offspring will they have?

<p>Heterozygous dominant (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are autosomes?

<p>The first 22 chromosomes, which are not involved in determining sex (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a father has one healthy gene and one disease gene, and the mother has two healthy genes, what is the chance their baby will inherit the disease?

<p>50% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If both parents have one dominant and one non-dominant gene, what is the chance their baby will be homozygous dominant?

<p>25% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of dominant inheritance?

<p>The sex of the affected individual is important for inheritance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for a gene combination where both genes are the same?

<p>Homozygous (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines an induced abortion?

<p>The intentional termination of a pregnancy to save the mother's life (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the general timeframe for a legal abortion?

<p>Before the 20th week of gestation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT an indicator of threatened abortion?

<p>Heavy bleeding (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of tocolytic drugs in pregnancy care?

<p>Preventing preterm contractions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is a pregnancy considered post-term?

<p>More than 42 weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario might a woman decline laboratory tests?

<p>Tests are too expensive and involve transportation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines a spontaneous abortion?

<p>Natural termination of a pregnancy without medical intervention (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What might indicate a woman is at risk during her pregnancy?

<p>Declining to purchase maternity clothing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary symptoms of hypovolemic shock as described?

<p>Firm abdomen (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the heart rate during hypovolemic shock?

<p>Increases as the body attempts to compensate for blood loss (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is NOT preventable according to the provided information?

<p>Ectopic pregnancy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a woman's body react in terms of temperature during hypovolemic shock?

<p>Decreases, leading to cold clammy skin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) in the context of hypovolemic shock?

<p>HCG is produced by trophoblasts and serves as a basis for pregnancy tests (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by a firm abdomen in a pregnant woman experiencing shock?

<p>Accumulation of blood and amniotic fluid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the level of consciousness in a pregnant woman who is experiencing a prolonged hypovolemic shock?

<p>Deteriorates from conscious to coma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What could happen if internal bleeding and massive blood loss are not treated promptly in a pregnant woman?

<p>It could lead to hypoxia and decreased consciousness levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for a woman to void before an amniocentesis procedure?

<p>To avoid puncturing the bladder with the needle. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of using ultrasound (UTZ) during amniocentesis?

<p>To locate the placenta and avoid puncture. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a purpose of amniocentesis?

<p>Monitoring fetal growth. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does lateral pelvimetry measure?

<p>The size and shape of the pelvic cavity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does serial estriol determination measure?

<p>Placental function and fetal wellbeing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a form of psychological violence?

<p>Physical assault on the victim. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a form of sexual violence?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of informed consent?

<p>The individual must be under the age of 18. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Informed Consent

A process to ensure a patient understands risks and benefits before a medical procedure.

Amniocentesis Purposes

Identifies chromosomal defects, neural tube defects, and assesses fetal lung maturity.

Lateral Pelvimetry

A radiological method measuring pelvic dimensions for childbirth assessments.

UTZ Aided

Ultrasonography technique to locate the placenta and prevent complications during procedures.

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Sexual Violence Definition

Any sexual act committed against someone without consent, including harassment and coercion.

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Psychological Violence

Acts causing mental or emotional suffering, like intimidation and harassment.

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Chorionic Villi Sampling

A prenatal test that involves taking samples from the placenta for genetic testing.

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Specimens for Testing

Samples like serum or urine used for fetal and placental wellbeing assessments.

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Dominant mutation

A genetic mutation that requires only one copy to cause a disease.

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Homozygous

A genetic condition where two identical genes are present (e.g., AA or aa).

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Heterozygous

A genetic condition with two different genes present (e.g., Aa).

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Autosomal inheritance

Inheritance patterns related to the non-sex chromosomes (first 22 pairs).

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Genetic dominance

When one gene (dominant) overpowers another (recessive).

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BB genotype

A homozygous dominant genotype indicating two dominant alleles.

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bb genotype

A homozygous recessive genotype indicating two recessive alleles.

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Homozygous dominant

A genotype with two dominant alleles (e.g., BB), leading to dominant traits.

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Termination of pregnancy

Ending a pregnancy before the fetus reaches viability, typically before 20 weeks.

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Spontaneous abortion

Non-intentional termination of a pregnancy, commonly known as miscarriage.

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Induced abortion

Intentional termination of a pregnancy for various reasons, including health.

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Threatened abortion

Signs indicating a potential miscarriage, such as bleeding without dilation.

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Preterm labor

Labor that occurs between 20 to 36 weeks of gestation.

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Full term pregnancy

A full term pregnancy lasts from 37 to 42 weeks.

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Post term pregnancy

Pregnancy that extends beyond 42 weeks of gestation.

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Tocolytic drugs

Medications like MgSO4 or terbutaline used to prevent preterm labor.

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Normal limb movement

Opening and closing of the hand is considered normal limb movement.

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Fetal heart rate acceleration

Two or more episodes of acceleration of 15 bpm or more lasting for 15 seconds or longer.

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Less than 15 bpm acceleration

Less than 15 bpm acceleration in fetal heart rate over 20 minutes indicates potential issues.

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Amniotic fluid pockets

One or more pockets of fluid measuring 1 cm or more in two perpendicular planes.

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Qualitative amniotic volume

Either no pockets or a pocket of 1 cm or less in two perpendicular planes indicates low volume.

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Definition of physical violence

Acts that include bodily or physical harm, creating fear in the victim.

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Intimate partner

A person who is part of the household and engaged in a relationship with a woman.

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Types of abuse

Categories of harm, including physical, emotional, and more, often categorized during assessments.

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Hypovolemic Shock

A condition caused by a significant decrease in blood volume, leading to reduced blood flow to organs.

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Signs of Shock

Symptoms indicating shock include low blood pressure, increased heart rate, and cold clammy skin.

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Ectopic Pregnancy

A pregnancy where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, often leading to internal bleeding.

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Hydatidiform Mole

A type of abnormal pregnancy resulting from an abnormal fertilization, leading to the growth of abnormal tissue.

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Chorionic Villi

Finger-like projections in the trophoblast producing HCG, crucial for pregnancy maintenance.

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Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

Hormone produced in early pregnancy, indicating pregnancy on tests.

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Stages of Consciousness in Shock

Levels of awareness decline from alert to stupor or coma due to oxygen deprivation.

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Respiratory Changes in Shock

Increased breathing rate occurs to enhance oxygen intake due to blood loss.

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Demographic Factors

Characteristics that influence a population's structure and health outcomes.

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Optimal Age for Pregnancy

The ideal age range for women to conceive, typically 20-30 years.

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Counseling Candidates

Couples needing guidance due to genetic risks or disorders.

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Primigravida Risks

First-time pregnant women may face unique health risks, especially under 18 or over 35.

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Age and Hypertension

Pregnancy under 18 or over 35 can lead to an increased risk of hypertension.

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Consanguineous Couples

Couples who are closely related and might have higher genetic risks.

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Genetic Screening Tests

Procedures to identify genetic disorders or risks in couples or individuals.

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Compensatory Mechanism of Heart

Heart's response to maintain circulation during stress or complications.

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Study Notes

NCMA219 OB LEC: BSN 2ND YEAR 2ND SEMESTER PRELIM 2022

  • Coverage: High-risk pregnancy, diagnostic exams, relevant RA, bleeding disorders, gestational conditions, labor and delivery complications, postpartum complications, emotional/psychological complications, infertility, alternatives to childbirth, and specific problems in reproduction.

Genetic Assessment and Counseling

  • Genetic Disorders: Disorders that can be passed from one generation to the next.
  • Inheritance:
    • Mendelian: Dominant and recessive patterns of inheritance (e.g., dominant trait expressed in heterozygous individuals). X-linked inheritance.
    • Cytogenetics: Study of chromosomes using light microscopy to identify chromosomal aberrations (abnormalities).
  • Study methods:
    • Chromosomes are visualized using slides to identify chromosomal aberrations.
    • DNA (the basis of heredity) and RNA (involved in protein synthesis for cellular function) are used for analysis.
  • Human genomes: Composed of 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).

Nature of Inheritance

  • Human cells: Contain 46 chromosomes (22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes).
  • Gametes (sperm and ovum): Contain half the number of chromosomes (23 each).
  • Fertilization: The fusion of sperm and ovum restores the full chromosome number (46).
  • Genotype: A person's actual gene composition.
  • Phenotype: A person's outward physical appearance.

Mendelian Inheritance

  • Homozygous: Possessing two identical alleles for a trait (e.g., BB or bb).
  • Heterozygous: Possessing two different alleles for a trait (e.g., Bb).
  • Dominant: The allele that is expressed in a heterozygous individual.
  • Recessive: The allele that is not expressed in a heterozygous individual (needs two recessive copies to be expressed).

X-linked Inheritance

  • Sex chromosomes: X and Y.
  • Affected genes located on the X chromosome can affect both males and females in different ways.

Disorders

  • Huntingtons's Disease: Affected gene on chromosome 4, and genetic anticipation of CAG repeats.
  • Marfan syndrome: Genetic disorder with impacts to the heart, lung, and skeletal system.

Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

  • Genetic condition: Occurs when a child inherits one copy of a mutated gene from each parent.

Autosomal Dominant Inheritance

  • Autosomal: Gene located on one of the numbered (non-sex) chromosomes.
  • Dominant: Single copy of the gene mutation is sufficient.

X-linked Dominant Inheritance

  • Sex-linked: Gene responsible for a trait is located on the X chromosome.
  • Dominant: Only one X chromosome with the trait is necessary for symptoms.

Disorders (examples)

  • Cystic Fibrosis: Inherited disorder affecting lungs and other organs.
  • Sickle Cell Anemia: Inherited disorder affecting red blood cells causing anemia.

Other Topics (from the document)

  • Autosomal recessive inheritance: A type of inheritance where a child inherits a mutated gene from both parents in order to have the condition.
  • X-linked recessive inheritance: A subtype of X-linked inheritance in which the affected gene is recessive. Women may carry but are not affected by the disease.
  • Cytogenetics: Study of chromosomes, abnormalities, and diseases associated with these abnormalities.
  • Chromosomal abnormalities (Cytogenic Disorders): Related to the number or structure of chromosomes leading to different conditions.
  • Nondisjunction: Uneven chromosomal division.
  • Mosaicism: Different chromosome number in different cells in an individual.
  • Parental Carrier Status: Important to determine the risk of genetic disorders in an offspring.

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Description

Test your knowledge on maternal health, fetal monitoring, and related laws regarding intimate partner violence. This quiz covers topics such as fetal heart rate accelerations, amniotic fluid assessments, and genetic counseling considerations. Evaluate your understanding of key definitions and guidelines in maternal care.

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