Immunology Hypersensitivity Reactions Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the main characteristic of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

  • Does not lead to local symptoms
  • Causes systemic hypotension and bronchoconstriction (correct)
  • Mediated by IgG antibodies
  • Primarily involves macrophages
  • Which of the following best describes the role of autoantibodies in Grave’s disease under Type 2 hypersensitivity?

  • They primarily cause inflammation and swelling.
  • They cause cell lysis and tissue destruction.
  • They directly kill thyroid cells.
  • They mimic TSH, overstimulating the thyroid. (correct)
  • How do immune complexes lead to tissue damage in Type 3 hypersensitivity?

  • They block neurotransmitter release, leading to paralysis.
  • They cause an allergic reaction through IgE.
  • They activate cytotoxic T cells that destroy tissues.
  • They deposit in tissues and trigger inflammation. (correct)
  • Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with Type 1 hypersensitivity?

    <p>Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effector cell involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>Macrophages (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main treatment for anaphylactic reactions, a form of Type 1 hypersensitivity?

    <p>Epinephrine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition do autoantibodies primarily stimulate the target organ without causing direct cell lysis?

    <p>Grave’s disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where do immune complexes typically deposit in the body during Type 3 hypersensitivity?

    <p>Blood vessel walls and kidneys (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential complication associated with previous radiation therapy to the chest?

    <p>Valve calcification (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic physical exam finding associated with aortic stenosis, often heard at the right second intercostal space?

    <p>Systolic ejection murmur (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these medications might be used to help manage heart rate and reduce symptoms in patients with aortic stenosis, especially those experiencing exertional angina?

    <p>Beta-blockers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is recommended for asymptomatic patients with aortic stenosis?

    <p>Regular follow-up with echocardiography (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications should be used with caution in patients with aortic stenosis due to their potential to decrease systemic vascular resistance and lead to hypotension?

    <p>Vasodilators (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>Antibody binds to antigens on cell surfaces (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary feature of Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>Formation of immune complexes that deposit in tissues (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is an example of a Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?

    <p>Rheumatoid arthritis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following triggers flare-ups in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?

    <p>Hormonal changes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism involved in Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>T-cell mediated response against antigens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate treatment for non-severe contact dermatitis?

    <p>Topical corticosteroids (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition do maternal antibodies lead to destruction of the baby's red blood cells?

    <p>Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following does not involve antigen-antibody complexes in hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>Type 4 hypersensitivity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom experienced during a flare-up of SLE?

    <p>Joint pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes Type I hypersensitivity from Type IV hypersensitivity with regards to rash development?

    <p>Timing of rash onset (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Type 1 hypersensitivity, what mechanism leads to the release of inflammatory mediators?

    <p>Mast cell degranulation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of antibodies is predominantly involved in Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>IgM (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a transfusion reaction, what is an example of alloimmunity?

    <p>Response to transfused blood as foreign (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of hypersensitivity is characterized by a response to a chemical like urushiol from poison ivy?

    <p>Type 4 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly associated with megaloblastic anemia?

    <p>Vitamin B12 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic laboratory finding in folate deficiency?

    <p>High MCV (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency?

    <p>Fatigue (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of anemia is caused by the destruction of red blood cells?

    <p>Hemolytic anemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition do patients often present with microcytic anemia due to chronic disease?

    <p>Anemia of Chronic Disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What risk factor can contribute to a folate deficiency in alcoholics?

    <p>Poor nutritional intake (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause behind chronic renal failure-related anemia?

    <p>Decreased erythropoietin production (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common cause of secondary immunodeficiency?

    <p>Malnutrition (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these factors is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?

    <p>Smoking (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What cardiovascular condition is characterized by atherosclerosis within coronary arteries?

    <p>Coronary Artery Disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immunoglobulin is primarily low in patients with Common Variable Immunodeficiency?

    <p>IgG (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is contraindicated for severely immunocompromised individuals?

    <p>Live attenuated vaccines (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible consequence of plaque rupture in atherosclerosis?

    <p>Myocardial infarction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with angina due to coronary artery disease?

    <p>Shortness of breath (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition could lead to chronic diarrhea and gastrointestinal issues in Common Variable Immunodeficiency?

    <p>Autoimmune disorders (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can result in a sudden decrease in effective stroke volume?

    <p>Sustained tachycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lab finding is typically elevated in iron deficiency anemia?

    <p>Total iron binding capacity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What lab measure is essential for evaluating the body’s total iron stores?

    <p>Ferritin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What laboratory finding is common in patients with sickle cell anemia?

    <p>High reticulocyte count (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes thalassemia as an inherited disorder?

    <p>Decreased red blood cell count (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What tends to be normal in the lab findings of thalassemia?

    <p>Total Iron binding capacity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which type of anemia would you expect an increased RBC distribution width?

    <p>Iron deficiency anemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of administering inactivated vaccines to immunocompromised individuals?

    <p>No disease risk (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anemia type is characterized by normal RBC distribution width?

    <p>Anemia of chronic disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant symptom of Common Variable Immunodeficiency?

    <p>Frequent respiratory infections (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of anemia is characterized as microcytic/hypochromic?

    <p>Iron deficiency anemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What major marker is often increased during the development of microcytic anemia?

    <p>RBC distribution width (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine type is generally safe and effective for immunocompromised patients?

    <p>Inactivated vaccines (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What classic symptom triad is associated with aortic stenosis?

    <p>Loud harsh murmur, angina, and exertional dyspnea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following pulses characteristic in aortic stenosis indicates reduced stroke volume?

    <p>Weak and delayed pulse (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason to avoid vasodilators in patients with aortic stenosis?

    <p>They may lead to hypotension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is surgical intervention indicated for patients with aortic stenosis?

    <p>In symptomatic patients or those with severe stenosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom might occur in patients with aortic stenosis due to increased myocardial oxygen demand?

    <p>Exertional dyspnea (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is primarily responsible for the presence of megaloblasts in the bone marrow?

    <p>Deficiencies in vitamin B12 or folate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following lab parameters is typically high in folate deficiency?

    <p>MCV (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is specifically associated with vitamin B12 deficiency?

    <p>Peripheral neuropathy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common cause of hemolytic anemia?

    <p>Mismatched blood transfusions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of anemia is caused by a mutation in the HBB gene?

    <p>Sickle cell anemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In chronic renal failure, what is primarily decreased leading to anemia?

    <p>Erythropoietin (EPO) production (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?

    <p>Smoking (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does decreased stroke volume in a sustained tachycardia situation primarily result from?

    <p>Decreased contractility (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process is involved in the pathology of coronary artery disease?

    <p>Atherosclerosis development (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign associated with myocardial ischemia?

    <p>ST-segment depression on ECG (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors contributes to the development of atherosclerosis?

    <p>Lipid accumulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by normocytic anemia during periods of stable health?

    <p>Sickle cell anemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which dietary group is at higher risk for developing megaloblastic anemia?

    <p>Vegetarians and vegans (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes Type 2 hypersensitivity from Type 3 hypersensitivity?

    <p>Type 3 involves immune complex formation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)?

    <p>Impaired antibody production (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of vaccine is contraindicated for severely immunocompromised individuals?

    <p>Live attenuated vaccines (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common trigger for flare-ups in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?

    <p>Infections or sunlight exposure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hypersensitivity involves T-cell activation against modified skin cells?

    <p>Type 4 hypersensitivity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary immune mediator involved in Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>IgE antibodies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Iron Deficiency Anemia, which lab value is typically decreased?

    <p>Serum iron level (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is most commonly associated with Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)?

    <p>Frequent respiratory infections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Type 3 hypersensitivity, how do immune complexes affect tissues?

    <p>By depositing in tissues and activating complement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is a classic example of alloimmunity?

    <p>Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of serum ferritin levels in diagnosing anemia?

    <p>Reflects body's total iron stores (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true regarding the Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)?

    <p>Indicates hemoglobin content in RBCs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes the rash of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction from a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

    <p>Type I rash occurs immediately while Type IV is delayed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of medication is generally used to manage flare-ups in SLE?

    <p>Antimalarials (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment management for patients with Common Variable Immunodeficiency?

    <p>Immunoglobulin Replacement Therapy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction, where is the lesion typically located?

    <p>At the site of contact with the allergen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Anemia of Chronic Disease, what is typically observed in serum ferritin levels?

    <p>Increased serum ferritin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of corticosteroids in managing Type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>They reduce inflammation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized as a primary immune deficiency resulting from single gene defects?

    <p>Common Variable Immunodeficiency (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What immunological consideration is important for the vaccine decision of an immunocompromised patient?

    <p>Inactivated vaccines are typically safe (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is characteristic of a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?

    <p>Cytotoxic effects due to IgG or IgM binding. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is NOT typically used in the management of Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>Antihistamines (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor distinguishes Sideroblastic Anemia from other types of anemia?

    <p>Normal RBC distribution width (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the types of hypersensitivity?

    <p>Type 2 is mediated by antibodies against cell surface antigens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is anemia caused by thalassemia typically characterized in terms of serum iron levels?

    <p>Normal to decreased (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the RBC distribution width (RDW) in Iron Deficiency Anemia?

    <p>Increased RDW (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?

    <p>Targets specific tissues, leading to alteration or damage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions like Grave’s disease?

    <p>Increased sweating and tremors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, immune complexes typically deposit in which of the following locations?

    <p>Capillary walls and kidneys (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What sets Grave’s disease apart from other Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>It causes excessive stimulation rather than destruction of tissue. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered the main effector mechanism in Type 1 hypersensitivity?

    <p>IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the immediate therapeutic approach for an anaphylactic reaction?

    <p>Epinephrine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What kind of immune response is primarily involved in Type 3 hypersensitivity?

    <p>Formation of antigen-antibody complexes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes a potential consequence of immune complex deposition in tissues?

    <p>Localized edema and tissue damage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common lifestyle modification recommended for heart failure management?

    <p>Dietary changes to include more fruits and vegetables (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What main factor contributes to the decreased cardiac output in heart failure?

    <p>Decrease in contractility (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is typically associated with right-sided heart failure?

    <p>Peripheral edema (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which stage of heart failure does a patient experience symptoms that affect daily functions?

    <p>Stage C (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the first-line medications used for managing heart failure?

    <p>Diuretics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes aortic regurgitation during the diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle?

    <p>Aortic valve incompetence (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physical exam finding is characteristic of aortic regurgitation?

    <p>Diastolic murmur (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a risk factor for developing aortic stenosis?

    <p>History of rheumatic fever (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which NYHA functional classification indicates a marked decrease in physical activity?

    <p>Stage III (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the definitive treatments for symptomatic aortic regurgitation?

    <p>Aortic valve replacement (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of aortic stenosis?

    <p>Narrowing of the aortic valve restricting blood flow (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might indicate advanced heart failure in a patient?

    <p>Presence of orthopnea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which risk factor is specifically associated with aortic regurgitation?

    <p>Age-related degenerative changes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why might patients with left-sided heart failure experience symptoms of right heart failure?

    <p>Fluid back-up from the left side to the right side of the heart (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary impact of long-standing hypertension on the heart?

    <p>Decreased cardiac output (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary underlying issue in heart failure?

    <p>Decreased cardiac output (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what stage of heart failure does a patient still have no symptoms but has structural heart damage?

    <p>Stage B (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which NYHA functional classification indicates a marked limitation of physical activity?

    <p>Stage III (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic murmur is associated with aortic regurgitation?

    <p>High-pitched diastolic murmur (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can lead to aortic regurgitation due to dilation of the aortic root?

    <p>Marfan syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is a common risk factor for developing aortic stenosis?

    <p>Bicuspid aortic valve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definitive treatment for symptomatic aortic regurgitation?

    <p>Aortic valve replacement (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What major change occurs in the left ventricle due to aortic stenosis?

    <p>Ventricular hypertrophy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications is used to reduce afterload in symptomatic patients with aortic regurgitation?

    <p>Calcium channel blockers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which risk factor is commonly associated with the progression of heart failure over time?

    <p>Long-standing hypertension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what stage of heart failure is a heart transplant or pacemaker considered as a treatment option?

    <p>Stage D (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of decreasing contractility on stroke volume and LVEDV?

    <p>Decreases stroke volume and increases LVEDV (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Hypersensitivity Reactions

    • Type 1 (Allergic): Mediated by IgE antibodies, leading to mast cell degranulation and inflammation. Local symptoms include itching and rash; systemic symptoms include wheezing. Anaphylaxis (a severe systemic response) is the most dangerous type. Epinephrine reverses anaphylactic effects.
    • Type 2 (Cytotoxic): Antibodies (IgG or IgM) bind to antigens on specific cell surfaces, triggering cell destruction or altered function. Examples include transfusion reactions and Graves' disease. Graves' disease involves autoantibodies targeting TSH receptors, leading to excessive thyroid hormone production. Incompatible blood types lead to red blood cell destruction. Macrophages are key effector cells.
    • Type 3 (Immune Complex): Soluble antigens combine with antibodies to form immune complexes that deposit in tissues (e.g., blood vessel walls, joints, kidneys), causing inflammation and tissue damage. Examples include rheumatoid arthritis and SLE (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus). SLE involves immune complexes depositing in organs, causing tissue damage; flare-ups are triggered by factors like stress, infections, and sun exposure
    • Type 4 (Delayed): T-cell mediated; does not involve antibodies. Examples include poison ivy (contact dermatitis). Reaction occurs several days after allergen contact; characterized by localized lesions. Treatment involves topical corticosteroids, not epinephrine or antihistamines.

    Differentiating Type 1 vs Type 4 Reactions

    • Type 1 (immediate) reactions have widely distributed lesions, while Type 4 (delayed) reactions exhibit lesions only at the site of contact with the allergen.

    Hypersensitivity Mechanisms Summary

    Type Mechanism Mediators Examples
    Type 1 IgE antibodies bind to allergens, causing mast cell degranulation. IgE, mast cells, histamine, basophils Allergic rhinitis (hay fever)
    Type 2 IgG or IgM antibodies bind to cell surface antigens, triggering cell destruction. IgG, IgM, complement, phagocytes Hemolytic anemia, Graves' disease
    Type 3 Immune complexes form, deposit in tissues, and activate complement. IgG, IgM, complement, neutrophils SLE, rheumatoid arthritis
    Type 4 T-cell mediated response against antigens in tissues, releasing cytokines. T cells (CD8+, CD4+), macrophages Contact dermatitis (poison ivy)

    Primary and Secondary Immunodeficiencies

    • Primary Immunodeficiencies: Caused by genetic defects affecting the immune system. Severe forms are often associated with B-lymphocyte deficiencies.
    • Secondary Immunodeficiencies: Result from other conditions or diseases (e.g., malnutrition, HIV, pregnancy, and certain medications).

    Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)

    • Key Feature: Impaired antibody production, leading to low immunoglobulin levels (IgG, IgA, IgM).
    • Symptoms: Increased infections (especially encapsulated bacteria and certain viruses), chronic GI issues, autoimmune disorders, and lymphadenopathy/splenomegaly.
    • Management: Immunoglobulin replacement therapy, antibiotics, and management of complications.

    Vaccine Considerations in Immunocompromised Individuals

    • Live Attenuated Vaccines: Contraindicated in severely immunocompromised patients due to potential disease risk (e.g., MMR, varicella).
    • Inactivated Vaccines: Generally safe for immunocompromised individuals (e.g., inactivated polio vaccine, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and influenza).
    • Subunit, Recombinant, and mRNA Vaccines: Generally safe and effective for immunocompromised patients (e.g., COVID-19 mRNA vaccines).
    • Herd Immunity: Vaccination of close contacts can provide indirect protection.

    Anemia Types

    • Iron Deficiency Anemia: Microcytic/hypochromic; decreased serum ferritin, serum iron, and transferrin saturation with increased RBC distribution width (RDW).
    • Thalassemia: Increased serum ferritin, with normal to increased RDW.
    • Anemia of Chronic Disease: Normal to increased serum ferritin, normal RDW.
    • Sideroblastic Anemia: Normal to increased serum ferritin, increased RDW.
    • Megaloblastic Anemia: Large, immature red blood cells (megaloblasts), caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 or folate.
    • Folate Deficiency: Low folate levels, possibly normal or low RBCs, high MCV, normal MCHC. Risk factors include vegetarians/vegans, malnutrition, and malabsorption syndromes. Individuals with alcohol abuse at risk.
    • Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Low B12 level, increased MCV, risk factors include older adults and those with H. pylori infections.
    • Hemolytic Anemia: Red blood cells are destroyed; caused by mismatched blood types, autoimmune reactions, or drug reactions. Symptoms include jaundice, fatigue and anemia. Risk increased by hypersensitivity reactions.
    • Sickle Cell Anemia: Inherited disorder causing abnormal hemoglobin, leading to hemolytic anemia; red blood cells can be normocytic during periods of steady state.
    • Anemia of Chronic Kidney Failure: Decreased EPO production.

    Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)

    • Normal: Aplastic anemia, post-hemorrhagic anemia, hemolytic anemia
    • Low: Iron deficiency anemia, sideroblastic anemia, thalassemia
    • High: Hereditary spherocytosis, liver disease, hyperthyroidism, sickle cell disease.

    CAD (Coronary Artery Disease)

    • Pathophysiology: Atherosclerosis (plaque formation) impairs blood flow to the heart, leading to ischemia, angina, and heart attacks.
    • Risk Factors: Non-modifiable (age, genetics); Modifiable (hypertension, hyperlipidemia, smoking, DM, obesity, lack of exercise, poor diet). Stress, chronic inflammation, and cholesterol levels (specifically low-density lipoprotein [LDL]) are also factors.
    • Clinical Application: Presents with chest pain, fatigue, and difficulty sleeping; elevated LDL, triglycerides, and low HDL; ECG showing ST-segment depression
    • Management: Lifestyle modifications (smoking cessation, diet, exercise), pharmacotherapy (statins, beta-blockers, aspirin) and further evaluation (stress test, coronary angiography).

    Heart Failure

    • Pathophysiology: Reduced cardiac output to meet the body's oxygen demands, leading to decreased contractility, decreased stroke volume, and increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume (LVEDV), and dilation. Risk factor: long-standing hypertension.
    • Right vs Leftsided Failure: Left-sided failure may back up fluid to the right side; right-sided failure occurs independently of left side.
    • Stages: Stage A (risk factors), Stage B (structural damage), Stage C (symptomatic), Stage D (end-stage).
    • NYHA Classifications: Stage I-IV, based on level of daily activity limitation due to symptoms.

    Heart Valve Disorders

    • Aortic Regurgitation: Aortic valve fails to close, blood flows back to left ventricle, leading to volume overload and dilation. Risk factors include congenital defects, rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, and aortic root disease. Findings include diastolic murmur, bounding pulses, and signs of heart failure. Treatment includes monitoring, diuretics, vasodilators, beta-blockers, and/or surgery.
    • Aortic Stenosis: Narrowed aortic valve restricts blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta, leading to pressure overload and ventricular hypertrophy. Risk Factors includes age, bicuspid aortic valve, rheumatic fever, hyperlipidemia, and radiation therapy. Findings of systolic ejection murmur, weak and delayed pulse, and signs of heart failure; possible S4 gallop. Treatment includes monitoring, medications (diuretics, beta-blockers), and surgery for symptomatic or severe stenosis.

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    Description

    This quiz tests your understanding of hypersensitivity reactions, specifically Types 1, 2, and 3. You'll explore the characteristics, symptoms, and mechanisms involved, such as the roles of autoantibodies and immune complexes. Test your knowledge on treatments and effector cells associated with these immune responses.

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