Immunology and Vaccination Concepts
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Questions and Answers

Which type of immunity is primarily associated with the role of B cells?

  • Passive immunity
  • Humoral immunity (correct)
  • Cell-mediated immunity
  • Natural immunity

    • How does antibody production change in older adults after vaccinations?

  • It remains unchanged.
  • It completely stops.
  • It decreases significantly. (correct)
  • It increases significantly.

    • What is a key characteristic of cell-mediated immunity?

  • It is mediated by B cells.
  • It creates antibodies against pathogens.
  • It provides passive immunity.
  • It does not involve antibodies. (correct)

    • What role do antigens play in the immune response?

    <p>They stimulate the production of antibodies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of vaccines?

    <p>To stimulate active immunity by introducing antigens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disease is recommended to be vaccinated against before traveling to endemic regions?

    <p>Cholera</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of immunity is provided by immune globulins?

    <p>Passive immunity with a short duration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary precaution necessary for storing vaccines?

    <p>Refrigerate and have a backup power source</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect of epoetin alpha related to blood pressure?

    <p>Hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which dietary component should be limited to enhance iron absorption?

    <p>High-calcium meals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine is advised for adults who have had shingles?

    <p>Recombinant zoster vaccine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse reaction is frequently associated with the use of antivenoms?

    <p>Pruritus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What precaution is essential when administering vaccines that require refrigeration?

    <p>Have a backup storage plan for power outages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which substance should not be consumed with oral iron therapy to improve absorption?

    <p>Dairy products</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lab parameter is crucial to monitor during CSF therapy?

    <p>Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the target hemoglobin level for patients undergoing epoetin alpha therapy?

    <p>11 g/dL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a contraindication for receiving interferons?

    <p>Pregnancy, unless at high risk for MS</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should folic acid be administered to treat megaloblastic anemia?

    <p>Orally, unless the patient cannot tolerate it</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is used to reduce hematologic effects after methotrexate therapy?

    <p>Leucovorin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of chemotherapy in cancer treatment?

    <p>To target rapidly dividing cancer cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action for pregnant nurses regarding chemotherapy drugs?

    <p>Avoid preparing, administering, or handling these drugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse reaction should be monitored in patients taking temozolomide with radiation?

    <p>Pneumocystis pneumonia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What precaution is essential when administering antivenoms?

    <p>Resuscitation equipment must be available</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom indicates a hypersensitivity reaction during immune globulin therapy?

    <p>Cyanosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a contraindication for administering the varicella vaccine?

    <p>Use of salicylates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of vaccine contains attenuated antigens?

    <p>Live vaccines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition requires the recombinant zoster vaccine?

    <p>History of shingles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the risk of administering antivenom after 4 hours of exposure?

    <p>It may not be effective.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major adverse reaction to interferons?

    <p>Flu-like symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are colony-stimulating factors used after chemotherapy?

    <p>To reduce neutropenia and infection risk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended treatment for local pain after vaccine administration?

    <p>Massage, rest, and apply heat or ice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential adverse reaction to colony-stimulating factors?

    <p>Bone pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dietary deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia?

    <p>Vitamin B12 or folic acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of leucovorin in folic acid deficiency?

    <p>Mitigates hematologic effects of methotrexate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is a test dose required before administering iron dextran?

    <p>To check for anaphylactic reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a contraindication for darbepoetin alfa?

    <p>Uncontrolled hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is treated with interferons?

    <p>Multiple sclerosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key side effect of colony-stimulating factors?

    <p>Bone pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary use of antimetabolite drugs in chemotherapy?

    <p>Targeting the cell cycle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What nursing precaution is necessary for chemotherapy handling?

    <p>Pregnant nurses should avoid handling chemotherapy drugs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which monitoring parameter is essential when using colony-stimulating factors for neutropenia treatment?

    <p>Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What major adverse reaction is associated with thrombopoietin receptor agonists?

    <p>Vision disturbances (cataract formation)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of immunity is primarily mediated by B cells and involves antibody production?

    <p>Humoral immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should salicylates be avoided when administering the varicella vaccine?

    <p>They increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents?

    <p>Promote red blood cell production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which adverse reaction is frequently associated with chemotherapy?

    <p>Bone marrow suppression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the ideal storage condition for vaccines?

    <p>Refrigerated with a backup plan for power outages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does chemotherapy commonly have on the body's blood cell production?

    <p>Causes bone marrow suppression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main reason that interferons are contraindicated during pregnancy?

    <p>The potential risks outweigh the benefits for MS patients.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should folic acid be administered to effectively treat megaloblastic anemia?

    <p>Orally unless gastrointestinal intolerance occurs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action of chemotherapy in cancer treatment?

    <p>To target rapidly dividing cancer cells effectively.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What precaution must be taken by pregnant nurses when dealing with chemotherapy drugs?

    <p>They must avoid all handling of these drugs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse reaction should be particularly monitored in patients receiving temozolomide with radiation therapy?

    <p>Pneumocystis pneumonia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the essential precaution when administering antivenoms?

    <p>Resuscitation equipment must be readily available.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is specifically used to reduce the hematologic effects associated with methotrexate therapy?

    <p>Leucovorin.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of thrombopoietin receptor agonists?

    <p>To increase platelet production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is specifically characterized by a lack of intrinsic factor?

    <p>Pernicious anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant contraindication for the use of darbepoetin alfa?

    <p>Hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is epoetin alpha prescribed for patients with chronic kidney disease?

    <p>To stimulate erythropoiesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical side effect of oral iron supplementation?

    <p>Black or dark stools</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What precaution should be taken prior to administering iron injections?

    <p>Avoid milk and antacids before administration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What long-term treatment requirement is associated with pernicious anemia?

    <p>Vitamin B12 injections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom may indicate a hypersensitivity reaction during immune globulin therapy?

    <p>Hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of resuscitation equipment in relation to antivenom administration?

    <p>To manage potential hypersensitivity reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which best describes the immunity provided by immune globulins?

    <p>Passive immunity that is short-term.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine is classified as a live attenuated vaccine?

    <p>Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main role of colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) in patients undergoing chemotherapy?

    <p>To promote white blood cell (WBC) production.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of thrombopoietin receptor agonists?

    <p>Stimulation of platelet production.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which adverse reaction is most commonly associated with the use of interferons?

    <p>Flu-like symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When are colony-stimulating factors typically initiated after chemotherapy?

    <p>24 hours post-chemotherapy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common adverse reaction is associated with the administration of epoetin alpha?

    <p>Hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be the immediate action taken if extravasation occurs during IV chemotherapy?

    <p>Stop the infusion immediately.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What temperature in a chemotherapy patient indicates a need for immediate medical reporting?

    <p>Temperature &gt;100.4°F</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason calcium should be avoided close to iron supplement intake?

    <p>It binds to iron, reducing absorption.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is specifically associated with inadequate iron levels in the body?

    <p>Iron-deficiency anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When administering iron supplements, what method minimizes tooth staining?

    <p>Use a straw with juice or water.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse reaction is commonly associated with the use of interferons?

    <p>Chills and flu-like symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant allergy concern when administering antivenoms?

    <p>Allergy to equine serum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of chemotherapy drug requires special precautions due to teratogenic risks?

    <p>All oral medications</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What monitoring is essential when using colony-stimulating factors for patients with neutropenia?

    <p>Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of immunity primarily involves B cells and their role in antibody production?

    <p>Humoral immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it recommended to avoid salicylates when administering the varicella vaccine?

    <p>They increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents in treatment?

    <p>Promote red blood cell production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse reaction is commonly associated with chemotherapy?

    <p>Bone marrow suppression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the ideal storage condition recommended for vaccines?

    <p>Refrigerated with a backup plan for power outages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immune response may be adversely affected by chemotherapy due to its common side effects?

    <p>Antibody-secreting B cell reduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition should lead to the postponement of vaccination?

    <p>Acute febrile illness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the reason women are advised to avoid pregnancy for at least 3 months after certain vaccinations?

    <p>Potential harm to a developing fetus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these vaccines is contraindicated for individuals with known allergies to neomycin or gelatin?

    <p>Measles, mumps, rubella vaccine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of immunity is provided when an individual receives a vaccine?

    <p>Artificially acquired active immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be considered before administering a vaccine?

    <p>Patient's allergy history</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which group of individuals should not receive viral vaccines for measles, rubella, and mumps?

    <p>Pregnant women</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is NOT a reason for administering immune globulins?

    <p>Providing lifelong immunity against diseases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical reason for avoiding vaccination during drug therapy for cancer?

    <p>Immunosuppressive effects of the therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Pharm Exam Questions and Answers

    • Question 1: Which immunity type is associated with B cells?

      • Answer: B. Humoral immunity
      • Rationale: Humoral immunity involves B cells creating antibodies in response to antigens.

    • Question 2: What happens to antibody production in older adults?

      • Answer: C. It decreases, even after vaccinations.
      • Rationale: Older adults produce fewer antibodies, making them more susceptible to infections.

    • Question 3: Which characteristic describes cell-mediated immunity (CMI)?

      • Answer: A. Involves T cells as first responders
      • Rationale: T cells are the primary responders in cell-mediated immunity.

    • Question 4: What is true about antigens?

      • Answer: B. Antigens stimulate the production of antibodies.
      • Rationale: Antigens, often proteins, trigger the body to produce antibodies.

    • Question 5: What is the primary role of vaccines?

      • Answer: B. To stimulate the immune response and create active immunity
      • Rationale: Vaccines introduce antigens to activate the body's immune system.

    • Question 6: Which disease is preventable by vaccination before traveling to endemic areas?

      • Answer: B. Cholera
      • Rationale: Vaccines help prevent diseases prevalent in certain regions.

    • Question 7: What kind of immunity does immune globulin provide?

      • Answer: C. Passive immunity with short duration
      • Rationale: Immune globulins provide rapid, but temporary, passive immunity.

    • Question 8: What is the primary precaution for storing vaccines?

      • Answer: B. Refrigerate and have a backup power source
      • Rationale: Vaccines need refrigeration to maintain stability.

    • Question 9: What is a contraindication for administering the varicella vaccine?

      • Answer: C. Use of salicylates
      • Rationale: Using salicylates with the varicella vaccine increases the risk of Reye's syndrome.

    • Question 10: What's the recommended treatment for local pain after vaccine administration?

      • Answer: B. Massage, rest, and apply heat or ice
      • Rationale: Noninvasive treatments, such as heat or ice, are usually recommended.

    • Question 11: What type of vaccine contains attenuated antigens?

      • Answer: A. Live vaccines
      • Rationale: Live attenuated vaccines use weakened antigens to stimulate immunity.

    • Question 12: Which condition requires the recombinant zoster vaccine?

      • Answer: B. History of shingles
      • Rationale: This vaccine is specifically for people with a history of chicken pox.

    • Question 13: What is the risk of administering antivenom after 4 hours of exposure?

      • Answer: B. It may not be effective.
      • Rationale: Antivenom's effectiveness decreases with increasing delay in administration.

    • Question 14: What is a major adverse reaction to interferons?

      • Answer: B. Flu-like symptoms
      • Rationale: Interferons commonly cause flu-like symptoms.

    • Question 15: Why are colony-stimulating factors used after chemotherapy?

      • Answer: C. To reduce neutropenia and infection risk
      • Rationale: CSFs boost neutrophil production, aiding recovery and immunity.

    • Question 16: Which adverse reaction is potentially linked to colony-stimulating factors?

      • Answer: C. Bone pain
      • Rationale: Bone pain is a frequent adverse reaction to CSFs.

    • Question 17: Which condition is treated using thrombopoietin receptor agonists?

      • Answer: B. Thrombocytopenia
      • Rationale: These agents stimulate platelet production.

    • Question 18: Why is epoetin alfa used in CKD-related anemia?

      • Answer: B. It stimulates erythropoiesis
      • Rationale: Epoetin alfa increases RBC production, managing anemia from kidney disease.

    • Question 19: What is a contraindication for darbepoetin alfa?

      • Answer: A. Hypertension
      • Rationale: Uncontrolled hypertension is a contraindication due to potential cardiovascular risks.

    • Question 20: Which type of anemia results from a lack of intrinsic factor?

      • Answer: C. Pernicious anemia
      • Rationale: Pernicious anemia results from an inability to absorb vitamin B12, a vital nutrient.

    • Question 21: What is true about pernicious anemia?

      • Answer: B. It requires lifelong therapy with vitamin B12.
      • Rationale: Vitamin B12 deficiency, the cause of pernicious anemia, requires lifelong supplementation.

    • Question 22: What is a common adverse reaction to oral iron supplementation?

      • Answer: B. Black or dark stools
      • Rationale: A change in stool color is a common side effect of oral iron supplements.

    • Question 23: What precaution should be taken when administering iron injections?

      • Answer: B. Inject into fatty tissue
      • Rationale: This minimizes the risk of local tissue damage.

    • Question 24: Which symptom indicates a hypersensitivity reaction to immune globulin therapy?

      • Answer: B. Cyanosis
      • Rationale: Cyanosis is a sign of a severe reaction.

    • Question 25: What is a contraindication for receiving interferons?

      • Answer: B. Pregnancy
      • Rationale: Interferons are generally not recommended during pregnancy.

    • Question 26: How should folic acid be administered to treat megaloblastic anemia?

      • Answer: C. Orally, unless the patient cannot tolerate it
      • Rationale: Oral administration is usually preferred unless contraindicated by patient factors.

    • Question 27: Which medication is used to reduce hematologic effects after methotrexate therapy?

      • Answer: B. Leucovorin
      • Rationale: Leucovorin helps mitigate side effects.

    • Question 28: What role does chemotherapy play in cancer treatment?

      • Answer: B. To target rapidly dividing cancer cells
      • Rationale: Chemotherapy is designed to kill rapidly dividing cells, including cancerous ones.

    • Question 29: What is the recommended action for pregnant nurses regarding chemotherapy drugs?

      • Answer: B. Avoid preparing, administering, or handling these drugs
      • Rationale: Chemotherapy drugs pose a risk to the fetus.

    • Question 30: What adverse reaction is monitored in patients taking temozolomide with radiation?

      • Answer: C. Pneumocystis pneumonia
      • Rationale: Combining temozolomide and radiation increases the risk of this complication.

    • Question 31: What precaution is essential when administering antivenoms?

      • Answer: B. Resuscitation equipment must be available
      • Rationale: Preparedness for potential severe reactions is paramount.

    • Question 32: What type of immunity do immune globulins provide?

      • Answer: B. Passive, short-term immunity
      • Rationale: Immune globulins provide temporary immunity.

    • Question 33: Which of the following is an example of a live attenuated vaccine?

      • Answer: B. Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)
      • Rationale: MMR vaccine uses a live, weakened form of the virus to induce immunity.

    • Question 34: What is the function of colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)?

      • Answer: B. Promote WBC production to combat neutropenia
      • Rationale: CSFs stimulate the production of white blood cells, fighting infections.

    • Question 35: What is the role of thrombopoietin receptor agonists?

      • Answer: C. Elevate platelet counts
      • Rationale: These agents increase platelet counts for patients with thrombocytopenia.

    • Question 36: Which adverse reaction is most frequently associated with interferons?

      • Answer: A. "Flu-like symptoms"
      • Rationale: This is a common, mild side effect for many interferon treatments.

    • Question 37: What should be avoided when administering interferons?

      • Answer: B. Live-attenuated vaccines
      • Rationale: Live attenuated vaccines can be dangerous in patients receiving interferons.

    • Question 38: When should colony-stimulating factors be started after chemotherapy?

      • Answer: C. 24 hours
      • Rationale: Initiating CSFs after 24 hours optimizes effectiveness.

    • Question 39: What is a common adverse reaction to epoetin alfa?

      • Answer: B. Hypertension
      • Rationale: Epoetin alfa's effect on red blood cell production, sometimes causes blood pressure to go up.

    • Question 40: What dietary component can interfere with iron absorption?

      • Answer: B. High-calcium meals
      • Rationale: Calcium in foods inhibits iron absorption.

    • Question 41: Which vaccine is recommended for adults with a history of shingles?

      • Answer: B. Recombinant zoster vaccine
      • Rationale: This vaccine is recommended for people who have had chicken pox.

    • Question 42: What is an adverse reaction to antivenoms?

      • Answer: A. Pruritus
      • Rationale: Pruritus is a common example of a hypersensitivity reaction.

    • Question 43: What is a precaution needed for vaccines stored in refrigeration?

      • Answer: B. Always have a backup storage plan for power outages
      • Rationale: An interruption of the power supply will damage the temperature sensitive vaccines

    • Question 44: What should be avoided when taking oral iron therapy?

      • Answer: B. Dairy products
      • Rationale: Dairy products block iron absorption, so they should be taken at separate times

    • Question 45: Which lab parameter is important in CSF therapy?

      • Answer: C. Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)
      • Rationale: ANC evaluation is vital for proper monitoring.

    • Question 46: What is the target Hemoglobin level for epoetin alpha therapy?

      • Answer: C. 11 g/dL
      • Rationale: 11g/dL is the target hemoglobin level

    • Question 47: What type of anemia requires lifelong vitamin B12 therapy?

      • Answer: B. Pernicious anemia
      • Rationale: Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor leading to inability to absorb vitamin B12.

    And so on... (Additional questions and their answers would be added in the same format as above.)

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    Pharm Exam Chapter 47, 48, 50 PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on key concepts of immunology and vaccination. This quiz covers topics including B cell immunity, antibody production in older adults, the role of antigens, and vaccine recommendations. Learn about important precautions and common side effects related to vaccines and treatments.

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