Unit 1

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Questions and Answers

What is a common side effect of NSAIDs like ibuprofen and naproxen?

  • Weight gain
  • Drowsiness
  • Hypertension
  • GI bleeding or ulcers (correct)

What is a critical restriction for patients taking methotrexate?

  • Do not consume alcohol (correct)
  • Limit physical activity
  • Avoid high-fiber diets
  • Avoid citrus fruits

What type of treatment is recommended for timely management of pruritus?

  • Invasive procedures
  • Antihistamines (correct)
  • Immunosuppressants
  • Topical antibiotics

Which of the following is advisable for a patient experiencing folliculitis?

<p>Oral cephalosporins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often should patients on DMARDs like hydroxychloroquine have eye exams?

<p>Every 6-12 months (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended bathing practice for elderly patients with sensitive skin?

<p>Tepid or warm water baths (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What educational advice is given regarding the use of corticosteroids?

<p>They can lead to immune suppression. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What lifestyle modification should patients take to prevent pruritus complications?

<p>Trimming nails to prevent scratches (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibiotic agents may be selected if MRSA is suspected?

<p>Clindamycin and Doxycycline (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common characteristic of malignant melanoma lesions?

<p>Irregular borders with discolorations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a significant risk factor for developing malignant melanoma?

<p>Skin that burns easily, freckles, or has light hair (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for small, superficial lesions of melanoma?

<p>Surgical excision (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does HIV primarily affect the immune system?

<p>By targeting and destroying CD4+ T cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What observation might indicate early signs of melanoma?

<p>A lesion that changes color, size, or shape (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is used to manage patients with stage 3 and stage 4 melanoma?

<p>Nivolumab (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of using incision and drainage (I&D) when pus is localized?

<p>To relieve pressure and remove infected material (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which joints are impacted by gout?

<p>Great toe, hands, ankles, knees, elbows, and fingers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing gout?

<p>Increase in alcohol consumption (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common clinical manifestation of gout?

<p>Severe pain, redness, swelling, and warmth of the affected joint (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What lab test is primarily used to evaluate gout?

<p>Uric acid level (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is characteristic of lupus?

<p>Butterfly rash (symmetrical) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common treatment for chronic gout?

<p>Allopurinol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which complication is associated with lupus?

<p>Lupus nephritis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory finding is commonly elevated in rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>C-reactive protein (CRP) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary use of Hydroxychloroquine?

<p>Management of rheumatoid arthritis and Lupus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which side effect is common with NSAIDs?

<p>GI bleeding/ulcers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically a consideration when administering Zidovudine?

<p>Administered to patients with rheumatoid arthritis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal of Antiretroviral Therapy (ART)?

<p>To suppress viral replication and prevent disease progression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does PrEP stand for in the context of HIV prevention?

<p>Pre-exposure prophylaxis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which agent is classified as a Protease Inhibitor?

<p>Fosamprenavir (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes CCR5 Antagonists?

<p>They inhibit viral entry into CD4+ cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of drugs is typically NOT used for the treatment of gout?

<p>Antivirals (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the CD4 + T-cell count in Stage 1 of HIV infection?

<p>500 cells/mm3 or greater (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptoms are characteristic of Stage 0 (acute infection) of HIV?

<p>Fever, malaise, and rash (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of CD4 + T cell count in HIV management?

<p>To monitor treatment efficacy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What indicates a diagnosis of AIDS?

<p>Both a low CD4 count and opportunistic infections (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the patient presentation during the chronic asymptomatic stage of HIV?

<p>No visible symptoms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Rule of Nines used for?

<p>Assessing burn extent (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes HIV antibody tests?

<p>Detect antibodies against HIV (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding individuals with AIDS?

<p>Everyone with AIDS is infected with HIV. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic symptom of a partial thickness (second-degree) burn?

<p>Blistered and mottled red skin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main concern if a patient has a large percentage of burn affecting the face?

<p>Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication can diffuse through eschar and kill bacteria underneath?

<p>Mafenide acetate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms indicates an inhalation injury?

<p>Singed facial or nasal hairs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended intervention for managing patients with suspected inhalation injury?

<p>100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a defining characteristic of a full-thickness burn?

<p>Destroys nerve fibers resulting in painless skin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is commonly associated with partial thickness (second-degree) burns?

<p>Mottled red skin with edema (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What potential complication arises if a patient's face suffers a large percentage of burns?

<p>Airway compromise due to ABC concerns (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication cannot be used in patients with a sulfa allergy?

<p>Silver sulfadiazine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sign may indicate an inhalation injury?

<p>Coughing and wheezing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main role of ART in HIV treatment?

<p>Suppress viral replication and prevent disease progression. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug combination is used in PrEP for HIV prevention?

<p>Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate and emtricitabine. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of NSAIDs?

<p>GI bleeding and ulcers. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary characteristic of hydroxychloroquine in treatment?

<p>It may cause visual changes and GI upset. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism do integrase strand transfer inhibitors, like raltegravir, use?

<p>They block the integration of viral DNA into the host genome. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of medication does maraviroc belong to?

<p>CCR5 antagonists. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended frequency for blood assessment in patients using PrEP?

<p>Every 3 months. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true about zidovudine in HIV treatment?

<p>It is often used in combination with other antiviral drugs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary characteristic of malignant melanoma lesions?

<p>Irregular borders with discolorations (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended treatment for deeper melanoma lesions?

<p>Wide local excision or skin grafts (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor significantly increases the risk of developing malignant melanoma?

<p>Frequent sun exposure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical diagnostic procedure for confirming melanoma?

<p>Biopsy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In treating MRSA infections, which antibiotic is NOT an option?

<p>Amoxicillin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common presentation of HIV infection in its early stages?

<p>Flu-like symptoms (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment is recommended for patients with stage 3 and stage 4 melanoma?

<p>Intravenous checkpoint inhibitors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial nursing consideration for patients with localized pus?

<p>Performing incision and drainage (I&amp;D) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory finding is primarily associated with diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Elevated anti-CCP levels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common non-medication related complication associated with lupus?

<p>Lupus nephritis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is recommended for chronic gout management?

<p>Allopurinol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical manifestations is typical of gout?

<p>Severe pain, redness, swelling, and warmth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What lifestyle factor significantly increases the risk of developing gout?

<p>Heavy consumption of red meat (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is associated with lupus and can help in identifying the condition?

<p>Raynaud's phenomenon (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnosis is indicated by elevated levels of uric acid?

<p>Gout (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What treatment is commonly prescribed to manage acute flares of gout?

<p>Colchicine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical consideration when using corticosteroids for flare-ups?

<p>They can increase the risk of hyperglycemia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment is recommended for managing pruritus effectively?

<p>Cool compresses and antihistamines. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing action is important to prevent complications of pruritus?

<p>Trimming nails to prevent skin injury. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What CD4 + T-cell count characterizes Stage 1 of HIV infection?

<p>500 or more cells/mm3 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic area for folliculitis development?

<p>Beard area and legs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom during the acute infection stage of HIV?

<p>Fever and night sweats (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of infection commonly causes folliculitis?

<p>Bacterial infection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which stage of HIV infection do opportunistic infections typically first appear?

<p>Stage 3 (AIDS) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common non-prescription treatment option for pruritus?

<p>Moisturizers and oatmeal baths. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of the CD4 + T cell count in HIV management?

<p>To monitor immune function (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant risk when patients are treated with NSAIDs?

<p>GI bleeding and ulcers. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the chronic asymptomatic stage of HIV?

<p>A period that can last up to 10 years (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of body surface area does a burn on the anterior chest cover, according to the Rule of Nines?

<p>18% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important consideration for administering DMARDs like methotrexate?

<p>Regular eye exams are required. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes primary HIV diagnosis?

<p>Detection of HIV antibodies (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptom is commonly associated with Stage 2 of HIV infection?

<p>CD4 + T-cell count 200-499 cells/mm3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Hydroxychloroquine use

Used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and lupus.

Zidovudine's role

A Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NRTI) used in HIV treatment.

NSAIDs in Arthritis

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs used in rheumatoid arthritis treatment.

Antivirals for Herpes-Zoster

Acyclovir, valacyclovir, and famciclovir are the first-line treatments.

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HIV PrEP

A daily pill containing tenofovir and emtricitabine to prevent HIV infection.

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ART Therapy (HIV)

A combination of drugs to suppress HIV replication and reduce transmission risk.

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Gout etiology

A chronic inflammatory arthritis caused by high uric acid levels.

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ART component classes

NRTIs, NNRTIs, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors, integrase strand transfer inhibitors, and CCR5 antagonists are all part of ART therapies.

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Gout Symptoms

Severe pain, redness, swelling, and warmth in affected joints.

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Gout Risk Factors

Male gender, increasing age, high BMI, alcohol consumption, high red meat intake, and high fructose intake contribute to gout incidence.

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Gout Diagnosis

Elevated uric acid levels in the blood are key to diagnosing gout.

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Gout Treatment - Acute

Colchicine is used to manage acute gout flares.

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Gout Treatment - Chronic

Allopurinol is used daily to manage the long-term issues of chronic gout.

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Lupus Symptoms

Lupus is a widespread autoimmune disease causing inflammation and tissue damage, impacting joints, skin, and other organs.

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Lupus Diagnosis

Increased antinuclear antibodies (ANA), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and BUN/Creatinine levels indicate potential lupus.

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Rheumatoid Arthritis Symptoms

Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that causes bilateral, symmetrical inflammation of joints, often leading to pain and swelling.

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Superficial Burn

A burn that affects the epidermis, the outermost layer of skin. It can be painful, cause tingling, redness, dryness, and possibly blistering and peeling.

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Partial Thickness Burn

A burn that affects the epidermis and parts of the dermis, the layer beneath the epidermis. It causes pain, blistering, mottled red skin, and swelling.

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Full Thickness Burn

The most severe burn that affects all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, and potentially deeper tissues like muscle and bone. It causes painless, white, leathery, and charred skin, and swelling. The skin cannot regenerate.

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Inhalation Injury

Damage to the respiratory system due to smoke or hot gases inhaled during a fire. Symptoms include singed facial or nasal hair, stridor (noisy breathing), coughing, and wheezing.

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LR for Burn Victims

Lactated Ringer's (LR) is the preferred fluid for rehydration in burn victims. It helps replenish fluids lost through damaged skin and maintains electrolyte balance.

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What is the main side effect of NSAIDs?

Gastrointestinal bleeding, which can lead to red vomit or black, tarry stools.

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What medication can be used to prevent GI bleeding with NSAIDs?

H2 antagonists, such as ranitidine, are used to decrease stomach acid production and reduce the risk of bleeding ulcers.

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What are the potential side effects of corticosteroids?

Corticosteroids can cause high blood pressure, elevated blood sugar, GI bleeding, and suppression of the immune system.

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What is a key precaution for methotrexate?

Methotrexate is a DMARD used for rheumatoid arthritis. It should not be taken during pregnancy and alcohol consumption is strictly prohibited.

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What is the most important nursing action for someone scratching from pruritus?

Trim their nails to prevent skin damage and further infection.

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What are the main medical treatments for pruritus?

Antihistamines, SSRIs, lidocaine/prilocaine, topical steroids, and non-prescription options like oatmeal baths, calamine lotion, and moisturizers.

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What is the key factor in bath temperature for pruritus?

Use tepid or warm water for bathing as hot water can dry out the skin further.

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Explain the common areas affected by folliculitis.

Folliculitis is a hair follicle infection often found in the beard area of men, the legs and pubic area of women, and areas like the armpits, trunk, and buttocks.

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MRSA Treatment

Antibiotics like clindamycin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, doxycycline, or minocycline are used to treat Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections.

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Localized Pus

When pus is localized, incision and drainage (I&D) is performed to release the pus and promote healing.

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Malignant Melanoma

A type of skin cancer where abnormal cells invade both the epidermis and dermis, often presenting with irregular borders and discoloration.

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Melanoma Risk Factors

Fair skin, freckles, blue eyes, light hair, and people who burn easily or don't tan are at increased risk for melanoma. Excessive sun exposure is a major contributor.

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Melanoma Characteristics

Malignant melanoma typically appears dark, red, blue, or a mix of colors, with an irregular shape.

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Melanoma Diagnosis

A biopsy confirms a melanoma diagnosis. Excisional biopsy provides information about the type, invasion level, and thickness of the lesion.

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Melanoma Treatment

Small, superficial lesions are treated with surgical excision. Deeper lesions may require wider excision, skin grafts, or flaps.

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Checkpoint Inhibitors for Melanoma

Intravenous checkpoint inhibitors like pembrolizumab, nivolumab, or ipilimumab are used to treat stage 3 and 4 melanoma. They enhance the action of T cells by inhibiting an 'off' switch, making them better at attacking cancer cells.

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HIV Stage 0

The initial stage of HIV infection, characterized by flu-like symptoms and high contagiousness. It lasts about 2-4 weeks after exposure.

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HIV Stage 1 (Clinical Latency)

An asymptomatic stage of HIV where the virus is still present but inactive, and the CD4+ T-cell count is above 500 cells/mm3. This stage can last for years.

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HIV Stage 2 (Symptomatic)

A stage of HIV characterized by a weakened immune system, with a CD4+ T-cell count between 200-499 cells/mm3 and increasing symptoms.

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HIV Stage 3 (AIDS)

The most advanced stage of HIV infection, where the immune system is severely compromised, CD4+ T-cell count drops below 200 cells/mm3, opportunistic infections are frequent, and AIDS-defining illnesses emerge.

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HIV Labs

Key labs used to monitor HIV infection include CD4+ T-cell count and Viral Load Tests.

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Rule of Nines

A method used to estimate the percentage of body surface area affected by burns, essential for burn care and prognosis.

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Superficial (First Degree) Burn

The least severe type of burn, affecting only the outer layer of skin, characterized by redness, pain, and swelling.

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Opportunistic Infections (HIV)

Infections that occur more frequently and severely in people with weakened immune systems, like those with AIDS.

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Hydroxychloroquine

A medication that is both a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) and an antimalarial, used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. It can be taken with NSAIDs.

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Zidovudine

A nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) used to treat HIV infection. It's often combined with protease inhibitors like ritonavir.

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PrEP

Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) is a daily pill containing tenofovir and emtricitabine, taken to prevent HIV infection in people 12 and older. It's important to use condoms with PrEP.

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ART

Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a combination of medications used to suppress HIV replication, slow disease progression, and reduce transmission risk. It's recommended for everyone who tests positive for HIV before their CD4+ cell count drops below 350.

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NRTIs

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) like zidovudine block phase 3 of HIV replication by stopping the virus from producing DNA.

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Protease Inhibitors

Protease inhibitors, which often end in “-navir”, like fosamprenavir, block phase 5 of HIV replication by preventing the virus from assembling new viruses.

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Gout

Gout is a chronic inflammatory arthritis caused by high levels of uric acid in the body. It can cause severe pain, redness, swelling, and warmth in joints, especially the big toe.

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Lupus Treatment

NSAIDS, steroids, immunosuppressants, and antimalarials (hydroxychloroquine) are used to manage the symptoms and inflammation.

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Rheumatoid Arthritis

An autoimmune disease causing bilateral, symmetrical inflammation of joints, often leading to pain and swelling.

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Rheumatoid Arthritis Treatment

Treatments include NSAIDs, DMARDs, corticosteroids, and biologics to reduce inflammation and pain.

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What are NSAIDs and what are they used for?

NSAIDs, like ibuprofen and naproxen, are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs used to reduce pain and inflammation in conditions like arthritis.

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What's a common side effect of NSAIDs?

A common side effect of NSAIDs is GI bleeding, which can lead to red vomit or black, tarry stools.

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How do you reduce the risk of GI bleeding with NSAIDs?

H2 antagonists, like ranitidine, are used to reduce stomach acid production, thus preventing ulcers and reducing the risk of bleeding.

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What are corticosteroids and what are they used for?

Corticosteroids are powerful anti-inflammatory drugs often used to treat flare-ups of inflammatory conditions.

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What's the key precaution for methotrexate?

Methotrexate, a DMARD used for rheumatoid arthritis, should not be taken during pregnancy, and alcohol consumption is strictly prohibited.

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What's the most important nursing action for pruritus?

Trim the patient's nails to prevent scratching and the risk of skin damage and infection.

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Melanoma Signs

Melanoma often appears dark, red, blue, or a mix of colors, with an irregular shape.

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Checkpoint Inhibitors (Melanoma)

These drugs boost immune cells by blocking 'off' switches, making them better at attacking cancer cells.

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What is the most concerning complication with a large burn affecting the face?

The main concern with a large burn affecting the face is ensuring a patent airway and adequate breathing, as swelling can quickly obstruct the airway.

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What is the preferred fluid for burn victims?

Lactated Ringer's (LR) is the preferred fluid for rehydrating burn victims, as it helps restore fluid volume and electrolytes lost through damaged skin.

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Silver sulfadiazine's application

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is a topical antibiotic for burns applied with a glove 1-3 times daily. It cannot be used on patients with a sulfa allergy.

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Mafenide acetate's unique property

Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is a topical antibiotic for burns that can diffuse through eschar and avascular tissue, killing bacteria beneath the burn.

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Silver nitrate's application and precautions

Silver nitrate is a topical antibiotic for burns applied to gauze and placed on the wound. Keep the dressing wet but covered. Monitor sodium and potassium levels, and keep it covered to prevent staining.

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What is the most important lab to monitor HIV infection?

The CD4+ T-cell count is the most important lab to monitor HIV infection, as it reflects the strength of the immune system. A lower count indicates a weakened immune system and a higher risk of developing AIDS.

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Study Notes

Immunology Problems

  • Hydroxychloroquine: Used for rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. May be used concurrently with NSAIDs. Monitor for visual changes, GI upset, skin rash, headaches, and photosensitivity.
  • Zidovudine (NRTI): Used in HIV treatment, often in combination with other protease inhibitors.
  • NSAIDs: Used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Adverse effects include GI bleeding/ulcers. Avoid use with alcohol or steroids. Use H2 antagonists to prevent GI bleeding.
  • Antivirals:
  • HIV (PrEP): A pre-exposure prophylaxis medication for HIV using tenofovir disoproxil fumarate and emtricitabine. Should be combined with condom use for maximum effectiveness and blood should be tested for HIV every 3 months.
  • Herpes-zoster: Acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir are first-line treatments.

HIV/AIDS Medications

  • ART (Antiretroviral Agents): A combination of drugs used to suppress viral replication, prevent disease progression, and reduce transmission risk. All those with a positive test will receive these drugs. Monitoring is done through CD4+ cell counts.
  • Classes of ART:
  • Fusion Inhibitors: Enfuvirtide (stops phase 2)
  • NRTIs: Zidovudine, blocks phase 3. Other NRTIs and NNRTIs are also used.
  • Protease Inhibitors: End in "navir" (e.g., fosamprenavir)(stops phase 5)
  • Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors: Raltegravir (blocks a phase 5 enzyme)
  • CCR5 Antagonist: Maraviroc (Stops HIV entry into cell)

Autoimmune Diseases

  • Gout: Inflammatory arthritis resulting from high uric acid levels. Risk factors increase with age, BMI, alcohol use, fructose consumption, and diuretic use. Higher consumption of red meat increases risk. Symptoms include severe pain, redness, swelling, warmth in affected joints. Labs measure uric acid levels.

Other Topics

  • Lupus: Widespread autoimmune disease impacting joints, skin, blood vessels. Symptoms include alopecia, Raynaud's phenomenon, butterfly rash, Labs show increased antinuclear antibodies (ANA),erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), & BUN/Creatinine. Monitor for lupus nephritis, cardiac inflammation/myocardial ischemia, pericarditis, pericardial friction rub, dysrhythmias, and F&E imbalances.
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis: Autoimmune condition causing inflammation of joints. Symptoms include bilateral, symmetrical, painful, hot, swollen joints. Possible systemic effects like anemia, pericarditis, arteritis, neuropathies, and Sjögren's syndrome (dry eyes). Dx includes elevated ESR & CRP, anti-CCP (test). Treatment combines NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen, naproxen) with corticosteroids and disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs).
  • Folliculitis: Bacterial or fungal infection of hair follicles. Can be treated with oral antibiotics.
  • Malignant Melanoma: Malignant tumor of skin cells, often associated with sun exposure. S/S include: irregular borders, discolorations, and possible metastasizing to other locations. Dx is confirmed with an excisional biopsy. Tx usually involves surgical removal of the lesion.
  • Burns: Categorized as superficial (epidermis), partial thickness (epidermis & dermis), or full-thickness (epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue potentially). Management of burns involves monitoring for fluid imbalances and keeping the affected area clean.

HIV/AIDS Stages

  • 0 (Acute Infection/Seroconversion): Early stage of HIV infection, characterized by flu-like symptoms (fever, malaise, fatigue).
  • 1 (Clinical Latency): Asymptomatic stage that may last for years, with CD4+ T-cell counts above 500.
  • 2 (Symptomatic): CD4+ T-cell count between 200 and 499, causing mild symptoms.
  • 3 (AIDS): CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/mm³. Presence of opportunistic infections.

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