Infectious Diseases Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What distinguishes a chronic infection from an acute infection?

  • Chronic infections develop quickly with high symptoms.
  • Chronic infections have milder but longer-lasting symptoms. (correct)
  • Chronic infections can be cured entirely within a short time.
  • Chronic infections are always caused by bacteria.

Which type of infection is caused by microorganisms from the patient's own microbiota?

  • Nosocomial infection
  • Chronic infection
  • Autogenous infection (correct)
  • Epidemic infection

What percentage of nosocomial infections are urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

  • 15%
  • 13%
  • 33% (correct)
  • 50%

Which type of disease occurs constantly in a specific population?

<p>Endemic disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of infectious disease do the characteristic signs and symptoms peak?

<p>Clinical / Illness period (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor for disease?

<p>Increased hand washing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes a group of signs and symptoms associated with a specific disease?

<p>Syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes a communicable disease?

<p>Easily spread from one host to another (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following Staphylococcus species is coagulase negative and associated with endocarditis?

<p>Staphylococcus epidermidis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the DNase test?

<p>To determine the ability to degrade DNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Staphylococcus saprophyticus is true?

<p>It causes UTIs in young women. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test uses toluidine blue or methyl green to detect DNase activity?

<p>DNase Test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic differentiates Staphylococcus epidermidis from Staphylococcus saprophyticus?

<p>Staphylococcus saprophyticus is resistant to novobiocin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following enzymes produced by Staphylococcus aureus helps in breaking down fibrin clots?

<p>Staphylokinase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the method used to confirm the identification of Staphylococcus species in the Staph A Coagglutination Test?

<p>Binding of antibodies to inert particles (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a pathogenic determinant of Staphylococcus aureus?

<p>Lactase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structures are primarily responsible for antibiotic resistance in bacteria?

<p>Plasmids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the plasma/inner membrane in bacteria?

<p>ATP generation and transport regulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a type of inclusion body in bacteria?

<p>Ribosomes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of microorganism is Mycoplasma characterized by?

<p>Absence of a cell wall (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacterial structure is known to resist extreme environmental conditions?

<p>Endospores (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the primary components of the bacterial nucleoid?

<p>Circular double-stranded naked DNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Endospores are produced through which process?

<p>Sporogenesis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a function of inclusion bodies in bacteria?

<p>Store nutrients and lessen osmotic pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What color indicates a positive result in the chromogenic cephalosporin test?

<p>Pink/Red (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibiotics acts as a 30's ribosome inhibitor?

<p>Amikacin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of 50's ribosome inhibitors?

<p>Inhibition of peptidyl transferase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common side effect of Tetracycline?

<p>Yellowing of teeth in children (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibiotic is known to be highly effective against enteric bacteria?

<p>Quinolones (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do Sulfonamides inhibit in bacterial cells?

<p>Enzyme activity related to folic acid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibiotics is part of the anti-TB drug regimen known as RIPES?

<p>Streptomycin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which agar is specifically designed to support the growth of Neisseria meningitidis?

<p>Modified Thayer-Martin Agar (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibiotic specifically targets Gram-negative bacteria for cell membrane disruption?

<p>Polymyxin B (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of Vancomycin in the Thayer-Martin Agar composition?

<p>Inhibits gram-positive bacteria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is associated with Clostridium perfringens?

<p>Double zone of hemolysis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is NOT typically used to promote anaerobiosis in a laboratory setting?

<p>Aerobic incubator (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following anaerobes is known to cause bacterial vaginitis?

<p>Mobiluncus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one unique feature of Bacteroides ureolyticus?

<p>Pitting of agar (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of agar can support the growth of Mycoplasma hominis?

<p>New York City Agar (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which indicator is used in Thioglycollate medium to demonstrate anaerobic conditions?

<p>Resazurin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the incubation period refer to in microbiology?

<p>The duration between exposure to a pathogen and the onset of symptoms (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes the source of an infection?

<p>Reservoir (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mortality rate indicative of?

<p>The number of deaths due to a disease in a population (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates bactericidal agents from bacteriostatic agents?

<p>Bactericidal agents destroy organisms whereas bacteriostatic agents inhibit their growth (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which classification of antibiotics is chemically modified from natural products?

<p>Semisynthetic drugs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a narrow spectrum antibiotic refer to?

<p>Effective only against a limited number of pathogens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical features is associated with morbidity rate?

<p>The rate at which illness occurs in a specific population (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'bacteriostatic' imply about the function of an antimicrobial agent?

<p>It inhibits the growth of bacteria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Mycoplasma characteristics

Lack a cell wall and contain sterols in their cell membrane.

Bacterial cell membrane function

Controls passage of substances, generates ATP, and regulates osmotic pressure.

Bacterial ribosomes

Site of protein synthesis in bacteria, 70S type.

Bacterial plasmids

Extra-chromosomal DNA; often carry antibiotic resistance genes.

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Bacterial inclusion bodies

Structures containing food reserves or lessening osmotic pressure.

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Endospores function

Structures that allow bacteria to survive harsh environments. High resistance

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Bacterial chromosome location

Located in the nucleoid, usually a single circular chromosome.

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Plasmids in bacteria

Extra chromosomal DNA found in bacteria, carrying genes like antibiotic resistance.

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Chronic Infection

An infection that develops slowly, with milder but longer-lasting symptoms.

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Autogenous Infection

An infection caused by a microorganism from the patient's own microbiota.

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Noscomial Infection

A hospital-acquired infection.

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Communicable Disease

A disease that can be spread from one host to another.

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Contagious Disease

A disease that spreads easily from person to person.

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Incubation Period

The time between exposure to a pathogen and the start of symptoms.

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Symptom

A subjective feeling, not easily observable by others (e.g., pain, tiredness).

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Sign

An objective change that can be measured (e.g., fever, swelling).

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Incidence Rate

The number of new cases of a disease or event occurring in a specific time period within a defined population.

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Morbidity Rate

The frequency of occurrence of a disease in a specific population over a defined period.

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Mortality Rate

The number of deaths caused by a specific disease in a population over a period.

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Reservoir of infection

The source of a pathogen, which can be a person, animal, or an environmental factor.

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Bacteriostatic Agent

An antimicrobial that stops bacterial growth but doesn't kill them.

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Bactericidal Agent

An antimicrobial that destroys or kills bacteria directly.

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Broad Spectrum Antimicrobial

An antimicrobial effective against a wide range of different bacteria.

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β-Lactamase Test

A test used to identify bacteria that produce β-lactamase, an enzyme that breaks down β-lactam antibiotics, rendering them ineffective.

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Iodometric Test

A test for β-lactamase activity that uses iodine, which is reduced by penicillin in the presence of β-lactamase.

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Acidimetric Test

A test for β-lactamase activity that uses phenol red, a pH indicator that turns yellow in acidic environments.

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30S Ribosome Inhibitor

Antibiotics that target the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, disrupting protein synthesis.

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50S Ribosome Inhibitor

Antibiotics that target the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, preventing the formation of peptide bonds during protein synthesis.

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Sulfonamides

Drugs that inhibit the synthesis of dihydrofolic acid, an essential precursor for bacterial growth.

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Trimethoprim

A drug that inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme involved in the synthesis of tetrahydrofolic acid.

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Quinolones & Fluoroquinolones

Antibiotics that inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase, an enzyme essential for DNA replication.

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DNase Test: Positive Bacteria

The DNase test detects the presence of deoxyribonuclease, an enzyme that degrades DNA. Bacteria that test positive for DNase include Serratia marcescens, Moraxella catarrhalis, Aeromonas, Streptococcus pyogenes, Helicobacter pylori, Vibrio cholerae, Stenotrophomonas maltophilia, and Staphylococcus aureus.

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Novobiocin Test: What does it differentiate?

The Novobiocin test differentiates Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus species. Specifically, it helps identify Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

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Staphylococcus saprophyticus:の特徴

Staphylococcus saprophyticus is a Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus that is resistant to Novobiocin. It is a common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in young women.

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Staphylococcus epidermidis: Features?

Staphylococcus epidermidis is a Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus that is susceptible to Novobiocin. It is a normal flora of the skin and can cause endocarditis, particularly in patients with prosthetic heart valves.

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Protein A: Function

Protein A is a virulence factor produced by Staphylococcus aureus that inhibits phagocytosis by binding to the Fc region of antibodies.

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Coagulase: 作用

Coagulase is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus that converts fibrinogen to fibrin, forming a clot around the bacteria, protecting it from the immune system.

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Staphylokinase: Function?

Staphylokinase, also known as fibrinolysin, is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus that dissolves fibrin clots, allowing the bacteria to spread.

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Hyaluronidase: How does it help S. aureus?

Hyaluronidase is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus that degrades hyaluronic acid, a component of connective tissue, allowing the bacteria to spread.

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Thayer-Martin Agar (TMA)

Selective media for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria meningitidis. Contains antibiotics like vancomycin, colistin, and nystatin to inhibit other bacteria and fungi.

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Modified TMA (VCNT)

Similar to Thayer-Martin Agar, but contains an additional antibiotic - trimethoprim lactate - to further inhibit other bacteria and fungi.

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New York City (NYC) Agar

Selective media for Neisseria spp., but also allows growth of Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum. Contains vancomycin, colistin, amphotericin B, and trimethoprim lactate as antibiotics.

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Martin-Lewis Agar

Selective agar similar to NYC, but uses anisomycin instead of amphotericin B to inhibit fungi.

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Anaerobic Agar

Media designed for growing anaerobic bacteria. Contains reduced oxygen levels and can include ingredients like blood, bile esculin, or other growth factors.

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Cooked Meat Medium

Agar deep used for anaerobic cultures. Contains chopped meat, which provides nutrients and reduces oxygen availability.

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GasPak Jar

Closed container used to create anaerobic conditions. Contains chemicals that absorb oxygen and generate CO2 and nitrogen.

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Thioglycollate Medium

A liquid media containing sodium thioglycollate, which reduces oxygen. Resazurin dye indicates oxygen levels.

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Study Notes

Microbiology - Bacte, MYCO, VIRO - Prof Arconado

  • Course offered by General Biology (University of the Philippines Visayas)
  • Includes information on bacteriology, mycology, and virology
  • Topics covered in the medical technology licensure examination are detailed in the table of specifications

Table of Specifications

  • Bacteriology (49%):
    • Collection, transport, processing and staining of specimens
    • Bacterial culture media
    • Morphology and staining characteristics of aerobic bacteria
    • Differential and confirmatory tests for bacteria identification
    • Serological and molecular tests
    • Sensitivity testing
    • Bacteriological testing of water, food, milk, and utensils
    • Morphology and staining characteristics of anaerobic bacteria
    • Mycobacteria
    • Bacteria with unusual growth requirements (Spirochetes, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, Rickettsia)
  • Mycology (4%):
    • Collection, transport and clinical specimen examination
    • Fungal culture
  • Virology (4%):
    • General characteristics, transmission and diseases of viruses
    • Collection, transport, and clinical specimen examination
  • Equipment and Instrumentation (5%):
    • Manual equipment
    • Automated equipment
  • Quality Assurance and Safety (16%):
    • Infection control
    • Quality control
    • Patient Safety
    • Safety in the workplace and environment
  • Parasitology (8%):

Bacteriology - Study of Bacteria

  • Taxonomy: Classification, nomenclature, and identification of bacteria
  • Classification: Organization of organisms based on morphology, physiology, and genetics
  • Nomenclature: Naming of microorganisms using established rules and guidelines
  • Identification - Process of determining characteristics of a microorganism.
  • Morphology - Study of the shape and form of bacteria
  • Physiology- Study of the metabolic activity of bacteria
  • Genotype- Genetic make up
  • Phenotype- Observable Characteristics
  • Gram Stain - method to distinguish bacteria based on their cell wall composition.
    • Gram-positive: retain crystal violet stain
    • Gram-negative: lose crystal violet and are counterstained pink.
  • Prokaryotes - cells lacking a nucleus, this includes bacteria and archaea
  • Cell Appendages: structures on the surface of a cell, crucial for interactions with the environment.
    • Glycocalyx is a protective layer on the outside of some bacterial cells
    • Flagella are used for motility and chemotaxis
    • Pili/Fimbriae used for attachment to surfaces or other cells.

Other Topics

  • Various methods for microbial identification (stains, biochemical tests, etc)
  • Types of bacterial growth: Aerobic, Anaerobic, and Microaerophilic.
  • Microbial growth curve
  • Bacterial genetics - gene structure, replication, and transfer mechanisms
  • Bacterial metabolism - enzyme/pathways responsible for energy production, anabolism and catabolism
  • Methods of sterilization and disinfection of microbial agents (physical & chemical methods)
  • Pathogenesis of infection and opportunistic infection
  • Disease classification based on occurrence and extent of infection
  • Viral Structure and Replication
  • Viral Classification Based on Genomes, Symmetry
  • Laboratory diagnosis of viruses
  • Culture media
  • Common diseases caused by various micro-organisms.
  • Types of stain used for microscopy
  • Quality control and safety procedures

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Test your knowledge on infectious diseases with this quiz focusing on chronic vs. acute infections, microorganisms, and more. From understanding nosocomial infections to the characteristics of specific pathogens, this quiz covers key concepts in microbiology. Challenge yourself and see how much you really know!

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