Legal Principles in ADR and Contracts
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Questions and Answers

What is typically required before dividends can be paid?

  • A cash reserve must be established
  • Shareholders must approve the payment
  • A company must prepare its financial statements
  • A company must have declared a profit after paying HMRC (correct)

What is the purpose of a suspicious activity report?

  • To request funding from financial institutions
  • To inform companies about financial audits
  • To report potential money laundering to the NCA (correct)
  • To declare taxable income to HMRC

What happens if frustration discharges a contract?

  • The contract becomes invalid, requiring a new one to be drafted.
  • Future obligations are discharged, but past actions remain enforceable. (correct)
  • Only one party can claim damages for breach.
  • The entire contract is automatically terminated without any further obligations.

What statutory instrument allows the government to amend laws quickly to comply with the HRA?

<p>Remedial orders (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the limitation period for tort claims relating to personal injury?

<p>Three years from the date of knowledge or six years from the incident (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what conditions can a case go straight from the High Court to the Supreme Court?

<p>Only in cases of national importance on a point of law (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes an innominate term in a contract?

<p>Its breach deprives the innocent party of most of the contract's benefit. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of mesothelioma, who can clients claim damages from?

<p>All responsible persons who are jointly and severally liable (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required before making an interim payment application in a civil case?

<p>Acknowledgement of service is sufficient. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must be returned by a minor when a contract is voidable due to lack of capacity?

<p>Goods acquired if it is just and equitable. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true regarding exemption clauses in contracts?

<p>They must be reasonable for business-to-business transactions. (C), They must be reasonable for business-to-consumer transactions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long is the typical time limit for enforcing a Tomlin order as a binding contract?

<p>6 years for breach of contract. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is correct regarding the rights of solicitors on appeal?

<p>A solicitor may have rights of audience on an appeal even without higher rights. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for a partnership to be held liable for actions taken by one of its members?

<p>Ostensible authority is sufficient for liability. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true regarding the updating of a client about costs?

<p>Clients should be informed about all additional costs incurred. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens if a claim form is served outside England and Wales?

<p>It must be served within six months after permission from court. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes reckless misrepresentation from other forms of misrepresentation?

<p>It addresses losses that are directly foreseeable. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are solicitors required to do concerning their clients' identities?

<p>Conduct ongoing monitoring of clients' identities. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the implication if a document is deemed served on the second day after being sent?

<p>It is effective as service even without delivery confirmation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of control qualifies someone as a Person with Significant Control (PSC) in a company?

<p>25% or more (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not true regarding identifying a client?

<p>A passport is always required for identification. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of legal partnerships, what does an indemnity signify?

<p>The main obligation that can be enforced immediately. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What consequence does the absence of a start date have on the enforcement of a bill?

<p>It automatically comes into force upon royal assent. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the legal implication if a claim for economic loss does not show direct damage to property?

<p>The claim fails as it requires direct damage for validity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What constitutes aggravated trespass?

<p>Trespassing with intent to disrupt lawful activities (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a primary victim in tort law?

<p>A bystander witnessing the event (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition must be met for a secondary victim to have a claim?

<p>Having close ties to the primary victim (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required to constitute a breach of the peace?

<p>Actual violence or the threat of violence (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following does NOT qualify as a medically recognized psychiatric injury?

<p>Sadness (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main criteria for claiming missing chance in tort law?

<p>The chance must be less than 50% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under which act do lawful visitors have rights related to occupiers' liability?

<p>Occupiers Liability Act 1956 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these describes specified activities in relation to investment?

<p>Actively involved in the management of investments (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition indicates that an individual may be considered insolvent?

<p>A debt is payable immediately or at a certain time in the future, and the debtor appears unable to pay it. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a statutory demand?

<p>A formal document demanding payment for a debt. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for a creditor to present a bankruptcy petition?

<p>The debtor must be unable to pay a debt of at least £5,000. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum amount of unsecured liabilities for a Debt Relief Order application?

<p>£30,000 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a method to demonstrate an inability to pay a debt?

<p>A statutory demand for an unsecured sum of at least £5,000 has been served and remains unpaid. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an Individual Voluntary Arrangement (IVA)?

<p>A binding agreement between the debtor and unsecured creditors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true about a Debt Relief Order (DRO)?

<p>A debtor cannot have a vehicle worth more than £2,000. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who benefits from the order of distribution during bankruptcy?

<p>Secured creditors, preferential debts, unsecured creditors, and postponed creditors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum lifetime limit for gains taxed under Business Asset Disposal Relief (BADR)?

<p>£1,000,000 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which criterion must be satisfied for the sale or gift of assets to qualify as a reduction in shareholding?

<p>Assets must have been owned for at least three years and used by the business for the last two years. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What relief postpones payment of capital gains tax until the eventual disposal of a business asset by a recipient of a gift?

<p>Hold Over Relief (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding the qualification of shares for Investor's Relief?

<p>They must be issued after March 2016 for cash. (C), Shares must be held for a minimum of three years. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes postponing payment of capital gains tax until a qualifying business asset is sold?

<p>Roll Over Relief (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For the Hold Over Relief claim, what is the time limit to make the claim?

<p>Four years from the end of the tax year of disposal. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following assets does not qualify as a Qualifying Business Asset (QBA)?

<p>Publicly traded company shares. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the tax rate that applies to gains made on qualifying shares under Investor's Relief?

<p>10% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Pressure Groups and the Human Rights Act

A pressure group cannot bring an action under the Human Rights Act 1998 as their rights are not directly affected.

Legal Executive Authority

A legal executive can undertake reserved legal activities under the supervision of a qualified solicitor. This means they can perform certain tasks, like giving legal advice, but only under the guidance of a solicitor.

Ostensible Authority

A partnership can be held liable for the actions of a partner who acted without actual authority, but appeared to have it. This is called ostensible authority.

Requirement for a Company Secretary

A public company must have a company secretary appointed by the company's directors.

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Person with Significant Control (PSC)

A person with significant control over a company is someone who holds more than 25% of the shares or has the right to appoint/remove a majority of the board members.

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Liability Exclusion for Limited Liability Partnerships

A contractual term excluding liability can be used for limited liability partnerships. This means the partners can limit their personal liability for certain debts or obligations.

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Start Date for Bills

If a bill doesn't have a start date, it comes into force on the day it receives Royal Assent. This is how new laws become enforceable.

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Indemnity vs. Guarantee

Indemnity is a primary obligation, meaning you can sue the indemnifier directly for a loss. Guarantor is a secondary obligation, meaning you can only sue them after pursuing the principal debtor.

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Remedial Orders

A statutory instrument that allows the government to quickly amend laws to remove incompatibility with the Human Rights Act.

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Apparent Bias

A breach of natural justice that occurs when a judge or decision-maker has a personal interest in the outcome of a case, making them likely to be biased.

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Frustration (in contract law)

A legal principle applied to contracts, where the performance of one party's obligations is made impossible due to an unforeseen event.

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Limitation Periods

The period of time within which a claim can be brought in a court of law.

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Innominate Term

A term in a contract that is neither a condition nor a warranty, where breaching it might allow the innocent party to terminate the contract depending on the seriousness of the breach.

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Joint and Several Liability

Where a plaintiff can sue all responsible parties for the full amount of damages, even if they were only partially responsible.

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Multiple Sufficient Causes

A legal principle where multiple possible causes of harm can separately lead to the same result, making all parties responsible for their respective contributions.

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Mesothelioma

A type of cancer that often results from exposure to asbestos, where the plaintiff can sue all possibly responsible parties for the full amount of damages.

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Harassment, Alarm, or Distress

Behavior that threatens, abuses, or insults someone using words, writing, signs, or other visible representations. It must be within hearing or sight of the person.

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Aggravated Trespass

Trespassing on land with the intention to disrupt or intimidate those engaged in a lawful activity, like hunting. Police can direct them to leave.

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Riot

A group of people behaving violently and disorderly, causing fear and provoking violence.

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Primary Victim (Tort)

Someone directly involved in an incident. They don't need to prove psychiatric harm was foreseeable.

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Secondary Victim (Tort)

Someone who witnesses an event and suffers psychiatric harm as a result. They must show the harm was reasonably foreseeable and they have a close tie to the victim.

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Specified Investment

A specified investment includes all financial products, like mortgages, but not land.

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Specified Activity

A specified activity includes dealing, arranging, managing, or advising on investments.

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Lost Chance Claim

If a lost chance is less than 50%, the court is unlikely to find for the claimant. This rule doesn't apply to clinical negligence.

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Voidable Contract with Lack of Capacity

A contract entered into by a person who lacks the legal capacity to make agreements is considered voidable. This means the contract can be set aside by the person who lacked capacity. However, they may have to pay a reasonable price for any necessary goods or services received. If a minor (someone under 18) is involved, they must return any goods obtained under the contract if it is fair and equitable to do so.

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Breach of Condition in a Contract

When a court finds that a term is a 'condition', the innocent party has the right to repudiate the contract (treat it as ended) or they can affirm the contract (continue with it).

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Breach of Warranty in a Contract

A breach of warranty only allows the innocent party to claim damages. They cannot end the contract.

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Exemption Clauses and Negligence

An exemption clause covering liability for negligence must be 'fair' in business-to-consumer contracts and 'reasonable' in business-to-business contracts.

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Document Serving in Disputes

A document is considered served on the second day after it was sent. For example, if a document is sent on Monday, it's considered served on Wednesday.

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Serving Claim Forms Outside England and Wales

If a claim form needs to be served outside of England and Wales, it must be done within six months of its issue date.

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Enforcing Tomlin Orders

A Tomlin order is a binding agreement reached in a legal case. It's essentially a contract, so if breached, it can be enforced for up to 6 years just like any other breach of contract.

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Permission to Appeal in Civil Cases

In civil cases, permission to appeal can be granted by either the court of instance (where the original decision was made) or the relevant appellate court (the court responsible for appeals). The permission is granted if there's a realistic prospect of success.

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Qualifying Business Asset Disposal

A gain on the sale or gifting of assets that are used in a business by an individual who is also an employee, officer, or shareholder of that business. This is a qualifying business asset disposal for Capital Gains Tax (CGT).

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Hold-Over Relief

A type of CGT relief that allows you to postpone paying CGT on the disposal of qualifying business assets until you eventually sell them. Applies when transferring ownership of a business asset as a gift or at a significantly undervalued price.

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Roll-Over Relief

A form of CGT relief that allows you to postpone paying CGT when you sell a qualifying business asset and use the proceeds to buy another qualifying business asset. This helps businesses grow without paying CGT.

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Deferral Relief on Reinvestment in EIS Shares

A specific instance of Roll-Over Relief where an individual sells any asset, not just business assets, and invests the proceeds into shares of an Enterprise Investment Scheme (EIS).

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Investors' Relief

A form of CGT relief available for gains on the disposal of qualifying shares in unlisted trading companies. It offers a lower tax rate and a higher limit than the standard CGT rate.

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Insolvency

An individual is considered insolvent when they owe a debt payable now or in the future and cannot reasonably pay it.

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Statutory Demand

A formal demand for payment of a debt, typically used for a liquidated and unsecured sum of at least £5,000. If not paid within three weeks, it can be used to prove insolvency.

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Unsatisfied Statutory Demand

Shows a debtor's inability to pay within three weeks of a statutory demand being served, meaning the debt remains unpaid despite a formal request for payment.

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Judgement Debt

A debt following a court judgement. It is usually harder to avoid paying as the court has already decided the money is owed.

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Order of Distribution in Bankruptcy

A process where individuals owed money to a bankrupt person receive a portion of what they are owed, in an order of priority.

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Individual Voluntary Agreement (IVA)

A binding agreement between a debtor and their creditors, where the debtor repays their unsecured debt over time. This is often a way to avoid bankruptcy.

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Debt Relief Order (DRO)

A court order that allows an individual to wipe out their unsecured debts. It is only available for people with limited assets and income.

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Bankruptcy

A way to avoid bankruptcy where an individual makes a formal application to the courts to be discharged from debt. This is often used for those with limited debt and assets.

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Study Notes

ADR Costs

  • Courts consider the severity of dispute resolution when ordering costs.
  • Courts will usually avoid a disproportionate ruling, particularly for simple disputes.
  • Non-lawyers are only held accountable to their representative body.
  • All employees of SRA firms must understand and obey the SRA code of conduct.

Contract Damages

  • Contract breach damages are usually awarded based on the losses suffered.
  • Reliance damages are awarded when the exact losses are hard to estimate (e.g., actor pulling out of a movie).
  • Reliance damages are calculated as if the contract had not been breached.
  • If dissatisfied with an arbitrator's ruling, one can take it to court if there's a legal error.

Company Names and Contracts

  • Sole traders must adhere to company act rules when naming their businesses.
  • The length of time since a contract's creation or a representation being made affects whether the contract's terms can be enforced.
  • When reviewing contracts, consider the time frame between the term's inception and agreement completion.
  • Pay corporation tax on capital gains and trading profits (CGT).
  • A statutory demand can prevent an administrator from seeking payment.
  • Disclosing concerns to the appropriate officer discharges legal obligations, as it was the matter of responsibility for the individual in question.

Personal Injury Standards

  • Personal injury cases require 50,000 in the high court - compared to normal 100,000.
  • The standards for evaluating complexity continue to apply similarly to high court and standard court cases.

Partnership Liabilities

  • In partnerships, members are jointly and severally liable.
  • Ordinary resolution is required for dividends to be issued.

Tort Damages

  • The maximum duration for latent damage claims in tort is fifteen years.
  • Sole traders cannot secure floating charges.

Acknowledgement and Defence Filing

  • Acknowledging service within 14 days of the claim and filing a defence is within 28 days - 14 days.
  • The acknowledgement of service extension can be extended only if not acknowledged.
  • No indemnity required for non-reserved legal activities
  • If the firm continues to act on behalf of the clients, pressure groups applying in EHCR is not subject to effect them personally
  • The legal executive must be under supervisor
  • the client does not need an actual authority in any type of partnerships.

Additional Information

  • Notice periods for processions are six days
  • Public companies are required to have a secretary
  • Liability can be excluded all together in some situations
  • Fraudulent misrepresentation -recision or damage.
  • Reckless misrepresentation.
  • Innocent misrepresentation, if court deems fair.
  • A Statutory instruments
  • Practical benefit can be consideration.
  • Civil Procedure Rules

Dispute Resolution

  • Documents are deemed served two days after; when outside the jurisdiction, it's within six months.
  • Formal permission from court is needed for foreign areas.

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Description

Explore fundamental concepts in Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) and contract law. This quiz covers ADR costs, contract damages, and the importance of compliance in naming businesses. Test your knowledge on how these legal principles interact in practical scenarios.

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