Podcast
Questions and Answers
What is the main characteristic of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
What is the main characteristic of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
- Does not lead to local symptoms
- Causes systemic hypotension and bronchoconstriction (correct)
- Mediated by IgG antibodies
- Primarily involves macrophages
Which of the following best describes the role of autoantibodies in Grave’s disease under Type 2 hypersensitivity?
Which of the following best describes the role of autoantibodies in Grave’s disease under Type 2 hypersensitivity?
- They primarily cause inflammation and swelling.
- They cause cell lysis and tissue destruction.
- They directly kill thyroid cells.
- They mimic TSH, overstimulating the thyroid. (correct)
How do immune complexes lead to tissue damage in Type 3 hypersensitivity?
How do immune complexes lead to tissue damage in Type 3 hypersensitivity?
- They block neurotransmitter release, leading to paralysis.
- They cause an allergic reaction through IgE.
- They activate cytotoxic T cells that destroy tissues.
- They deposit in tissues and trigger inflammation. (correct)
Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with Type 1 hypersensitivity?
Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with Type 1 hypersensitivity?
What is the primary effector cell involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?
What is the primary effector cell involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?
What is the main treatment for anaphylactic reactions, a form of Type 1 hypersensitivity?
What is the main treatment for anaphylactic reactions, a form of Type 1 hypersensitivity?
In which condition do autoantibodies primarily stimulate the target organ without causing direct cell lysis?
In which condition do autoantibodies primarily stimulate the target organ without causing direct cell lysis?
Where do immune complexes typically deposit in the body during Type 3 hypersensitivity?
Where do immune complexes typically deposit in the body during Type 3 hypersensitivity?
Which of the following is a potential complication associated with previous radiation therapy to the chest?
Which of the following is a potential complication associated with previous radiation therapy to the chest?
What is a characteristic physical exam finding associated with aortic stenosis, often heard at the right second intercostal space?
What is a characteristic physical exam finding associated with aortic stenosis, often heard at the right second intercostal space?
Which of these medications might be used to help manage heart rate and reduce symptoms in patients with aortic stenosis, especially those experiencing exertional angina?
Which of these medications might be used to help manage heart rate and reduce symptoms in patients with aortic stenosis, especially those experiencing exertional angina?
What is recommended for asymptomatic patients with aortic stenosis?
What is recommended for asymptomatic patients with aortic stenosis?
Which of the following medications should be used with caution in patients with aortic stenosis due to their potential to decrease systemic vascular resistance and lead to hypotension?
Which of the following medications should be used with caution in patients with aortic stenosis due to their potential to decrease systemic vascular resistance and lead to hypotension?
What characterizes Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?
What characterizes Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?
What is a primary feature of Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions?
What is a primary feature of Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions?
Which condition is an example of a Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?
Which condition is an example of a Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?
Which of the following triggers flare-ups in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Which of the following triggers flare-ups in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
What is the mechanism involved in Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions?
What is the mechanism involved in Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions?
What is the appropriate treatment for non-severe contact dermatitis?
What is the appropriate treatment for non-severe contact dermatitis?
In which condition do maternal antibodies lead to destruction of the baby's red blood cells?
In which condition do maternal antibodies lead to destruction of the baby's red blood cells?
Which of the following does not involve antigen-antibody complexes in hypersensitivity reactions?
Which of the following does not involve antigen-antibody complexes in hypersensitivity reactions?
What is a common symptom experienced during a flare-up of SLE?
What is a common symptom experienced during a flare-up of SLE?
What distinguishes Type I hypersensitivity from Type IV hypersensitivity with regards to rash development?
What distinguishes Type I hypersensitivity from Type IV hypersensitivity with regards to rash development?
In Type 1 hypersensitivity, what mechanism leads to the release of inflammatory mediators?
In Type 1 hypersensitivity, what mechanism leads to the release of inflammatory mediators?
Which class of antibodies is predominantly involved in Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions?
Which class of antibodies is predominantly involved in Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions?
In a transfusion reaction, what is an example of alloimmunity?
In a transfusion reaction, what is an example of alloimmunity?
What type of hypersensitivity is characterized by a response to a chemical like urushiol from poison ivy?
What type of hypersensitivity is characterized by a response to a chemical like urushiol from poison ivy?
Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly associated with megaloblastic anemia?
Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly associated with megaloblastic anemia?
Which of the following is a characteristic laboratory finding in folate deficiency?
Which of the following is a characteristic laboratory finding in folate deficiency?
What is a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency?
What is a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency?
Which type of anemia is caused by the destruction of red blood cells?
Which type of anemia is caused by the destruction of red blood cells?
In which condition do patients often present with microcytic anemia due to chronic disease?
In which condition do patients often present with microcytic anemia due to chronic disease?
What risk factor can contribute to a folate deficiency in alcoholics?
What risk factor can contribute to a folate deficiency in alcoholics?
What is the primary cause behind chronic renal failure-related anemia?
What is the primary cause behind chronic renal failure-related anemia?
What is a common cause of secondary immunodeficiency?
What is a common cause of secondary immunodeficiency?
Which of these factors is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?
Which of these factors is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?
What cardiovascular condition is characterized by atherosclerosis within coronary arteries?
What cardiovascular condition is characterized by atherosclerosis within coronary arteries?
Which immunoglobulin is primarily low in patients with Common Variable Immunodeficiency?
Which immunoglobulin is primarily low in patients with Common Variable Immunodeficiency?
What is contraindicated for severely immunocompromised individuals?
What is contraindicated for severely immunocompromised individuals?
What is a possible consequence of plaque rupture in atherosclerosis?
What is a possible consequence of plaque rupture in atherosclerosis?
Which symptom is commonly associated with angina due to coronary artery disease?
Which symptom is commonly associated with angina due to coronary artery disease?
What condition could lead to chronic diarrhea and gastrointestinal issues in Common Variable Immunodeficiency?
What condition could lead to chronic diarrhea and gastrointestinal issues in Common Variable Immunodeficiency?
Which condition can result in a sudden decrease in effective stroke volume?
Which condition can result in a sudden decrease in effective stroke volume?
Which lab finding is typically elevated in iron deficiency anemia?
Which lab finding is typically elevated in iron deficiency anemia?
What lab measure is essential for evaluating the body’s total iron stores?
What lab measure is essential for evaluating the body’s total iron stores?
What laboratory finding is common in patients with sickle cell anemia?
What laboratory finding is common in patients with sickle cell anemia?
What characterizes thalassemia as an inherited disorder?
What characterizes thalassemia as an inherited disorder?
What tends to be normal in the lab findings of thalassemia?
What tends to be normal in the lab findings of thalassemia?
In which type of anemia would you expect an increased RBC distribution width?
In which type of anemia would you expect an increased RBC distribution width?
What is the result of administering inactivated vaccines to immunocompromised individuals?
What is the result of administering inactivated vaccines to immunocompromised individuals?
Which anemia type is characterized by normal RBC distribution width?
Which anemia type is characterized by normal RBC distribution width?
What is a significant symptom of Common Variable Immunodeficiency?
What is a significant symptom of Common Variable Immunodeficiency?
Which type of anemia is characterized as microcytic/hypochromic?
Which type of anemia is characterized as microcytic/hypochromic?
What major marker is often increased during the development of microcytic anemia?
What major marker is often increased during the development of microcytic anemia?
Which vaccine type is generally safe and effective for immunocompromised patients?
Which vaccine type is generally safe and effective for immunocompromised patients?
What classic symptom triad is associated with aortic stenosis?
What classic symptom triad is associated with aortic stenosis?
Which of the following pulses characteristic in aortic stenosis indicates reduced stroke volume?
Which of the following pulses characteristic in aortic stenosis indicates reduced stroke volume?
What is the primary reason to avoid vasodilators in patients with aortic stenosis?
What is the primary reason to avoid vasodilators in patients with aortic stenosis?
When is surgical intervention indicated for patients with aortic stenosis?
When is surgical intervention indicated for patients with aortic stenosis?
What symptom might occur in patients with aortic stenosis due to increased myocardial oxygen demand?
What symptom might occur in patients with aortic stenosis due to increased myocardial oxygen demand?
What is primarily responsible for the presence of megaloblasts in the bone marrow?
What is primarily responsible for the presence of megaloblasts in the bone marrow?
Which of the following lab parameters is typically high in folate deficiency?
Which of the following lab parameters is typically high in folate deficiency?
Which symptom is specifically associated with vitamin B12 deficiency?
Which symptom is specifically associated with vitamin B12 deficiency?
What is a common cause of hemolytic anemia?
What is a common cause of hemolytic anemia?
What type of anemia is caused by a mutation in the HBB gene?
What type of anemia is caused by a mutation in the HBB gene?
In chronic renal failure, what is primarily decreased leading to anemia?
In chronic renal failure, what is primarily decreased leading to anemia?
Which is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?
Which is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?
What does decreased stroke volume in a sustained tachycardia situation primarily result from?
What does decreased stroke volume in a sustained tachycardia situation primarily result from?
Which process is involved in the pathology of coronary artery disease?
Which process is involved in the pathology of coronary artery disease?
What is a common clinical sign associated with myocardial ischemia?
What is a common clinical sign associated with myocardial ischemia?
Which of the following factors contributes to the development of atherosclerosis?
Which of the following factors contributes to the development of atherosclerosis?
What condition is characterized by normocytic anemia during periods of stable health?
What condition is characterized by normocytic anemia during periods of stable health?
Which dietary group is at higher risk for developing megaloblastic anemia?
Which dietary group is at higher risk for developing megaloblastic anemia?
What distinguishes Type 2 hypersensitivity from Type 3 hypersensitivity?
What distinguishes Type 2 hypersensitivity from Type 3 hypersensitivity?
What is a key characteristic of Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)?
What is a key characteristic of Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)?
Which type of vaccine is contraindicated for severely immunocompromised individuals?
Which type of vaccine is contraindicated for severely immunocompromised individuals?
Which of the following is a common trigger for flare-ups in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Which of the following is a common trigger for flare-ups in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Which type of hypersensitivity involves T-cell activation against modified skin cells?
Which type of hypersensitivity involves T-cell activation against modified skin cells?
What is the primary immune mediator involved in Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions?
What is the primary immune mediator involved in Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions?
In Iron Deficiency Anemia, which lab value is typically decreased?
In Iron Deficiency Anemia, which lab value is typically decreased?
What symptom is most commonly associated with Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)?
What symptom is most commonly associated with Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)?
In Type 3 hypersensitivity, how do immune complexes affect tissues?
In Type 3 hypersensitivity, how do immune complexes affect tissues?
Which condition is a classic example of alloimmunity?
Which condition is a classic example of alloimmunity?
What is the significance of serum ferritin levels in diagnosing anemia?
What is the significance of serum ferritin levels in diagnosing anemia?
Which of the following is true regarding the Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)?
Which of the following is true regarding the Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)?
What distinguishes the rash of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction from a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?
What distinguishes the rash of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction from a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?
What type of medication is generally used to manage flare-ups in SLE?
What type of medication is generally used to manage flare-ups in SLE?
What is the treatment management for patients with Common Variable Immunodeficiency?
What is the treatment management for patients with Common Variable Immunodeficiency?
In a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction, where is the lesion typically located?
In a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction, where is the lesion typically located?
In Anemia of Chronic Disease, what is typically observed in serum ferritin levels?
In Anemia of Chronic Disease, what is typically observed in serum ferritin levels?
What is the mechanism of action of corticosteroids in managing Type IV hypersensitivity reactions?
What is the mechanism of action of corticosteroids in managing Type IV hypersensitivity reactions?
Which condition is characterized as a primary immune deficiency resulting from single gene defects?
Which condition is characterized as a primary immune deficiency resulting from single gene defects?
What immunological consideration is important for the vaccine decision of an immunocompromised patient?
What immunological consideration is important for the vaccine decision of an immunocompromised patient?
What is characteristic of a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?
What is characteristic of a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?
Which medication is NOT typically used in the management of Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions?
Which medication is NOT typically used in the management of Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions?
Which factor distinguishes Sideroblastic Anemia from other types of anemia?
Which factor distinguishes Sideroblastic Anemia from other types of anemia?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the types of hypersensitivity?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the types of hypersensitivity?
How is anemia caused by thalassemia typically characterized in terms of serum iron levels?
How is anemia caused by thalassemia typically characterized in terms of serum iron levels?
Which of the following describes the RBC distribution width (RDW) in Iron Deficiency Anemia?
Which of the following describes the RBC distribution width (RDW) in Iron Deficiency Anemia?
What is the primary characteristic of a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?
What is the primary characteristic of a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?
Which symptom is commonly associated with Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions like Grave’s disease?
Which symptom is commonly associated with Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions like Grave’s disease?
In a Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, immune complexes typically deposit in which of the following locations?
In a Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, immune complexes typically deposit in which of the following locations?
What sets Grave’s disease apart from other Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?
What sets Grave’s disease apart from other Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?
Which of the following is considered the main effector mechanism in Type 1 hypersensitivity?
Which of the following is considered the main effector mechanism in Type 1 hypersensitivity?
Which of the following is the immediate therapeutic approach for an anaphylactic reaction?
Which of the following is the immediate therapeutic approach for an anaphylactic reaction?
What kind of immune response is primarily involved in Type 3 hypersensitivity?
What kind of immune response is primarily involved in Type 3 hypersensitivity?
Which of the following best describes a potential consequence of immune complex deposition in tissues?
Which of the following best describes a potential consequence of immune complex deposition in tissues?
Which of the following is a common lifestyle modification recommended for heart failure management?
Which of the following is a common lifestyle modification recommended for heart failure management?
What main factor contributes to the decreased cardiac output in heart failure?
What main factor contributes to the decreased cardiac output in heart failure?
Which symptom is typically associated with right-sided heart failure?
Which symptom is typically associated with right-sided heart failure?
In which stage of heart failure does a patient experience symptoms that affect daily functions?
In which stage of heart failure does a patient experience symptoms that affect daily functions?
What is one of the first-line medications used for managing heart failure?
What is one of the first-line medications used for managing heart failure?
What causes aortic regurgitation during the diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle?
What causes aortic regurgitation during the diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle?
Which physical exam finding is characteristic of aortic regurgitation?
Which physical exam finding is characteristic of aortic regurgitation?
What is a risk factor for developing aortic stenosis?
What is a risk factor for developing aortic stenosis?
Which NYHA functional classification indicates a marked decrease in physical activity?
Which NYHA functional classification indicates a marked decrease in physical activity?
What is one of the definitive treatments for symptomatic aortic regurgitation?
What is one of the definitive treatments for symptomatic aortic regurgitation?
Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of aortic stenosis?
Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of aortic stenosis?
What might indicate advanced heart failure in a patient?
What might indicate advanced heart failure in a patient?
Which risk factor is specifically associated with aortic regurgitation?
Which risk factor is specifically associated with aortic regurgitation?
Why might patients with left-sided heart failure experience symptoms of right heart failure?
Why might patients with left-sided heart failure experience symptoms of right heart failure?
What is the primary impact of long-standing hypertension on the heart?
What is the primary impact of long-standing hypertension on the heart?
What is the primary underlying issue in heart failure?
What is the primary underlying issue in heart failure?
In what stage of heart failure does a patient still have no symptoms but has structural heart damage?
In what stage of heart failure does a patient still have no symptoms but has structural heart damage?
Which NYHA functional classification indicates a marked limitation of physical activity?
Which NYHA functional classification indicates a marked limitation of physical activity?
What characteristic murmur is associated with aortic regurgitation?
What characteristic murmur is associated with aortic regurgitation?
Which condition can lead to aortic regurgitation due to dilation of the aortic root?
Which condition can lead to aortic regurgitation due to dilation of the aortic root?
Which is a common risk factor for developing aortic stenosis?
Which is a common risk factor for developing aortic stenosis?
What is the definitive treatment for symptomatic aortic regurgitation?
What is the definitive treatment for symptomatic aortic regurgitation?
What major change occurs in the left ventricle due to aortic stenosis?
What major change occurs in the left ventricle due to aortic stenosis?
Which of the following medications is used to reduce afterload in symptomatic patients with aortic regurgitation?
Which of the following medications is used to reduce afterload in symptomatic patients with aortic regurgitation?
Which risk factor is commonly associated with the progression of heart failure over time?
Which risk factor is commonly associated with the progression of heart failure over time?
At what stage of heart failure is a heart transplant or pacemaker considered as a treatment option?
At what stage of heart failure is a heart transplant or pacemaker considered as a treatment option?
What is the effect of decreasing contractility on stroke volume and LVEDV?
What is the effect of decreasing contractility on stroke volume and LVEDV?
Flashcards
Type 1 Hypersensitivity
Type 1 Hypersensitivity
An allergic reaction mediated by IgE causing mast cell degranulation.
Anaphylactic Reaction
Anaphylactic Reaction
A severe systemic response to Type 1 hypersensitivity causing hypotension and bronchoconstriction.
Type 2 Hypersensitivity
Type 2 Hypersensitivity
A cytotoxic reaction targeting specific tissues, often involving IgG antibodies.
Grave’s Disease
Grave’s Disease
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Common Symptoms of Hyperthyroidism
Common Symptoms of Hyperthyroidism
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Type 3 Hypersensitivity
Type 3 Hypersensitivity
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Immune Complex Deposition
Immune Complex Deposition
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Typical Sites of Immune Complex Deposition
Typical Sites of Immune Complex Deposition
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Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
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SLE Flare-ups
SLE Flare-ups
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Alloimmunity
Alloimmunity
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Type I vs Type IV Rash
Type I vs Type IV Rash
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Mechanism of Type I Hypersensitivity
Mechanism of Type I Hypersensitivity
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Mechanism of Type II Hypersensitivity
Mechanism of Type II Hypersensitivity
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Mechanism of Type III Hypersensitivity
Mechanism of Type III Hypersensitivity
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Mechanism of Type IV Hypersensitivity
Mechanism of Type IV Hypersensitivity
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Management of SLE
Management of SLE
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Contact dermatitis from poison ivy
Contact dermatitis from poison ivy
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Treatment for Type IV Rash
Treatment for Type IV Rash
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Hypersensitivity Disorders
Hypersensitivity Disorders
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Primary Immunodeficiency
Primary Immunodeficiency
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B-lymphocyte deficiency
B-lymphocyte deficiency
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Secondary Immunodeficiency
Secondary Immunodeficiency
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Malnutrition
Malnutrition
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Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)
Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)
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Impaired Antibody Response
Impaired Antibody Response
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Immunoglobulin Replacement Therapy
Immunoglobulin Replacement Therapy
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Live Attenuated Vaccines
Live Attenuated Vaccines
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Inactivated Vaccines
Inactivated Vaccines
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mRNA Vaccines
mRNA Vaccines
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Iron Deficiency Anemia
Iron Deficiency Anemia
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Serum Ferritin
Serum Ferritin
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Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)
Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)
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Lab Markers for Anemia
Lab Markers for Anemia
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Diagnosing Anemia
Diagnosing Anemia
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Aortic Stenosis Symptoms
Aortic Stenosis Symptoms
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Systolic Ejection Murmur
Systolic Ejection Murmur
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S4 Gallop
S4 Gallop
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Medical Management in Aortic Stenosis
Medical Management in Aortic Stenosis
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Indications for Surgery
Indications for Surgery
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Megaloblastic Anemia
Megaloblastic Anemia
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At-risk individuals for Megaloblastic Anemia
At-risk individuals for Megaloblastic Anemia
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Folate Deficiency
Folate Deficiency
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Vitamin B12 Deficiency Symptoms
Vitamin B12 Deficiency Symptoms
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Hemolytic Anemia
Hemolytic Anemia
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Sickle Cell Anemia
Sickle Cell Anemia
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Thalassemia
Thalassemia
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Anemia of Chronic Disease
Anemia of Chronic Disease
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Anemia in Renal Failure
Anemia in Renal Failure
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Cardiac Output
Cardiac Output
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Preload
Preload
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Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)
Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)
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Risk Factors for CAD
Risk Factors for CAD
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Lifestyle Factors Impacting Dyslipidemia
Lifestyle Factors Impacting Dyslipidemia
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Heart Failure
Heart Failure
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Decreased Contractility
Decreased Contractility
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Left Ventricular End-Diastolic Volume (LVEDV)
Left Ventricular End-Diastolic Volume (LVEDV)
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Right Heart Failure
Right Heart Failure
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Stages of Heart Failure
Stages of Heart Failure
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NYHA Functional Classification
NYHA Functional Classification
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Aortic Regurgitation
Aortic Regurgitation
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Diastolic Murmur
Diastolic Murmur
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Aortic Valve Replacement
Aortic Valve Replacement
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Aortic Stenosis
Aortic Stenosis
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Risk Factors for Aortic Regurgitation
Risk Factors for Aortic Regurgitation
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Bounding Pulses
Bounding Pulses
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Management of Heart Failure
Management of Heart Failure
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Beta-Blockers
Beta-Blockers
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Symptoms of Right Heart Failure
Symptoms of Right Heart Failure
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Weak and Delayed Pulse
Weak and Delayed Pulse
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Management of Aortic Stenosis
Management of Aortic Stenosis
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Anaphylactic Reaction Symptoms
Anaphylactic Reaction Symptoms
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Grave’s Disease Mechanism
Grave’s Disease Mechanism
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Common Deposition Sites for Immune Complexes
Common Deposition Sites for Immune Complexes
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Key Symptoms of Type 3 Hypersensitivity
Key Symptoms of Type 3 Hypersensitivity
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Components of Immune Complexes
Components of Immune Complexes
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Examples of Type 3
Examples of Type 3
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SLE Characteristics
SLE Characteristics
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Rash Timing: Type 1 vs Type 4
Rash Timing: Type 1 vs Type 4
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Type 1 Hypersensitivity Mechanism
Type 1 Hypersensitivity Mechanism
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Type 2 Mechanism
Type 2 Mechanism
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Type 3 Mechanism
Type 3 Mechanism
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Type 4 Mechanism
Type 4 Mechanism
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Clinical Application of Hypersensitivity
Clinical Application of Hypersensitivity
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Lifestyle Modifications
Lifestyle Modifications
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Pharmacotherapy
Pharmacotherapy
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Heart Failure Pathophysiology
Heart Failure Pathophysiology
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Management of Aortic Regurgitation
Management of Aortic Regurgitation
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Megaloblasts
Megaloblasts
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Vitamin B12 Deficiency
Vitamin B12 Deficiency
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Folate Deficiency Symptoms
Folate Deficiency Symptoms
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Sickle Cell Trait
Sickle Cell Trait
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Thalassemia Types
Thalassemia Types
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Erythropoietin (EPO) Role
Erythropoietin (EPO) Role
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Cardiac Output Calculation
Cardiac Output Calculation
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Preload Importance
Preload Importance
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Ischemia Symptoms
Ischemia Symptoms
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LDL vs HDL
LDL vs HDL
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Lifestyle Changes for Heart Health
Lifestyle Changes for Heart Health
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Symptoms of Common Variable Immunodeficiency
Symptoms of Common Variable Immunodeficiency
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Subunit and mRNA Vaccines
Subunit and mRNA Vaccines
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Lab Values for Iron Deficiency Anemia
Lab Values for Iron Deficiency Anemia
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Major Lab Marker for Anemia
Major Lab Marker for Anemia
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Diagnosis of Anemia
Diagnosis of Anemia
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Study Notes
Hypersensitivity Reactions
- Type 1 (Allergic): Mediated by IgE antibodies, leading to mast cell degranulation and inflammation. Local symptoms include itching and rash; systemic symptoms include wheezing. Anaphylaxis (a severe systemic response) is the most dangerous type. Epinephrine reverses anaphylactic effects.
- Type 2 (Cytotoxic): Antibodies (IgG or IgM) bind to antigens on specific cell surfaces, triggering cell destruction or altered function. Examples include transfusion reactions and Graves' disease. Graves' disease involves autoantibodies targeting TSH receptors, leading to excessive thyroid hormone production. Incompatible blood types lead to red blood cell destruction. Macrophages are key effector cells.
- Type 3 (Immune Complex): Soluble antigens combine with antibodies to form immune complexes that deposit in tissues (e.g., blood vessel walls, joints, kidneys), causing inflammation and tissue damage. Examples include rheumatoid arthritis and SLE (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus). SLE involves immune complexes depositing in organs, causing tissue damage; flare-ups are triggered by factors like stress, infections, and sun exposure
- Type 4 (Delayed): T-cell mediated; does not involve antibodies. Examples include poison ivy (contact dermatitis). Reaction occurs several days after allergen contact; characterized by localized lesions. Treatment involves topical corticosteroids, not epinephrine or antihistamines.
Differentiating Type 1 vs Type 4 Reactions
- Type 1 (immediate) reactions have widely distributed lesions, while Type 4 (delayed) reactions exhibit lesions only at the site of contact with the allergen.
Hypersensitivity Mechanisms Summary
| Type | Mechanism | Mediators | Examples |
|---|---|---|---|
| Type 1 | IgE antibodies bind to allergens, causing mast cell degranulation. | IgE, mast cells, histamine, basophils | Allergic rhinitis (hay fever) |
| Type 2 | IgG or IgM antibodies bind to cell surface antigens, triggering cell destruction. | IgG, IgM, complement, phagocytes | Hemolytic anemia, Graves' disease |
| Type 3 | Immune complexes form, deposit in tissues, and activate complement. | IgG, IgM, complement, neutrophils | SLE, rheumatoid arthritis |
| Type 4 | T-cell mediated response against antigens in tissues, releasing cytokines. | T cells (CD8+, CD4+), macrophages | Contact dermatitis (poison ivy) |
Primary and Secondary Immunodeficiencies
- Primary Immunodeficiencies: Caused by genetic defects affecting the immune system. Severe forms are often associated with B-lymphocyte deficiencies.
- Secondary Immunodeficiencies: Result from other conditions or diseases (e.g., malnutrition, HIV, pregnancy, and certain medications).
Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)
- Key Feature: Impaired antibody production, leading to low immunoglobulin levels (IgG, IgA, IgM).
- Symptoms: Increased infections (especially encapsulated bacteria and certain viruses), chronic GI issues, autoimmune disorders, and lymphadenopathy/splenomegaly.
- Management: Immunoglobulin replacement therapy, antibiotics, and management of complications.
Vaccine Considerations in Immunocompromised Individuals
- Live Attenuated Vaccines: Contraindicated in severely immunocompromised patients due to potential disease risk (e.g., MMR, varicella).
- Inactivated Vaccines: Generally safe for immunocompromised individuals (e.g., inactivated polio vaccine, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and influenza).
- Subunit, Recombinant, and mRNA Vaccines: Generally safe and effective for immunocompromised patients (e.g., COVID-19 mRNA vaccines).
- Herd Immunity: Vaccination of close contacts can provide indirect protection.
Anemia Types
- Iron Deficiency Anemia: Microcytic/hypochromic; decreased serum ferritin, serum iron, and transferrin saturation with increased RBC distribution width (RDW).
- Thalassemia: Increased serum ferritin, with normal to increased RDW.
- Anemia of Chronic Disease: Normal to increased serum ferritin, normal RDW.
- Sideroblastic Anemia: Normal to increased serum ferritin, increased RDW.
- Megaloblastic Anemia: Large, immature red blood cells (megaloblasts), caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 or folate.
- Folate Deficiency: Low folate levels, possibly normal or low RBCs, high MCV, normal MCHC. Risk factors include vegetarians/vegans, malnutrition, and malabsorption syndromes. Individuals with alcohol abuse at risk.
- Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Low B12 level, increased MCV, risk factors include older adults and those with H. pylori infections.
- Hemolytic Anemia: Red blood cells are destroyed; caused by mismatched blood types, autoimmune reactions, or drug reactions. Symptoms include jaundice, fatigue and anemia. Risk increased by hypersensitivity reactions.
- Sickle Cell Anemia: Inherited disorder causing abnormal hemoglobin, leading to hemolytic anemia; red blood cells can be normocytic during periods of steady state.
- Anemia of Chronic Kidney Failure: Decreased EPO production.
Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)
- Normal: Aplastic anemia, post-hemorrhagic anemia, hemolytic anemia
- Low: Iron deficiency anemia, sideroblastic anemia, thalassemia
- High: Hereditary spherocytosis, liver disease, hyperthyroidism, sickle cell disease.
CAD (Coronary Artery Disease)
- Pathophysiology: Atherosclerosis (plaque formation) impairs blood flow to the heart, leading to ischemia, angina, and heart attacks.
- Risk Factors: Non-modifiable (age, genetics); Modifiable (hypertension, hyperlipidemia, smoking, DM, obesity, lack of exercise, poor diet). Stress, chronic inflammation, and cholesterol levels (specifically low-density lipoprotein [LDL]) are also factors.
- Clinical Application: Presents with chest pain, fatigue, and difficulty sleeping; elevated LDL, triglycerides, and low HDL; ECG showing ST-segment depression
- Management: Lifestyle modifications (smoking cessation, diet, exercise), pharmacotherapy (statins, beta-blockers, aspirin) and further evaluation (stress test, coronary angiography).
Heart Failure
- Pathophysiology: Reduced cardiac output to meet the body's oxygen demands, leading to decreased contractility, decreased stroke volume, and increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume (LVEDV), and dilation. Risk factor: long-standing hypertension.
- Right vs Leftsided Failure: Left-sided failure may back up fluid to the right side; right-sided failure occurs independently of left side.
- Stages: Stage A (risk factors), Stage B (structural damage), Stage C (symptomatic), Stage D (end-stage).
- NYHA Classifications: Stage I-IV, based on level of daily activity limitation due to symptoms.
Heart Valve Disorders
- Aortic Regurgitation: Aortic valve fails to close, blood flows back to left ventricle, leading to volume overload and dilation. Risk factors include congenital defects, rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, and aortic root disease. Findings include diastolic murmur, bounding pulses, and signs of heart failure. Treatment includes monitoring, diuretics, vasodilators, beta-blockers, and/or surgery.
- Aortic Stenosis: Narrowed aortic valve restricts blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta, leading to pressure overload and ventricular hypertrophy. Risk Factors includes age, bicuspid aortic valve, rheumatic fever, hyperlipidemia, and radiation therapy. Findings of systolic ejection murmur, weak and delayed pulse, and signs of heart failure; possible S4 gallop. Treatment includes monitoring, medications (diuretics, beta-blockers), and surgery for symptomatic or severe stenosis.
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