Unit 1
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Questions and Answers

What is a common side effect of NSAIDs like ibuprofen and naproxen?

  • Weight gain
  • Drowsiness
  • Hypertension
  • GI bleeding or ulcers (correct)

    • What is a critical restriction for patients taking methotrexate?

  • Do not consume alcohol (correct)
  • Limit physical activity
  • Avoid high-fiber diets
  • Avoid citrus fruits

    • What type of treatment is recommended for timely management of pruritus?

  • Invasive procedures
  • Antihistamines (correct)
  • Immunosuppressants
  • Topical antibiotics

    • Which of the following is advisable for a patient experiencing folliculitis?

    <p>Oral cephalosporins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often should patients on DMARDs like hydroxychloroquine have eye exams?

    <p>Every 6-12 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended bathing practice for elderly patients with sensitive skin?

    <p>Tepid or warm water baths</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What educational advice is given regarding the use of corticosteroids?

    <p>They can lead to immune suppression.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What lifestyle modification should patients take to prevent pruritus complications?

    <p>Trimming nails to prevent scratches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibiotic agents may be selected if MRSA is suspected?

    <p>Clindamycin and Doxycycline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic of malignant melanoma lesions?

    <p>Irregular borders with discolorations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a significant risk factor for developing malignant melanoma?

    <p>Skin that burns easily, freckles, or has light hair</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for small, superficial lesions of melanoma?

    <p>Surgical excision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does HIV primarily affect the immune system?

    <p>By targeting and destroying CD4+ T cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What observation might indicate early signs of melanoma?

    <p>A lesion that changes color, size, or shape</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications is used to manage patients with stage 3 and stage 4 melanoma?

    <p>Nivolumab</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of using incision and drainage (I&D) when pus is localized?

    <p>To relieve pressure and remove infected material</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which joints are impacted by gout?

    <p>Great toe, hands, ankles, knees, elbows, and fingers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing gout?

    <p>Increase in alcohol consumption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical manifestation of gout?

    <p>Severe pain, redness, swelling, and warmth of the affected joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What lab test is primarily used to evaluate gout?

    <p>Uric acid level</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is characteristic of lupus?

    <p>Butterfly rash (symmetrical)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common treatment for chronic gout?

    <p>Allopurinol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which complication is associated with lupus?

    <p>Lupus nephritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory finding is commonly elevated in rheumatoid arthritis?

    <p>C-reactive protein (CRP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary use of Hydroxychloroquine?

    <p>Management of rheumatoid arthritis and Lupus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which side effect is common with NSAIDs?

    <p>GI bleeding/ulcers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT typically a consideration when administering Zidovudine?

    <p>Administered to patients with rheumatoid arthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the goal of Antiretroviral Therapy (ART)?

    <p>To suppress viral replication and prevent disease progression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does PrEP stand for in the context of HIV prevention?

    <p>Pre-exposure prophylaxis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which agent is classified as a Protease Inhibitor?

    <p>Fosamprenavir</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes CCR5 Antagonists?

    <p>They inhibit viral entry into CD4+ cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of drugs is typically NOT used for the treatment of gout?

    <p>Antivirals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the CD4 + T-cell count in Stage 1 of HIV infection?

    <p>500 cells/mm3 or greater</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptoms are characteristic of Stage 0 (acute infection) of HIV?

    <p>Fever, malaise, and rash</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of CD4 + T cell count in HIV management?

    <p>To monitor treatment efficacy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates a diagnosis of AIDS?

    <p>Both a low CD4 count and opportunistic infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the patient presentation during the chronic asymptomatic stage of HIV?

    <p>No visible symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the Rule of Nines used for?

    <p>Assessing burn extent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes HIV antibody tests?

    <p>Detect antibodies against HIV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding individuals with AIDS?

    <p>Everyone with AIDS is infected with HIV.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic symptom of a partial thickness (second-degree) burn?

    <p>Blistered and mottled red skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main concern if a patient has a large percentage of burn affecting the face?

    <p>Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication can diffuse through eschar and kill bacteria underneath?

    <p>Mafenide acetate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms indicates an inhalation injury?

    <p>Singed facial or nasal hairs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended intervention for managing patients with suspected inhalation injury?

    <p>100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a defining characteristic of a full-thickness burn?

    <p>Destroys nerve fibers resulting in painless skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with partial thickness (second-degree) burns?

    <p>Mottled red skin with edema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential complication arises if a patient's face suffers a large percentage of burns?

    <p>Airway compromise due to ABC concerns</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication cannot be used in patients with a sulfa allergy?

    <p>Silver sulfadiazine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sign may indicate an inhalation injury?

    <p>Coughing and wheezing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main role of ART in HIV treatment?

    <p>Suppress viral replication and prevent disease progression.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug combination is used in PrEP for HIV prevention?

    <p>Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate and emtricitabine.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common adverse effect of NSAIDs?

    <p>GI bleeding and ulcers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary characteristic of hydroxychloroquine in treatment?

    <p>It may cause visual changes and GI upset.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism do integrase strand transfer inhibitors, like raltegravir, use?

    <p>They block the integration of viral DNA into the host genome.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of medication does maraviroc belong to?

    <p>CCR5 antagonists.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended frequency for blood assessment in patients using PrEP?

    <p>Every 3 months.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true about zidovudine in HIV treatment?

    <p>It is often used in combination with other antiviral drugs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary characteristic of malignant melanoma lesions?

    <p>Irregular borders with discolorations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended treatment for deeper melanoma lesions?

    <p>Wide local excision or skin grafts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor significantly increases the risk of developing malignant melanoma?

    <p>Frequent sun exposure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical diagnostic procedure for confirming melanoma?

    <p>Biopsy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In treating MRSA infections, which antibiotic is NOT an option?

    <p>Amoxicillin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common presentation of HIV infection in its early stages?

    <p>Flu-like symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is recommended for patients with stage 3 and stage 4 melanoma?

    <p>Intravenous checkpoint inhibitors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a crucial nursing consideration for patients with localized pus?

    <p>Performing incision and drainage (I&amp;D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory finding is primarily associated with diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis?

    <p>Elevated anti-CCP levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common non-medication related complication associated with lupus?

    <p>Lupus nephritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is recommended for chronic gout management?

    <p>Allopurinol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following clinical manifestations is typical of gout?

    <p>Severe pain, redness, swelling, and warmth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What lifestyle factor significantly increases the risk of developing gout?

    <p>Heavy consumption of red meat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is associated with lupus and can help in identifying the condition?

    <p>Raynaud's phenomenon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnosis is indicated by elevated levels of uric acid?

    <p>Gout</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment is commonly prescribed to manage acute flares of gout?

    <p>Colchicine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical consideration when using corticosteroids for flare-ups?

    <p>They can increase the risk of hyperglycemia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is recommended for managing pruritus effectively?

    <p>Cool compresses and antihistamines.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What nursing action is important to prevent complications of pruritus?

    <p>Trimming nails to prevent skin injury.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What CD4 + T-cell count characterizes Stage 1 of HIV infection?

    <p>500 or more cells/mm3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic area for folliculitis development?

    <p>Beard area and legs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom during the acute infection stage of HIV?

    <p>Fever and night sweats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of infection commonly causes folliculitis?

    <p>Bacterial infection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which stage of HIV infection do opportunistic infections typically first appear?

    <p>Stage 3 (AIDS)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common non-prescription treatment option for pruritus?

    <p>Moisturizers and oatmeal baths.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of the CD4 + T cell count in HIV management?

    <p>To monitor immune function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk when patients are treated with NSAIDs?

    <p>GI bleeding and ulcers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the chronic asymptomatic stage of HIV?

    <p>A period that can last up to 10 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of body surface area does a burn on the anterior chest cover, according to the Rule of Nines?

    <p>18%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important consideration for administering DMARDs like methotrexate?

    <p>Regular eye exams are required.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes primary HIV diagnosis?

    <p>Detection of HIV antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is commonly associated with Stage 2 of HIV infection?

    <p>CD4 + T-cell count 200-499 cells/mm3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Immunology Problems

    • Hydroxychloroquine: Used for rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. May be used concurrently with NSAIDs. Monitor for visual changes, GI upset, skin rash, headaches, and photosensitivity.
    • Zidovudine (NRTI): Used in HIV treatment, often in combination with other protease inhibitors.
    • NSAIDs: Used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Adverse effects include GI bleeding/ulcers. Avoid use with alcohol or steroids. Use H2 antagonists to prevent GI bleeding.
    • Antivirals:
    • HIV (PrEP): A pre-exposure prophylaxis medication for HIV using tenofovir disoproxil fumarate and emtricitabine. Should be combined with condom use for maximum effectiveness and blood should be tested for HIV every 3 months.
    • Herpes-zoster: Acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir are first-line treatments.

    HIV/AIDS Medications

    • ART (Antiretroviral Agents): A combination of drugs used to suppress viral replication, prevent disease progression, and reduce transmission risk. All those with a positive test will receive these drugs. Monitoring is done through CD4+ cell counts.
    • Classes of ART:
    • Fusion Inhibitors: Enfuvirtide (stops phase 2)
    • NRTIs: Zidovudine, blocks phase 3. Other NRTIs and NNRTIs are also used.
    • Protease Inhibitors: End in "navir" (e.g., fosamprenavir)(stops phase 5)
    • Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors: Raltegravir (blocks a phase 5 enzyme)
    • CCR5 Antagonist: Maraviroc (Stops HIV entry into cell)

    Autoimmune Diseases

    • Gout: Inflammatory arthritis resulting from high uric acid levels. Risk factors increase with age, BMI, alcohol use, fructose consumption, and diuretic use. Higher consumption of red meat increases risk. Symptoms include severe pain, redness, swelling, warmth in affected joints. Labs measure uric acid levels.

    Other Topics

    • Lupus: Widespread autoimmune disease impacting joints, skin, blood vessels. Symptoms include alopecia, Raynaud's phenomenon, butterfly rash, Labs show increased antinuclear antibodies (ANA),erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), & BUN/Creatinine. Monitor for lupus nephritis, cardiac inflammation/myocardial ischemia, pericarditis, pericardial friction rub, dysrhythmias, and F&E imbalances.
    • Rheumatoid Arthritis: Autoimmune condition causing inflammation of joints. Symptoms include bilateral, symmetrical, painful, hot, swollen joints. Possible systemic effects like anemia, pericarditis, arteritis, neuropathies, and Sjögren's syndrome (dry eyes). Dx includes elevated ESR & CRP, anti-CCP (test). Treatment combines NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen, naproxen) with corticosteroids and disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs).
    • Folliculitis: Bacterial or fungal infection of hair follicles. Can be treated with oral antibiotics.
    • Malignant Melanoma: Malignant tumor of skin cells, often associated with sun exposure. S/S include: irregular borders, discolorations, and possible metastasizing to other locations. Dx is confirmed with an excisional biopsy. Tx usually involves surgical removal of the lesion.
    • Burns: Categorized as superficial (epidermis), partial thickness (epidermis & dermis), or full-thickness (epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue potentially). Management of burns involves monitoring for fluid imbalances and keeping the affected area clean.

    HIV/AIDS Stages

    • 0 (Acute Infection/Seroconversion): Early stage of HIV infection, characterized by flu-like symptoms (fever, malaise, fatigue).
    • 1 (Clinical Latency): Asymptomatic stage that may last for years, with CD4+ T-cell counts above 500.
    • 2 (Symptomatic): CD4+ T-cell count between 200 and 499, causing mild symptoms.
    • 3 (AIDS): CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/mm³. Presence of opportunistic infections.

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    Unit 1 Immunology Problems PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on immunology problems and HIV/AIDS medications. This quiz covers important drugs like hydroxychloroquine, zidovudine, and various antivirals, including their uses and potential adverse effects. Stay updated on the latest treatments and recommendations for managing these health conditions.

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