Male Reproductive Health Quiz

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Questions and Answers

Which method is considered the most definitive for diagnosing prostate adenocarcinoma?

  • Biopsy (correct)
  • Transrectal ultrasound
  • Prostate specific antigen
  • Digital rectal examination

What does a Gleason score primarily assess?

  • Patient's age
  • Presence of metastasis
  • Size of the prostate
  • Aggressiveness of cancerous cells (correct)

Which of the following is NOT classified as a germ cell tumor of the testes?

  • Yolk sac tumor
  • Seminoma
  • Sertoli cell tumor (correct)
  • Choriocarcinoma

Which histopathological finding is NOT typical for seminoma?

<p>Evidence of hemorrhage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a distinguishing feature of testicular tumors when identified through a physical examination?

<p>Palpable masses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key gross appearance characteristic of embryonal carcinoma?

<p>Gray-white in color (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cell types is NOT commonly found in embryonal carcinoma?

<p>Squamous cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of cervical carcinoma?

<p>Squamous cell carcinoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a predisposing factor for cervical carcinoma?

<p>Chlamydia infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of hCG in relation to male reproductive system tumors?

<p>To detect choriocarcinoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism is the most common causative agent of vaginitis?

<p>Gardnerella vaginalis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a clinical symptom commonly associated with cervical polyps?

<p>Vaginal bleeding between menses (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following characteristics describes cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)?

<p>It is a premalignant condition (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main cause of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

<p>Hormonal imbalance with decreased testosterone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does dihydrotestosterone (DHT) have on glandular and stromal cells of the prostate?

<p>Stimulates proliferation of cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a storage symptom associated with BPH?

<p>Hesitancy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is commonly used to treat BPH, and what is its mechanism of action?

<p>Finasteride; it inhibits 5a-reductase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common complication of BPH related to the urinary system?

<p>Hydronephrosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which microscopic finding is commonly associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia?

<p>Nodules of glands (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In prostate adenocarcinoma, which characteristic is indicative of abnormal gland formation?

<p>Loss of basal cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What outcome can prostate adenocarcinoma lead to after metastasis?

<p>Formation of osteoblasts or osteoclasts (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia associated with?

<p>HPV infection, specifically types 16 or 18 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is likely to present at the early stage of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia?

<p>Bleeding between menses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes CIN III from CIN I in terms of morphological features?

<p>Severe dysplasia affecting all layers of the epithelium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is associated with later stages of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia?

<p>Back pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would likely be felt during a bimanual examination in a patient with advanced cervical intraepithelial neoplasia?

<p>An enlarged cervix encircled by a tumor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to cell maturation and differentiation in CIN III?

<p>Cells show no maturation or differentiation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is a result of obstructive uropathy due to metastasis in advanced cervical intraepithelial neoplasia?

<p>Difficulty urinating (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What describes the cellular composition of carcinoma in situ found in CIN III?

<p>Presence of various types of cells with severe dysplasia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common clinical feature of invasive ductal carcinoma regarding the nipple?

<p>Retracted nipple (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tumour markers is NOT typically used in the assessment of breast cancer?

<p>CA-125 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic histopathological finding of ductal carcinoma in situ?

<p>Malignant cells proliferating without breaching the basal membrane (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic method is least invasive when diagnosing breast cancer?

<p>Mammography (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does TNM staging primarily assess in breast tumors?

<p>Size and spread of the tumor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of tumour is entirely composed of cytotrophoblast or syncytiotrophoblast?

<p>Gestational choriocarcinoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of a patient with gestational choriocarcinoma?

<p>Ovarian cyst (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the risk factors for polycystic ovarian disease?

<p>Hirsutism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary symptom associated with ovarian tumours?

<p>Weight loss (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of ovarian tumours includes the dysgerminoma?

<p>Germ cell tumours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing ovarian tumours?

<p>Aging (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of ovarian tumour is associated with the presence of Krukenberg tumour?

<p>Cancerous cells that metastasize to ovaries (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cyst is correctly matched with its description?

<p>Polycystic ovarian cyst - occurs in conjunction with PCOS (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

BPH Pathophysiology

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) happens in men over 60 due to hormonal changes. Decreased testosterone leads to a higher estrogen-to-testosterone ratio. Estrogen increases androgen receptor activity in the prostate's median lobe, causing cell proliferation.

BPH Treatment (Finasteride)

Finasteride is a drug that treats BPH by blocking the conversion of testosterone to DHT, reducing prostate cell growth.

BPH Voiding Symptoms

Voiding symptoms of BPH include hesitancy (trouble starting urination), dribbling, and retention (unable to empty bladder completely).

BPH Storage Symptoms

Storage symptoms of BPH include nocturia (frequent nighttime urination), urgency (sudden need to urinate), and frequency (urination often).

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BPH Complications

Complications of BPH can include urethral obstruction, bladder damage, kidney problems, and more.

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Prostate Adenocarcinoma Pathophysiology

Prostate cancer starts in the gland tissue, forming abnormal glands with large nuclei and missing basal cells. It can spread to bones.

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Microscopic Findings of BPH

Microscopic prostate features of BPH include enlarged glands, surrounding stroma, and varying sizes.

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Microscopic Prostate Cancer

Microscopic prostate cancer features abnormalities in glands: large nuclei, prominent nucleoli, loss of basal cells. Changes in gland formation.

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Prostate Adenocarcinoma Diagnosis

Five methods can be used to diagnose prostate adenocarcinoma. These include a digital rectal examination, transrectal ultrasound, prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test, MRI scan, and biopsy.

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Gleason Score

The Gleason score is a grading system used to assess the aggressiveness of prostate adenocarcinoma cells. It examines the microscopic appearance of the tumor and assigns a score based on how much the cells resemble normal prostate cells. Grade 1 cells are well-differentiated, while grade 5 cells are poorly differentiated.

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Testicular Masses Causes

Three possible causes of painless masses in the testes include epididymitis (inflammation of the epididymis), vascular torsion or hydrocele (fluid accumulation in the scrotum), and testicular tumor.

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Testicular Tumor Types

Testicular tumors are broadly classified into two categories: germ cell tumors and non-germ cell tumors. Germ cell tumors include seminoma, spermatocytic carcinoma, choriocarcinoma, yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, and teratoma. Non-germ cell tumors include Leydig cell tumors and Sertoli cell tumors.

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Seminoma Detection Marker

Seminomas, a type of testicular cancer, do not secrete any specific tumor marker. Therefore, no specific marker is used for their detection.

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Embryonal Carcinoma Appearance

Embryonal carcinomas are small tumors with hemorrhages and areas of necrosis. They have a gray-white color and lack a distinct border.

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Embryonal Carcinoma Histopathology

Embryonal carcinomas are composed of various cell types, including tubular, glandular, and papillary cells. They contain highly anaplastic cells lacking differentiation.

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hCG Tumor Marker

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a tumor marker used to detect choriocarcinoma, yolk sac tumors, and embryonal carcinomas.

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AFP Tumor Marker

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a tumor marker used to detect yolk sac tumors.

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What is VIN?

Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) is a precancerous condition of the vulva characterized by abnormal cell growth.

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VIN Cause

Human papillomavirus (HPV) types 6 and 11 are the most common causative agents of VIN, leading to the formation of anogenital warts.

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Vaginitis Cause

Gardnerella vaginalis is the most common causative agent of vaginitis, a vaginal infection.

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Cervical Polyps

Cervical polyps are benign growths on the cervix. They often cause no symptoms but can lead to abnormal vaginal bleeding.

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Early CIN Symptoms

Early CIN symptoms can include bleeding between periods, spotting after intercourse, pain during intercourse, and unusual vaginal discharge.

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Late-Stage CIN Symptoms

Late-stage CIN presents with more severe symptoms like foul-smelling vaginal discharge, pelvic pain, and potentially obstruction of the urinary tract.

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CIN I

CIN I, or mild dysplasia, involves abnormal cell changes at the surface of the cervix. The changes are mild and limited to the superficial layer.

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CIN II

CIN II, or moderate dysplasia, involves abnormal cell changes that spread deeper into the cervical lining. The cells are abnormal throughout nearly all layers.

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CIN III

CIN III, or severe dysplasia, involves abnormal cell changes that affect all layers of the cervical lining. The changes are severe and indicate a high risk of developing cancer.

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Why Palpable Cervix in CIN?

The cervix feels enlarged during a bimanual exam because the tumor is growing around and enlarging the cervical tissue.

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What is a Koilocyte?

A koilocyte is a characteristically altered cell with a perinuclear halo seen in HPV infection, often indicative of CIN.

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Gestational Choriocarcinoma

A malignant tumor of the placenta that arises from trophoblast cells. It's highly invasive and spreads quickly, but responds well to chemotherapy.

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Clinical Features of Gestational Choriocarcinoma

Patients may experience irregular bleeding after pregnancy, high levels of hCG (pregnancy hormone), endometrial changes, ovarian cysts, and breast enlargement.

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Gestational Choriocarcinoma Curable?

Yes, gestational choriocarcinoma can be cured. It responds well to chemotherapy.

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Types of Ovarian Cysts

Four common types of ovarian cysts include luteal cysts, corpus luteum cysts, follicular cysts, and polycystic ovarian cysts.

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Polycystic Ovarian Disease (PCOD)

A hormonal disorder characterized by multiple cysts on the ovaries, often associated with irregular periods, excess androgen production, and difficulty getting pregnant.

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Risk Factors for Polycystic Ovarian Disease

Risk factors for PCOD include obesity, hirsutism (excess hair growth), anovulation (lack of ovulation), and oligomenorrhea (infrequent periods).

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Risk Factors for Ovarian Tumors

Factors that increase the risk of ovarian tumors include older age, family history of cancer, fertility drug use, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and nulliparity (never having children).

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Symptoms of Ovarian Tumors

Symptoms of ovarian tumors include abdominal swelling, early satiety (feeling full quickly), weight loss, abdominal pain, and changes in bowel habits.

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Obesity as a Risk Factor

Obesity increases the risk of developing breast cancer. This is due to increased estrogen levels and chronic inflammation associated with obesity.

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Invasive Ductal Carcinoma Features

Invasive ductal carcinoma is characterized by a hard, irregular lump in the breast, a retracted nipple, and skin changes like dimpling (peau d'orange). It can spread to lymph nodes, causing enlargement in the armpit.

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Paget's Disease

Paget's disease is a form of breast cancer that affects the nipple, causing ulceration, inflammation, and a change in the nipple's appearance.

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TNM Staging

TNM staging is a system used to assess the severity of breast cancer based on tumor size (T), lymph node involvement (N), and metastasis (M). It helps determine the prognosis and guide treatment.

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Breast Cancer Diagnostic Methods

Various methods like mammography, ultrasound, biopsy, needle aspiration, and even gene detection (BRCA-1, BRCA-2) are used to diagnose breast cancer.

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Study Notes

Benign and Malignant Diseases of the Male Reproductive System

  • Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) primarily affects men aged 60 and above
  • Hormonal imbalance, specifically an increase in the estrogen-to-testosterone ratio, contributes to the development of BPH
  • As testosterone converts to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) by 5α-reductase, this increase in DHT stimulates the proliferation of glandular and stromal cells in the prostate, leading to median lobe enlargement
  • The enlarged median lobe compresses the urethra, causing bladder outlet obstruction
  • Symptoms often include nocturia, urinary retention, dribbling, and urgency
  • Finasteride is a common treatment for BPH, inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to DHT
  • Patients may experience voiding symptoms (hesitancy, dribbling, retention) and storage symptoms (urgency, nocturia, frequency)
  • Common complications of BPH include urethral obstruction and bladder atony

Prostate Adenocarcinoma

  • Prostate adenocarcinoma originates from the glandular epithelium
  • It disrupts the prostate architecture through abnormal gland formation within existing glands
  • Manifestations often include large nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and loss of basal cells
  • Potential metastasis leads to bone involvement, resulting in osteoblast or osteoclast activity
  • Diagnosis methods such as digital rectal examination, transrectal ultrasound, prostate-specific antigen (PSA) tests, and MRI are employed

Testicular Tumors

  • Testicular tumors encompass germ cell and non-germ cell types
  • Germ cell tumors include seminoma, spermatocytic carcinoma, choriocarcinoma, and embryonal carcinoma
  • Non-germ cell tumors include Leydig cell and Sertoli cell tumors
  • Seminoma tumors do not secrete any tumor markers, and treatment is typically possible even in malignant cases

Diseases of Vulva, Vagina, and Cervix

  • Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) is a neoplasm of the vulva
  • This disease, potentially caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) types 6 and 11, can manifest as anogenital warts
  • This isn't typically considered malignant, but early detection is necessary
  • Vaginitis is often caused by Gardnerella vaginalis

Diseases of the Uterus

  • Leiomyoma, or uterine fibroids, are benign tumors arising from the smooth muscle layer of the myometrium
  • Risk factors may include genetics, oral contraceptives, and estrogen
  • Symptoms may be asymptomatic, or include menorrhagia, metrorrhagia, or possibly both

Endometriosis

  • Endometriosis is characterized by the presence of ectopic endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity
  • Potential causes include implantation theory, coelomic metaplasia theory, and chemical substance induction
  • Common symptoms include period pain (dysmenorrhea), painful intercourse (dyspareunia), excessive menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia), and chronic pelvic pain

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD)

  • GTD comprises conditions with abnormal trophoblastic tissue development
  • Two main types are hydatidiform mole and choriocarcinoma.
  • Hydatiform mole exhibits grape-like, fluid-filled villi
  • Possible complications include choriocarcinoma

Diseases of the Fallopian Tubes and Ovaries

  • Ovarian cysts, including luteal, corpus luteum, follicular, and polycystic, are potential conditions
  • Risk factors of polycystic ovarian disease include obesity, hirsutism, anovulation, and oligomenorrhea

Diseases of the Breast

  • Fibrocystic disease of the breast is a benign condition characterized by the formation of lumps, nipple discharge, calcification, apocrine metaplasia, and fibrosis
  • Ductal carcinoma in situ involves malignant cells within the ducts of the breast but does not penetrate the basement membrane; invasive ductal carcinoma involves malignant cells that breach the basement membrane. Malignant breast diseases can metastasize, leading to more serious health concerns.

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