Male Genitourinary Tract Pathology

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with acute bacterial prostatitis?

  • Systemic symptoms
  • Urinary tract infection
  • Localization in the peripheral zone (correct)
  • Occurrence predominantly in adult men

In which zone of the prostate does Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) primarily occur?

  • Peripheral zone
  • Transitional zone (correct)
  • Central zone
  • Anterior fibromuscular stroma

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be directly linked to the aetiology of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?

  • Hormonal factors
  • Genetic predisposition
  • Age-related changes
  • Chronic bacterial infection (correct)

A patient presents with hesitancy, poor flow, and nocturia. These symptoms are most indicative of which condition?

<p>Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common type of primary malignant tumour found in the prostate?

<p>Adenocarcinoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately what percentage of men over 60 years of age may have prostate cancer, according to autopsy studies?

<p>50% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a glycoprotein secreted by prostatic epithelial cells to liquefy semen?

<p>Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Serum levels of PSA are usually increased in prostate cancer. What is another reason that could cause increased levels of PSA?

<p>Prostatitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After an elevated PSA level, what is the next step in the classical pathway in the determination of prostate cancer diagnosis?

<p>Conduct a biopsy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a limitation of traditional prostate biopsies?

<p>Limited sampling of the prostate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A prostate cancer is staged as T3. What does this indicate?

<p>The cancer is extraprostatic (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Gleason scoring, which patterns are used to determine the score?

<p>Predominant pattern plus the second most common pattern (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical feature is associated with high-risk prostate cancer?

<p>Clinical stage T3 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a solution to the current issues associated with prostate cancer screening and diagnosis?

<p>Employing better and more early imaging techniques (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a PI-RADS score of 1-2 likely indicate?

<p>Most probably benign; does not need biopsy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of prostate biopsies, what is a key advantage of template (transperineal / TP) biopsy over traditional methods?

<p>Better access to anterior, base, and apex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of cells are found within the seminiferous tubules of the testis?

<p>Germinal cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by failure of the testis to descend into the scrotum?

<p>Cryptorchidism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential problem related to cryptorchidism?

<p>Atrophy and infertility (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition involves dilated tortuous veins in the spermatic cord?

<p>Varicocele (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mumps in adult males, sexually transmitted diseases and idiopathic factors may cause which of the following?

<p>Orchitis / epididymo-orchitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What represents a surgical emergency that may cause severe pain?

<p>Torsion of testis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Germ cell tumours account for what percentage of testicular tumours?

<p>Approximately 90% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the incidence and occurrence of testicular tumours?

<p>Rare tumours (175 cases/year in Ireland) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first site of metastasis for testicular tumours?

<p>Paraaortic Lymph nodes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which option is associated with seminomas and non-seminomas?

<p>Non-seminomas secrete tumour markers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with seminoma. Which treatment is more likely recommended?

<p>Adjuvant radiation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of testicular germ cell tumours, what is 'Germ cell neoplasia in situ'?

<p>An early malignant change within the seminiferous tubules (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of testicular tumour is know to secrete Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)?

<p>Yolk sac tumour (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is associated with an abnormal opening of the urethra on the penis?

<p>Hypospadia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key feature of Phimosis?

<p>Inability to retract foreskin from gland penis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a causal factor to genital warts?

<p>Human papilloma virus (specific types) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by the inability to retract the foreskin from the glans penis because it is trapped behind the corona?

<p>Phimosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which infection is usually seen in males > 55 y/o?

<p>Penile cancer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a strong risk factor to penile cancer?

<p>Phimosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In penile cancer staging, what does invasion of corpus cavernosum equate to?

<p>pT3 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which lymph nodes are first affected in penile cancer?

<p>Inguinal nodes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of prostatitis is most likely to clinically mimic prostate cancer during a digital rectal exam (DRE)?

<p>Granulomatous prostatitis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with obstructive urinary symptoms is diagnosed with BPH. Which zone of the prostate is primarily responsible for these symptoms in BPH?

<p>Transitional zone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key distinction between microacinar and ductal variants of adenocarcinoma in the prostate?

<p>Ductal variants arise from the larger ducts of the prostate, while microacinar variants arise from smaller glandular structures. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient presenting with bony pain and suspected prostate cancer, which diagnostic finding would most strongly suggest metastatic disease?

<p>Confirmation of bone lesions on imaging studies (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient has concerns about prostate cancer, and their MRI results show a PI-RADS score of 4, what would be the next appropriate step?

<p>Suggest a more targeted biopsy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the T category in TNM staging for prostate cancer primarily indicate?

<p>The size and extent of the primary tumor. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Gleason pattern describes poorly formed or fused glands?

<p>Pattern 4 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a Gleason score of 3+4=7 indicate about the differentiation and aggressiveness of prostate cancer cells?

<p>A moderately differentiated cancer with intermediate aggressiveness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of identifying 'Germ cell neoplasia in situ' (GCNIS) in a testicular biopsy?

<p>It signifies an in-situ malignant change within the seminiferous tubules with the potential to develop into invasive germ cell tumors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young man is found to have a testicular mass. If the tumor is a non-seminoma, which of the following serum markers is most likely to be elevated?

<p>Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference in initial lymphatic spread between testicular germ cell tumors and penile cancer?

<p>Testicular tumors initially spread to the para-aortic lymph nodes, while penile cancers initially spread to the inguinal nodes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What feature would histologically distinguish a seminoma from a non-seminoma?

<p>Lymphocytic infiltrate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following surgical removal of a testicular tumor, the pathology report indicates invasion through the tunica albuginea without vascular invasion. According to the TNM staging, how would this tumor be classified?

<p>T2 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding the epidemiology of testicular germ cell tumors (GCTs)?

<p>GCTs are the most common solid malignancy in men aged 30-40. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn male presents with the inability to retract the foreskin due to a small preputial opening. What should the parents be told?

<p>This condition is normal in baby boys, and will likely resolve without intervention (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common etiological factor associated with penile cancer?

<p>HPV infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor contributes most significantly to the development of penile cancer?

<p>Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 60-year-old male presents with a penile lesion diagnosed as squamous cell carcinoma. Further staging reveals invasion of the corpus cavernosum. According to the TNM staging system, how would this be classified?

<p>pT3 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic parameter is LEAST likely to be directly related to the staging of penile cancer?

<p>Presence of HPV infection. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the earliest signs of prostate cancer that may be detected during a routine examination?

<p>An enlarged prostate detected during a digital rectal exam (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with acute bacterial prostatitis. What is the most common predisposing factor for this condition?

<p>Urinary tract infection (UTI) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) biopsy, a patient is diagnosed with prostate cancer that has extended beyond the prostatic capsule. How is this staged according to the TNM classification?

<p>T3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the role of the test in managing patients with suspected prostate cancer, particularly those with PI-RADS scores of 1-2?

<p>MRI can reduce the need for unnecessary biopsies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with orchitis secondary to mumps. What potential long-term complication should the patient be informed about?

<p>Infertility due to testicular atrophy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of performing an orchiopexy in a young boy with cryptorchidism?

<p>To decrease the risk of infertility and testicular cancer (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a painful scrotal mass, and examination reveals twisting of the spermatic cord. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

<p>Testicular torsion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a history of genital warts. What associated risk should the patient be made aware of?

<p>Increased risk of penile cancer (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a commonly associated risk factor for testicular germ cell tumors?

<p>Advanced age (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Of the following options, which component of the male genitourinary system would be least susceptible to infection caused by sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?

<p>Testis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In granulomatous prostatitis, what clinical presentation might raise suspicion for prostate cancer?

<p>Significantly elevated PSA levels combined with a hardened prostate detected during a DRE (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a histopathologist not be heavily involved in the initial diagnosis of prostatitis?

<p>Prostatitis is largely a clinical diagnosis, with histopathology playing a limited role except to rule out other conditions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key characteristic differentiating chronic bacterial prostatitis from acute bacterial prostatitis?

<p>Chronic bacterial prostatitis is characterized by relapsing symptoms that are generally less severe than in acute cases. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor primarily determines the Gleason score for a prostate adenocarcinoma?

<p>The architecture of the glandular patterns observed under microscopic examination (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of identifying a high Gleason score (e.g., 9-10) in a prostate cancer diagnosis?

<p>Suggests a more aggressive form of cancer that is more likely to progress and spread (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of prostate cancer diagnosis after initial screening, what is the role of multiparametric MRI, especially when considering PI-RADS scores?

<p>To stratify risk and guide the need for biopsy, with PI-RADS 1-2 lesions often avoiding immediate biopsy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical limitation of traditional transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) guided prostate biopsy that modern techniques aim to overcome?

<p>The random sampling approach, which may miss clinically significant lesions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a diagnosis of prostate cancer, which of the following findings would suggest the cancer is high-risk?

<p>Gleason score of 9, PSA level of 12 ng/mL, and clinical stage T3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do targeted prostate biopsies improve cancer detection compared to traditional, non-targeted biopsies?

<p>Targeted biopsies allow for more precise sampling of suspicious areas identified on imaging, increasing the likelihood of detecting cancer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind using a 'template' (transperineal / TP) biopsy in prostate cancer diagnosis, particularly when compared to standard transrectal biopsies?

<p>To methodically sample the prostate in a grid-like fashion offering better coverage of the entire gland, especially areas difficult to reach with standard approaches. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference in the typical age of onset between seminomas and non-seminoma testicular tumors?

<p>Seminomas typically present in men in their 40's, while non-seminomas are more common in men in their 30's. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common initial site of metastasis for testicular germ cell tumors, influencing clinical staging and treatment planning?

<p>Para-aortic lymph nodes because of the testis's original embryological location (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the classification of testicular tumors, what is the significance of 'Germ Cell Neoplasia In Situ' (GCNIS)?

<p>It is a pre-invasive lesion with a high risk of developing into invasive germ cell tumors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do serum tumor markers, such as alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), play in the management of testicular germ cell tumors?

<p>To differentiate between seminomas and non-seminomas and to monitor treatment response (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the typical lymphatic drainage pattern of testicular germ cell tumors differ from that of penile cancer, impacting the initial sites of metastasis?

<p>Testicular tumors typically spread to para-aortic nodes initially, whereas penile cancers typically spread to inguinal nodes first (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young man is diagnosed with a mixed germ cell tumor of the testis containing both seminoma and teratoma components. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding his serum tumor markers?

<p>He may have elevations in both AFP and hCG, as these markers can be produced by non-seminomatous elements within the mixed tumor. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What long-term complication should be discussed with a patient diagnosed with orchitis secondary to mumps, even after the acute infection resolves?

<p>Potential for decreased testosterone production and infertility due to testicular damage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 10-year-old boy undergoes orchiopexy for cryptorchidism. What is the primary reason for performing this procedure before puberty?

<p>To improve fertility potential and reduce the risk of testicular cancer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key distinctions would a pathologist use to differentiate histologically between a seminoma and a non-seminomatous germ cell tumor?

<p>Seminomas exhibit a uniform population of cells with clear cytoplasm and a fibrous stroma with lymphocytes, whereas non-seminomas display more diverse histological patterns (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor is most strongly associated with the development of penile cancer?

<p>Infection with specific types of human papillomavirus (HPV) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the initial lymphatic spread of penile cancer characterized, influencing clinical staging and treatment strategies?

<p>It typically spreads to the inguinal lymph nodes first in predictable fashion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of phimosis in the context of penile cancer?

<p>Phimosis can lead to increased risk of infections. This and poor hygiene can increase the risk of penile cancer. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it crucial to accurately stage penile cancer using the TNM system?

<p>To guide treatment decisions and predict prognosis based on tumor extent and spread (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 65-year-old male presents with a penile lesion diagnosed as squamous cell carcinoma that has invaded into the corpus cavernosum. According to the TNM staging system, how would this be classified?

<p>pT3 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the crucial concern to address in men with penile cancer that have inguinal node involvement?

<p>Distant metastasis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the progression of a germ cell tumor originating in a testicle?

<p>Germ cell -&gt; Germ cell neoplasia in situ -&gt; Seminoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these are the symptoms ('prostatism') caused in the bladder?

<p>Urgency and Frequency incl. nocturia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a microscopic feature of prostate cancer?

<p>Multifocal, infiltrative (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following does not contribute to the aetiology of BPH?

<p>Bacterial infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the TNM prostate staging, what does T1c mean?

<p>Detected on needle core (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should a patient undergo Orchidopexi? Why?

<p>Before puberty, to reduce the risk of germ cell tumour (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a non-seminoma presents, where is the most common place for it to have spread?

<p>Lungs and Brain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between Hypospadia and Epispadia?

<p>Hypospadia opens abnormally closer to the penis than Epispadia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk factor to penile cancer?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the features related to a seminoma?

<p>Age peak 40s (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient is most at risk of developing torsion of testis?

<p>Babies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has fluid build-up around their testicules. The fluid has an unknown cause as they don't suffer from hernia or infection. What condition do they likely have?

<p>Hydrocele (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the purposes of semen?

<p>To liquefy semen (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Is orchitis likely to cause prostate cancer?

<p>No, orchitis is unrelated to risk of prostate cancer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If microscopy indicates architecture with small crowded glands as well as nuclear enlargement and basel myoepithelial, what is that likely due to?

<p>Some histological features of prostatic adenocarcinoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the diagnostic pathway for prostate cancer, after an elevated PSA is detected and an MRI is performed, what is the MOST appropriate next step if the MRI shows a PI-RADS score of 3?

<p>Recommend a targeted biopsy of any lesions identified on the MRI. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST significant limitation of traditional, non-targeted prostate biopsies in detecting prostate cancer?

<p>They rely on random sampling and may miss tumors located in certain areas of the prostate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the TNM staging system for prostate cancer, what is the key distinction between T2 and T3 stages?

<p>T2 signifies that the tumor is confined within the prostate, whereas T3 indicates extension beyond the prostatic capsule. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for performing an orchiopexy in a young boy diagnosed with cryptorchidism before puberty?

<p>To reduce the risk of infertility and decrease the risk of germ cell tumor development. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following represents the MOST common initial route of metastasis for testicular germ cell tumors?

<p>Lymphatic spread to the para-aortic lymph nodes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with a mixed germ cell tumor that includes both seminoma and embryonal carcinoma elements. How would this affect the expected serum tumor marker profile?

<p>AFP and hCG could both be elevated, depending on the proportion of each component. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the histologic appearance of seminoma cells typically differ from that of non-seminomatous germ cell tumor cells under microscopic examination?

<p>Seminoma cells exhibit prominent cytoplasmic clearing and distinct cell borders, whereas non-seminomas display greater pleomorphism. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the TNM staging system, if a testicular tumor has invaded through the tunica albuginea but does not show vascular invasion, how should it be classified?

<p>T2 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST critical factor that contributes to the development of penile cancer?

<p>Infection with high-risk strains of Human Papillomavirus (HPV). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of penile cancer, how does the initial pattern of lymphatic spread typically affect clinical staging and treatment planning?

<p>Penile cancer characteristically spreads first to the inguinal lymph nodes, which directs the focus of initial staging and surgical management. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is accurate TNM staging crucial in the management of penile cancer?

<p>It assists in determining prognosis and guiding treatment decisions, including surgical resection, radiation, and chemotherapy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical concern is paramount when managing men with penile cancer that shows evidence of inguinal node involvement?

<p>Preventing the development of distant metastases. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following choices describes how a germ cell tumor is most likely to have progressed?

<p>Germ cell → Germ cell neoplasia in situ → Seminoma → Non-seminoma. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of indicated symptoms occurs because of issues to the bladder, as a result of 'prostatism'?

<p>Nocturia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While prostate cancer is very subtle, which of the following is not a microscopic feature?

<p>Multifocal and infiltrative. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is least likely to contribute to BPH?

<p>Sexually transmitted infections. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After what age and why should a patient undergo Orchidopexi? Why?

<p>Before puberty to reduces risk of infertility and germ cell tumor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the key differences between Hypospadias and Epispadias?

<p>Hypospadia is where the urethra opens abnormally on the underside of the penis, and Epispadias has it opening on the upper side of the penis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk factor for genital warts?

<p>HPV infections. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one purpose of semen?

<p>To liquefy the semen. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If microscopy indicates architecture with small crowded glands as well as nuclear enlargement and Loss of basal myoepithelial cells (immunohistochemistry), what is that likely due to?

<p>Adenocarcinoma. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Prostatitis

Inflammation of the prostate gland, often clinically relevant but not a specific query to a histopathologist.

Transitional Zone

A zone of the prostate where benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) commonly occurs. It accounts for 20-25% of prostate cancers.

Peripheral zone

A zone of the prostate where 70-75% of cancers occur.

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

A common disorder characterized by the enlargement of the prostate gland. It's frequently diagnosed by urologists.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Prostatism

Symptoms associated with prostate enlargement, including poor flow, hesitancy, incomplete bladder emptying, and dribbling.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Prostate Adenocarcinoma

The most common type of prostate cancer. Rarer forms exist, such as squamous cell carcinoma.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)

Elevated levels may indicate cancer, but can be due to other reasons.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gleason Score

A pathological scoring system based on gland patterns used to grade the aggressiveness of prostate cancer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Better Biopsy

It involves targeted biopsies for MRI-detected lesions

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cryptorchidism

Failure of the testicle to descend into the scrotum during development.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Varicocele

Dilated, tortuous veins in the spermatic cord that can lead to fertility problems.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hydrocele

Fluid collection in the tunica vaginalis, often with an unknown cause but possibly due to infection or hernia.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Orchitis/Epididymo-orchitis

Inflammation of the testicle and epididymis, potentially caused by mumps or sexually transmitted infections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Torsion of Testis

Twisting of the spermatic cord and testis, leading to severe pain and requiring emergency surgery.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Germ Cell Tumor (GCT)

Most common solid tumor in young men.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Germ cell tumor (GCT) metastasis

Spread via lumbar lymphatics to paraaortic nodes

Signup and view all the flashcards

Seminoma

Testicular cancer that typically peaks in men in their 40s and is sensitive to radiation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

'Non-seminoma'

Testicular cancer that increases levels of specific substances like hCG and AFP.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hypospadia/Epispadia

Abnormal opening of the urethra on the underside (hypospadia) or upper side (epispadias) of the penis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phimosis

Inability to retract the foreskin from the glans penis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Inflammatory

Multiple sexually transmitted diseases

Signup and view all the flashcards

Penile cancer

Rare cancer associated to HPV infection .

Signup and view all the flashcards

Penile cancer metastasis

Spreads usually to lymph nodes in a predictable fashion

Signup and view all the flashcards

Granulomatous Prostatitis

Uncommon type of prostatitis, sometimes infectious, with high PSA levels, mimicking cancer during DRE.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary Prostate Tumours

Malignant prostate tumor that usually involves direct extension of bladder or rectal cancer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

GCT Spread

Tumors that metastasise first to paraaortic nodes then upwards towards the chest, but NOT to inguinal nodes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Male Phimosis

Inability to retract foreskin, normal in boys, linked to inflammation in adults.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Solutions for prostate cancer

MRI, PI-RADS and targeted biopsies

Signup and view all the flashcards

Template prostate biopsies

A biopsy performed using a template for better access to prostate

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cryptorchidism cancer

Rare cancer that requires an orchidopexy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

  • The presentation focuses male genito-urinary tract pathology, including prostate, testis, penis, and scrotum.
  • Learning outcomes covered include congenital abnormalities, phimosis, genital warts, tumours, infections, benign prostatic enlargement, and prostatic carcinoma.

Prostatitis

  • This is mostly clinical relevant and not often a specific query to a histopathologist.
  • PSA levels can increase, raising concern for cancer.
  • Acute bacterial prostatitis is often seen in UTIs, mostly affects adult men, and has systemic/local symptoms.
  • Chronic bacterial prostatitis is similar to acute, but relapsing with lesser symptoms.
  • Granulomatous prostatitis is uncommon, caused by infectious or unknown factors, mimics other types of prostatitis.
  • Granulomatous prostatitis can have very high PSA and a hard prostate on DRE, which mimics cancer clinically.

Basic Prostate Anatomy

  • Transitional zone is where BPH occurs occurs in this zone, and 20-25% of cancers
  • Peripheral zone is where 70-75% of cancers occur.

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

  • It's a very common disorder, frequently referred to urologists, and is caused by hormonal, age-related, and genetic factors.
  • Symptoms of prostatism include obstructive issues like poor flow, hesitancy, incomplete bladder emptying, and dribbling plus irritative symptoms such as urgency and frequent urination including nocturia from the bladder.

Prostate Cancer (PCa)

  • PCa includes primary tumors like adenocarcinoma - including microacinar and ductal variants - and rare forms such as squamous/small cell carcinomas
  • Secondary tumors are rare, usually direct extensions from bladder or rectal cancer.
  • Approximately 3400 new cases occur in Ireland per year, with fewer than 550 deaths, making it a common cancer in men, but with moderate associated mortality.
  • Autopsy studies find that up to 50% of men over 60 have prostate cancer.
  • Early-detected prostate cancers have over 95% 5-year survival.
  • The lifetime risk of prostate cancer diagnosis is 16% in the US, while the risk of dying from it is 2.9%, indicating indolent behavior.
  • Symptoms are often incidental, found via PSA tests, DRE, or during BPH resections, can be local mimicking BPH or metastatic, e.g. to bone.
  • Prostate Specific Antigen is a small glycoprotein from prostatic epithelial cells to liquefy semen that is leaked into serum with normal levels < 4 ng/mL, may increase due to cancer but has other reasons, and is widely used for screening.
  • The FDA approved PSA as screening tool in 1994 and incidence stabilised since 2010 (3300-3500/annually)
  • The pathway for PCa diagnosis starts with symptoms, leading to S-PSA testing, and if high, a biopsy, that, if positive, leads to treatment, with the cycle starting again if testing comes back negative.

Traditional Prostatic Biopsy

  • This involves transrectal extended sextant biopsies taking 12 cores.
  • Pathological features are often subtle. Macroscopic features include being multifocal, as well as being infiltrative and often unseen. Microscopic features include minimal pleomorphism, infrequent mitoses and typically occur in small foci.
  • Histological features include small crowded glands, nuclear enlargement, large nucleoli, and a lack of basal myoepithelial cells, with immunohistochemistry
  • There is no single defining feature.
  • Main limitations include a lack of targeting, negative results may not mean there is no cancer and extent and grade may not reflect actual cancer extent and grade in prostate.

TNM Staging for Prostate Cancer

  • T1 is incidentally detected, including T1a/b from TURP and T1c from needle core.
  • T2 is confined to prostate, T3 is extraprostatic, and T4 invades the adjacent organ.
  • Regional nodes (N0/N1) and distant sites (M0/M1) indicate spread; iliac lymph nodes often spread first before bone metastes.
  • Pathological and clinical T staging are a little bit different.

Gleason Scoring

  • The Gleason score is based purely on the patterns of the glands.
  • Patterns 1-2 are rarely sued, pattern 3 has single well formed glands, pattern 4 has poorly formed or fused glands, and pattern 5 has no glands just single cells, sheets and rows.
  • Gleason Score = Predominant pattern + Second pattern
  • New system is 6-10 even though theory it is 2-10
  • Gleason score 6
  • Gleason score 3+4=7
  • Gleason score 4+3=7
  • Gleason score 8
  • Gleason score 9-10

High Risk Prostate Cancer

  • High-risk prostate cancers account for 15% of diagnosed cancers.
  • Clinical stage T3, Gleason score >8 and or, PSA >10

Solutions to Problems with Prostate Cancer

  • Solutions involve improving early imaging with MRI, and better biopsies that offer targeted biopsies for MRI lesions or use template biopsies.
  • MRI with PI-RADS is useful for identification, along with T2W, diffusion dynamic studies that score from 1-5, 1='most probably benign'; 5='most probably malignant' 3 is indeterminate and a problem group')

Newer Prostatic Biopsies

  • Template biopsies are transperineal with better access to anterior base and apex that is used on persistent concerns despite negative biopsies
  • Targeted prostate biopsies that use MRI to target lesions.
  • MRI is considered if S-PSA is high and if PI-RAD (3)-4-5 is performed, which leads to more targeted biopsies, but if the result is PI-RAD 1-2, then no biopsy is performed.

Testis Pathology

  • Concerns germ cell, sex chord, lymphoma and metastasis tumors, and other not not tumors lumps such as infections and cysts.
  • Cryptorchidism has an unknown cause that occurs when the testis fail to descend into scrotum. It may cause atrophy, infertility, and increased cancer risk in both testes. Orchidopexi before puberty is a solution. Seen in some congenital syndromes e.g. Prader-Willi
  • Tumors are typically seminoma or non-seminoma.
  • Benign cysts and 'celes' include varicoceles and hydroceles.
  • Varicocele is dilated tourtuous veins in spermatic cord or varices that lead to fertility problems.
  • Hydrocele is fluid collection in tunica vaginalis that can be due to infection, hernia, or be idiopathic
  • Epididymal cysts, spermatocele are relating to epididymus

Inflammation and Torsion

  • Orchitis or epididymo-orchitis can be caused by mumps (vaccine available), sexually transmitted diseases, or is idiopathic.
  • Cases of torsion usually present in infants and those around puberty and result in severe pain that is seen as surgical emergency. Twisting of spermastic cord and testis

Testicular Tumours Basic Facts

  • GCT is ~90% and are seminoma and or non-seminoma. Occurring at <10 for sex chord/stormal tumours from Leydig cells. Including rare tumours lymphomas and metastases in older men. They are malignant tumors
  • Basic GCT Facts include that 175 cases per year occur in ireland and is the mean age is 30-40's and is most common solid tumour in young men, with >90 survival rate due to chemo and radiation with causes 5 deaths. Risk factors are that is more common in white populations than black, cryptorchidism. As well as rare e.g. Klinefelter syndrome and environmental factors
  • Survival is very good due to chemo and radiation treatment- Risk Factors: Racial (white>black), Cryptochidism, Klienfelter, increasing incidence (environmental)?

Metastasis

  • Spread via lymph nodes to para-aortic and upwards to the chest, does not to inguinal nodes.
  • Can also spread Haematogenous to the lungs or brain, more common in non seminomas.
  • T1 is limited to testis and T2 is limited to but invades through albignia including vascular invasions, and T3 is limited to the cord and T4 invades scrotum,
  • Seminomas occurs in the Age peak of 40 and requires adjuvant radiation and does not have specific markers in blood but LDH is increased
  • Non - seminomas Age peak the 30 and requires adjuvant chemo and secrete specific substances and requires (tumour markers’) such as hCG and AFP.
  • Germ cell neoplasia in situ is in situ malignant and does is not able to spread.

Testicular Cancer Types

  • The germ cell neoplasia in situ converts to Seminoma or to Non-seminoma. Seminoma is a distinct type. Non-seminoma types are Embryonal carcinoma, Teratoma, Yolk sac tumour ( Tumour marker = Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)) and Choriocarcinoma ( Tumour marker = human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)) including combined tumors.
  • Overall these can result in blood results due to tumour markers. And metastasise.

Penis/Scrotal Pathology

  • Penis/scrotal Pathology is a congenital abnormality causing Hypospadia > epispadia which is an abnormal opening of urethra is usually normal.
  • Phimosis is inability to retract foreskin from gland penis that usually occurs with chronic inflammation due to poor hygiene, this is a normal occurrence for young boys
  • Balanitis xerotica obliterans are causes from inflammation and Lichen sclerosus
  • An inflammatory response can be caused by sexually transmitted diseases like herpes/syphilis/ Gonorrhoea and chlamydia and can causes inflammation in the urethra . - Multiple sexually transmitted disesases can cause genital warts due to HPV and can causes a higher risk of penile cancer.

Penile cancer

  • It has a rare with < 20 cases per year in Ireland
  • Is almost all squamous cell carcinoma are usually seen in males > 55 y/o
  • Is caused by. Infection: Usually associated with HPV and history of genital warts ,Hygiene: Phimosis, poor hygiene and: Lichen sclerosus (or BXO)
  • Spreads usually to lymph node first.

TNM System for Penial Cancer

  • For TNM System pTis Carcinoma - PT invasion of subepithelial tissues, pT2 Invasion of corpus spongiosum* pT3 and pT4 Invasion of corpus cavernosum /adjacent structures * +/- invasion of urethra - Inguinal nodes first affected

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

More Like This

Prostatitis Overview
20 questions
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
33 questions
Prostate Health and Disease Quiz
24 questions
Urologie en prostatitis quiz
19 questions

Urologie en prostatitis quiz

EarnestCreativity2128 avatar
EarnestCreativity2128
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser