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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is generally considered the most efficacious method for preventing post-operative nausea?

  • Ondansetron (correct)
  • Intravenous fluids
  • Gravol
  • Maxeran

A patient undergoing surgery develops intra-operative hyperthermia, rigidity, and difficulty ventilating. After initial support, which medication is most critical to administer?

  • Epinephrine
  • Dantrolene (correct)
  • Propofol
  • Succinylcholine

What is a common electrolyte abnormality observed during malignant hyperthermia?

  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hyperkalemia (correct)
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hypocarbia

A patient develops rigidity and hyperthermia shortly after intubation. Which of the following agents is the most likely cause?

<p>Succinylcholine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During surgery, a patient exhibits a diffuse rash, hypotension, and bronchospasm. What is the MOST appropriate immediate intervention?

<p>Stop the muscle relaxant and administer intravenous epinephrine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 50-year-old female undergoing a total knee arthroplasty develops intra-operative right heart strain and tachycardia. Which of the following is the BEST next test to order?

<p>Transesophageal echocardiogram (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the approximate concentrations of sodium (Na) and chloride (Cl) in normal saline?

<p>Na 154, Cl 154 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trauma patient remains hemodynamically unstable despite receiving 4L of intravenous crystalloid fluids. Which statement regarding large volume crystalloid resuscitation is MOST accurate?

<p>Large volume normal saline resuscitation can lead to hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing an oncologic resection followed by immediate breast reconstruction is found post-operatively to have a retained surgical sponge. Which of the following factors presents the highest risk for this complication?

<p>Multiple surgeons were involved in the case. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the estimated plasma volume in liters for a healthy 70 kg male?

<p>3L (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with several comorbidities but exhibits no functional limitations. According to the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status classification, which class does this patient belong to?

<p>ASA 2 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with significant comorbidities demonstrates functional impairment. Based on the ASA physical status classification, which class is most appropriate for this patient?

<p>ASA 3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is undergoing a procedure under local anesthesia. Which of the following considerations regarding local anesthetic dosage is most accurate?

<p>In cases of hepatic failure, the administered dose should be decreased. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately compares lidocaine and bupivacaine?

<p>Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action and a slower onset compared to lidocaine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is often the first noticeable symptom of local anesthetic toxicity?

<p>Perioral numbness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an endoscopy with midazolam for sedation, a patient experiences decreased level of consciousness accompanied by bradycardia and hypotension. After initial airway management, what is the most appropriate next step?

<p>Administer flumazenil. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on ASA and a beta-blocker for secondary prevention after a past MI is admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What is the best peri-operative management of these medications?

<p>Stop ASA and continue the beta-blocker. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following pre-operative findings would MOST significantly increase the peri-operative risk for a patient undergoing an inguinal hernia repair?

<p>Severe valvular heart disease. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the listed conditions contributes the MOST to a patient's peri-operative risk?

<p>Severe valvular heart disease. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in the anesthesia clinic has a grade II/VI systolic murmur. Which of the following valvular lesions could plausibly cause this murmur?

<p>Mitral regurgitation (MR) and aortic stenosis (AS). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors presents the HIGHEST relative risk for peri-operative pulmonary complications?

<p>Chronic steroid use. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman who had a drug-eluting stent (DES) placed two months ago following an acute coronary syndrome (ACS) wants to undergo elective blepharoplasty. How long should she ideally wait before undergoing surgery?

<p>Wait 6 months. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient hospitalized with anemia is diagnosed with ACS and treated with a bare-metal stent (BMS). He is subsequently diagnosed with colon cancer. When is the BEST time to proceed with colon cancer surgery?

<p>30 days. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following patients requires stress-dose steroids peri-operatively to manage potential adrenal insufficiency?

<p>A patient taking 25mg of prednisone daily for 3 weeks. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following interventions is NOT directly associated with the management of a patient experiencing malignant hyperthermia?

<p>Blood transfusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following preoperative measures is MOST effective in reducing the risk of surgical site infection (SSI)?

<p>Immediate hair removal prior to surgery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a healthy individual, which of the following locations should NOT normally contain bacterial flora?

<p>Biliary tract (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A healthcare worker sustains a needlestick injury from a patient known to be an IV drug user. According to current CDC guidelines, what is the MOST appropriate initial step regarding HIV prophylaxis?

<p>Start a multi-drug PEP regimen as soon as possible, ideally within a few hours. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST likely infectious agent to be transmitted through a blood transfusion in a developed country due to current screening practices?

<p>Cytomegalovirus (CMV) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is suspected of having Clostridioides difficile infection. Which diagnostic test would provide the MOST accurate and rapid confirmation of pseudomembranous colitis?

<p>Stool toxin assay (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following organisms is classified as a gram-negative bacillus?

<p><em>Enterobacter cloacae</em> (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a CT-proven kidney stone. Which of the following findings would MOST urgently necessitate intervention?

<p>Fever of 39°C (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in septic shock is MOST likely to initially present with which combination of clinical signs?

<p>Fever, tachycardia, and warm, flushed skin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected shock has warm extremities. Which type of shock is MOST likely?

<p>Septic shock (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement BEST describes the role of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) in septic shock?

<p>ADH is released by the pituitary gland, promoting free water retention and decreased urine output. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with severe sepsis is being considered for Activated Protein C administration. What is the MOST significant risk associated with this therapy?

<p>Increased risk of bleeding. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the progression of shock, which finding indicates the decompensation phase?

<p>Widespread tissue hypoperfusion and the onset of cellular damage. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY reason obese patients are more difficult to mechanically ventilate?

<p>Decreased chest wall compliance and reduced lung expansion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario BEST describes the typical presentation of refeeding syndrome?

<p>Electrolyte imbalances occurring after aggressive nutritional support is initiated in a severely malnourished patient. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A brain-dead patient in the ICU, who was initially stable and planned for organ donation, develops hypotension, tachycardia, and a urine output of 1500 cc/hr (previously 50 cc/hr). The patient's sodium increases from 140 to 158 mEq/L. What is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?

<p>Start an arginine vasopressin infusion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following anticoagulants is most appropriately used as a bridge to therapy for a patient with documented Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

<p>Argatroban (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A chronic dialysis patient presents for surgery. Which statement best describes their coagulation status?

<p>They frequently exhibit platelet dysfunction despite normal coagulation test results. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on warfarin is scheduled for a TURP (Transurethral Resection of the Prostate). What is the generally recommended management of warfarin in the perioperative period?

<p>Hold warfarin for 5 days before surgery and restart 2-3 days postoperatively, provided there are no bleeding concerns. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the use of Surgicel (oxidized regenerated cellulose)?

<p>Surgicel can be cut to the appropriate size and shape for the wound. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who underwent a complex colonic resection for cancer required 12 units of packed red blood cells (pRBCs) intraoperatively and is now hypoxic. Which diagnosis is MOST likely?

<p>Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the generally accepted ratio of blood products in a 1:1:1 massive transfusion protocol?

<p>1 unit of pRBC : 1 unit of FFP : 1 unit of platelets (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT). Besides discontinuing heparin including LMWH, what is the MOST appropriate initial anticoagulant to start?

<p>Argatroban (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long should dabigatran be held prior to a surgical procedure in a patient with moderate renal failure (Creatinine Clearance 40 mL/min, normal >90 mL/min)?

<p>4 days (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Best post-op nausea method

Serotonin receptor antagonists are most effective.

Initial management of intra-op hyperthermia, rigidity, & ventilation difficulty

Manage with IV fluids, O2, and muscle relaxants.

Malignant hyperthermia lab finding

Elevated potassium in the blood.

Agent most likely causing rigidity and hyperthermia post-intubation

Succinylcholine.

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Initial action for intra-op diffuse rash, hypotension, and bronchospasm

Stop muscle relaxant and give IV epinephrine.

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Best test for intra-op right heart strain and tachycardia

Trans-esophageal ECHO – PE causing right heart strain.

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Normal Saline composition

Na 154, Cl 154.

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First clinical sign of hypermagnesemia

Loss of deep tendon reflexes.

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Beta-blocker Management Peri-Op

Continue unless hypotension concerns arise. Crucial peri-operatively for cardiac stability.

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Cardiac Risks for Inguinal Hernia

Conditions like CHF or severe valve issues significantly increase peri-operative risk during hernia surgery.

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Highest Risk for Pulmonary Complications

ASA class >II, CHF, age >60, functional dependence, COPD, smoking, and obesity

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Elective Surgery Post-DES

Current guidelines suggest waiting at least 6 months, ideally longer (e.g., 12 months), after DES placement for elective surgery.

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Timing of surgery after BMS

30 days

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Who requires 'stress dose' steroids?

25mg daily for 3 weeks

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Lidocaine Allergy Alternative

Use Bupivacaine without preservatives.

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CAGE Questionnaire

The CAGE questionnaire is a screening tool for alcohol abuse. The acronym stands for Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, and Eye-opener.

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ASA Classification 2

ASA classification 2 indicates a patient with mild systemic disease.

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ASA Classification 3

ASA classification 3 indicates a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating.

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Local Anesthetic & Hepatic Failure

In patients with hepatic failure, you should decrease the dose of local anesthetic administered.

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Bupivacaine vs. Lidocaine

Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action and a slower onset than lidocaine.

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Bupivacaine Cardiotoxicity

Bupivacaine has greater cardiotoxicity than lidocaine.

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Local Anesthetic Toxicity: Earliest Symptom

The earliest symptom of local anesthetic toxicity is perioral numbness.

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OR Fire Risk

Cautery in a neck dissection with flammable gases increases the risk of fire in the OR.

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Anticoagulation Options

Options for anticoagulation: LMWH, Warfarin, Mechanical (valve), IVC filter.

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Dialysis & Platelets

Chronic dialysis patients often have dysfunctional platelets despite normal coagulation tests.

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Warfarin & TURP

Hold Warfarin for 5 days pre-TURP, restart 2-3 days post-op if no bleeding concerns.

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Surgicel Use

Surgicel can be placed directly on bleeding tissue to promote clotting.

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Massive Transfusion + Hypoxia

TACO (Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload) is likely after massive pRBC transfusion and hypoxia.

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Massive Transfusion Ratio

1:1:1 ratio in massive transfusion: 1 pRBC : 1 FFP : 1 Platelets.

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HIT Treatment

In HIT, stop LMWH and start Argatroban.

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Vasopressor Issue

Vasopressors may not improve perfusion at tissue and cellular level

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Septic Shock Presentation

Fever, increased pulse pressure, high WBC, tachycardia, tachypnea, warm extremities initially.

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Warm Shock

Septic shock presents with warm extremities due to vasodilation.

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ADH Function

The pituitary releases ADH (antidiuretic hormone) which leads to decreased urine output.

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Activated Protein C Complication

Increased bleeding is a possible complication due to its anticoagulant properties.

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Decompensation Phase of Shock

Tissue hypoperfusion and cell death. Progressing to cardiovascular collapse.

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Refeeding Syndrome

Seen with increased feeding in severely malnourished alcoholics and other malnourished patients.

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Brain Death Diagnosis

Deep coma, no motor response other than spinal reflexes, and minimal cerebral flow on ancillary studies.

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Combined Acidosis

Low pH, high pCO2, and low HCO3 indicates both respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis.

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Most Likely Transfusion Risk

Blood transfusions are most likely to transmit CMV (Cytomegalovirus).

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Reduce SSI Risk

Quitting smoking, antiseptic showers, and immediate hair removal can reduce SSI risk.

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Normal Bacterial Flora

Oropharynx contains normal bacterial flora in a healthy person.

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Needlestick HIV Prophylaxis

Start a three-drug HIV prophylaxis within hours, even before testing patient first.

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Confirm Pseudomembranous Colitis

Diagnosis is confirmed via stool toxin assay.

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Gram Negative Bacilli

Enterobacter cloacae.

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Kidney Stone Intervention

Fever of 39 degrees Celsius.

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HIV Prophylaxis

Three or more drugs.

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Study Notes

Anesthesia / Peri-Op / Fluids / Electrolytes

  • Ondansetron is the most efficacious method for post-op nausea because Serotonin receptor antagonists are the most efficacious

Intra-op complications

  • Manage intra-op hyperthermia, rigidity, and difficulty ventilating with IV fluids, O2, and muscle relaxants
  • Hyperkalemia is seen in malignant hyperthermia
  • Succinylcholine is the most likely inciting agent for rigidity and hyperthermia post-intubation
  • Diffuse rash, hypotension, and bronchospasm intra-op is treated by stopping muscle relaxants and giving IV epinephrine

Right heart strain and tachycardia

  • Trans-esophageal ECHO is the best next test to identify Pulmonary Embolism causing right heart strain

Normal Saline

  • Normal saline contains Na 154, Cl 154

Trauma and IV fluids

  • Large volume normal saline resuscitation causes metabolic acidosis by dilution of bicarb

Maintenance fluid rate and solution for a 60kg lady who is NPO

  • 5% DW, 0.45%NS and 20KCl at 100cc/hr is appropriate

Clinical Sign of Hypermagnesemia

  • Loss of deep tendon reflexes is the first clinical sign

Mallampati score

  • The Mallampati score can help predict a possible difficult airway

Beta-blocker

  • Continue beta-blockers unless there are concerns with hypotension

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

  • Stop ASA and continue a beta-blocker as best management of medications peri-op

Peri-Op clinic

  • Severe valvular heart disease increases the peri-op risk for a patient seen in pre-op clinic for inguinal hernia

Cardiac Risk Index

  • Detsky Modified Multifactorial Index, points are scored for each cardiac risk index
  • 20 points for class IV angina or suspected critical aortic stenosis
  • 10 points for alveolar pulmonary edema within 1 week or Class III angina
  • 5 points for MI >6 months ago or >5 PVCs any time before surgery

Patient Risk

  • Severe valvular heart disease increases the patient's peri-operative risk the most
  • A mitral regurgitation or aortic stenosis can cause a grade II/VI systolic murmur
  • Age >80 is the highest risk for peri-operative pulmonary complications

Highest relative risk

  • The highest relative risk in decreasing order is ASA class >II, CHF, age >60, functional dependence, COPD, smoking, and obesity

Elective blepharoplasty

  • A lady who wants elective blepharoplasty for her eye but had a DES two months ago after ACS should wait 10 months for surgery

Colon Cancer

  • Operate 30 days after a patient admitted to hospital with anemia has ACS and treated with BMS and is subsequently diagnosed with colon cancer

Stress Dose Steroids

  • A patient requires a stress-dose of 25mg daily for 3 weeks

Lidocaine Allergy

  • Manage a patient with known allergy to lidocaine, requiring excisional biopsy of skin lesion on the cheek, with Procaine

Surgical Needle

  • Unexpected change in procedure has the highest chance of retained foreign body (surgical needle)

Retained sponge

  • Multiple surgeons involved in the case in a patient with breast cancer and has oncologic resection is a risk factor for a retained sponge

Plasma Volume for 70kg male

  • Plasma Volume = 40 cc/kg (*70 = 2800), around 3L

CAGE questionnaire

  • The CAGE questionnaire is used to cut back, and identify if the person is annoyed or guilty, and their eye opening

ASA classification

  • A patient with comorbidities but no functional limitations has an ASA classification of 2
  • A patient with comorbidities and functional impairment has an ASA classification of 3

Anesthetic dose

  • Hepatic failure decreases the anesthetic does that should be administered

Bupivacaine

  • Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lidocaine and slower onset
  • Bupivacaine has greater cardiotoxicity than lidocaine
  • Perioral numbness is the earliest symptom of local anesthetic toxicity
  • Ketamine is the most likely medication to cause hypertension and tachycardia immediately after induction of general anesthetic

Endoscopy

  • During endoscopy with midazolam for sedation, patient has decreased LOC with bradycardia and hypotension, manage with Flumazenil

Active Rewarming

  • Rewarming BairHugger is the active rewarming method

Risk of fire in the OR

  • Using cautery in neck dissection with airway with flammable gases, increases the risk of fire in the OR

Electrocautery

  • High heat, low frequency is the difference between coag and cut when resident begins case using coagulation function instead of cut on the electrocautery and is unable to cut through the epidermis

Hyponatremia

  • Hyponatremia commonly manifests as ICP/headache

Electrolyte Abnormality

  • Hypercalcemia is the most likely electrolyte abnormality in a patient with pancreatic cancer and bony metastases who has nausea, vomiting and ECG findings of flattened T waves, short QT, and AV nodal block

Pancreatic cancer

  • Fluid restriction for a pancreatic cancer patient with euvolemia and hyponatremia, Ambulatory, and asymptomatic, admitted for pain control with Na 130, Urine Na 28, and U/O good

Chronic Pain

  • Pain after surgery is considered chronic pain after 3 months

Cardiac Surgery

  • Arterial is superior to venous bypass grafts used for Coronary Artery Bypass Graft

ENT

  • Staph Aureus is the most common cause of parotitis
  • The next best step for a man with 3cm mass anterior to his earlobe is a CT scan
  • If a patient is admitted for elective endoscopic sinus surgery with image-guided navigation to improve patient safety and they realize the pre-operative CT at another institution is incompatible with the present equipment, wake up patient and ask them how they would like to proceed

Ethics

  • 4 main ethical principles: autonomy, justice, beneficence, Non-maleficence
  • A 16 year old patient is a contraindication to MAID, must be 18 years old

Ethical Principle

  • Autonomy is an ethical principle violated if surgical foundations committee decides that every resident must suffer for 5 years so patients can benefit

MAID

  • A patient with metastatic pancreatic cancer and intolerable pain qualifies for MAID if he has an intractable medical condition
  • Attempting to make a follow-up plan is the best course of action for a man in ED with a hand tendon laceration who is angry about the wait times and decides to leave AMA

Beneficence

  • Beneficence is doing good for others

Medical records

  • Autonomy is the ethical principle that has the patient requesting his medical records with a recent diagnosis of glioblastoma with headaches for the past 6 months

Surgical complication

  • Ethically responsible to disclose complication immediately

Surgeon litigation

  • Poor communication is the most common cause for surgeon litigation

Small hospital

  • High volume centers have better outcomes/decreased complications so a samll hospital's outcome measures/complication rates notes rate higher than average is true

General Surgery

  • Invasive wound infection must be ruled out for a patient post laparotomy and small bowel resection develops a temperature 38.9 within 24 hours
  • Vomiting with gastric loss of sodium is the most likely cause of electrolyte abnormalities for a 64 year old male with small bowel obstruction admitted for emergent surgery with Na 112, Cl 96, K 3.8, Glc 12
  • Man with unknown history presents with massive hematemesis, ascites, splenomegaly, and spider angiomas gets Somatostatin (this is octreotide) while waiting for urgent endoscopy in addition to transfusion of red blood cells
  • Decreased CVP occurs upon CO2 insufflation during laparoscopy
  • Endoscopy is the most common cause of esophageal perforation
  • Celecoxib is the least likely NSAID to cause a GI bleed
  • BMI>40 is an indication for bariatric surgery
  • Fascial dehiscence is the dx for POD#8 patient presents with 1cm defect in wound with persistent copious amounts of serosanguinous discharge

Abdominal Compartment Syndrome

  • Low urine output, decreased preload, and increased intra-pulmonary pressure is seen in abdominal compartment syndrome
  • However for ACS, CVP can be increased despite decreased preload

Cirrhosis

  • Patients with cirrhosis are more sensitive to some general anesthetic medications

Post-op thyroidectomy/neck dissection patient

  • Open wound at bedside and take back to OR when a Post-op thyroidectomy/neck dissection patient in the PACU develops stridor and pulsatile hematoma beneath surgical incision

Hematology/ Transfusion Medicine

  • Von Willebrand Disease is the most common congenital bleeding disorder
  • Hemophilia A is the most common indication for FFP going for emergency surgery

INR

  • Factor VII is measured by INR
  • Platelets has the highest rate of bacterial infection
  • Factor VIII is required for platelets to adhere to collagen
  • vWF binds to Factor VIII

Warfarin

  • PCC is the best way to reverse it for a patient taking Warfarin who requires urgent laparotomy
  • Do nothing for a patient with platelet count of 55, no abnormal bleeding, is undergoing wound debridement for burns, no need for pre-op management
  • The liver creates Factor 1, fibrin
  • Congenital afibrinogenemia -- missing factor 1, unable to make clots--, has increased risk of bleeding

Female Undergoing Thyroid Surgery

  • LMWH is best DVT prophalaxis for female undergoing thyroid surgery who is healthy but has had prior DVT

MVC Trauma

  • LWMH is modality in the literature that has the best evidence for DVT prophylaxis for patient in an MVC trauma with grade II liver laceration, open tibial fracture, and cerebral contusion

Bariatric surgery

  • LMWH is the kind of DVT prophylaxis for a bariatric surgery patient with prior DVT

Dialysis patients

  • Dysfunctional platelets despite normal coagulation testing is true about coagulation status in chronic dialysis patients
  • Hold for 5 days, and then restart 2-3 days later if no bleeding concerns when patient is scheduled for a TURP perioperative Warfarin

Surgicel

  • Surgicel can be placed directly on bleeding tissue

Patient Transfusion

  • TRALI has the Post-op for cancer tx requiring 12 units of pRBC intraoperatively and is now hypoxic

Massive Transfusion Protocols

  • 1 unit pRBC : 1 unit FFP : 1 unit Platelets is the 1:1:1 ratio

HIT

  • If the Patient Developed HIT (Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia)

Dabigatran

  • Stop dabigatran 2-4 days prior to operation, or if a major bleeding is anticipated
  • Argatroban should be stopped and placed on for patients with HIT

ICU / Nutrition

  • Does not improve perfusion at tissue and cellular level, why are vasopressors bad

Energy reserve

  • Fat is the biggest energy reserve in a 70kg man

Severe Trauma

  • Proteolysis is the difference between energy expenditure in severe trauma and chronic starvation

Critical Illness

  • Lipids is the most important energy source in critical illness

Pareneteral nutrition

  • Inability to gain access to GI tract, trauma and the patient have perforated small bowel

Urine output

  • 500-800mL (0.5 x 60 kg = 30 x 24 hrs = 720 mL) daily minimum acceptable urine output for 60kg man

Air Embolism

  • Insert venous catheter into the right atrium and aspirate air, how to manage air embolism

TTE

  • Valvular disease is what the TTE best for

TPN

  • Hepatic steatosis is a complication of TPN and high caloric diet, common in patients with a history of alcoholism

Long Term Enteral Feeds

  • G-tube is best for a patient requiring severe brain injury, with long term enteral feeds in the ICU

Ng Enteral feeding

  • Best suited for patients with normal mentation and intact laryngeal muscles who can protect their airway (wording slightly different), true regarding NG enteral feeding

Decreased Aspiration

  • Raising head of bed 10 degrees decreases risk and has a lower risk than NG

Digested Carbohydrates

  • Small intestine is where carbohydrates are digested
  • Fever, increased pulse pressure, high WBC, tachycardiac, tachypnea, and warm, seen with septic shock
  • Septic shock presents with warm extremities
  • Increased bleeding, possible complication with Activated Protein C given in sepsis
  • Tissue hypoperfusion and cell death represents the decompensation phase within the "vicious cycle" of shock
  • Decreased chest wall compliance and expansion, why obese patients harder to ventilate

Refeeding Syndrome

  • Increased feeding in severely malnourished alcoholics, Seen with
  • Minimal cerebral flow on ancillary studies, is required to diagnose brain death

Start arginine Vaopressin infusion

  • Start arginine Vaopressin infusion for a patient with neurologic death in the ICU is reasonably stable with plans for organ donation but then crashes with hypotension, tachycardia and U/O increases to 1500cc/hr from previously 50cc/hr, and Sodium increases from 140 to 158

Metabolic Acidosis

  • Ketoacidosis, caused by high anion gap metabolic acidosis
  • Respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis, with low ph, high pCO2, normal p02, low HCO3 in the case of a patient

Demonstrate Myocardial Ischemia

  • Dobutamine is administered to demonstrate myocardial ischemia during ECHO
  • Assessment of valvular disease, ECHO is used best for

Volume Overload

  • Increased CO, supportive for volume overload

Best initial management

  • Feed, because best management is to stop for ICU pt.
  • Use enteral used in increased risk of bacteremia from CVC

Vasopressors and Dobutamine

  • Vascular trauma, use as last measure

Low urine output

  • Check kidney volume followed by arterial pressures

Hypoglycemia & Pre Existing Structural Brain lesion

  • Risk factor for delirium

Antipsychotic Medication

  • Give minimal dose of antispychotic medication to achieve effect elderly female Pt P.O agitated

large volume Paracentesis & Red Skin, O2 100%, Acidotic

  • Indication for Albumin, as you go up pull out fluid will come back.
  • Carbon monoxide poisoning, what is the presentation?

Oxygenation

  • Fetal hemoglobin shifts the curve left Oxygenation dissociation curve

Infectious Diseases

  • Vancomycin Used As A Periop Antibiotic:
  • Documented MRSA Patient
  • Appropriate Time Interval For Redosing Prophylactic Pre-Operative Antibiotics:
  • Half-Life, Want To Keep Adequate Dose Through Operation
  • When To Give Pre-Op:
  • Within 1 Hour Of Incision
  • Prophylactic Antibiotics:
  • Need Time To Get Adequate Levels At Operative Site Prior To Contamination
  • Pathogen Most Commonly Seen With Catheter Related Uti:
  • E. Coli.
  • Nosocomial Uti:
  • Do Not Need To Treat If Asymptomatic
  • Antibiotic Causes Tendon Rupture:
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Raw Hamburger With Hematuria And Purpura With Epitasxis:
  • Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
  • Pre-Op Supervised Nurse:
  • Electric Clippers Use For Hair Removal
  • SSI, A common source of the morbidity
  • decrease SSI?
  • loban, antibiotic rinse, frequent saline of open wounds does NOT dec.
  • Which of the following increases your risk for SSI
  • blood transfusion
  • Following will dec risk of SSI
  • quiting 30 days before surgery
  • Pokes with hollow bore-needler
  • What should you d a) Start Prophylaxis whiting a few hours
    1. Which one is you most likey get form blood transfusion
  • HBV
  • Which test from pseudmermbrnrouos
  • stool test
  • Gram Negative which one is
  • Enterobacter cloacae

Neurosurgery

  • Extracellular has the highest sodium

Traumatic CSF Leak

  • Appropriate management- observation

Trauma

  • Traumatic injury zone 2, rapid expanding hematoma
  • OR for ex

Vascular Problems

  • Bicarb:
  • Rhabdo
  • Zone 2 penetrating neck Injured and need to call surgery to vascular

Wound Healing

  • Absorbable Monofil Monofil sucks so

Complications of Bone

  • Bone fracture
  • Pulmonary issue

Research & Statistics

Chi square and case control

  • Best test determne causaality between 2 VA
  • Rare and best used when there were questions Were there any exposed

High Alpha and 1 2 Test

  • Alpha 1 error reject null and type 2 fiailed
  • NNT &
  • 1/.05
  • Treatment has a relative risk and absoltue .25 and .04
  • What is import var in deciding to implment
  • must implement improves outcome

Bias Problems

  • bias problems

Transplant

  • Preservation
  • Hypo then wisc solution
  • Chonic rejection
  • ENDO AND Epithenlum

What are and abo typing

  • Hyper acute reject

Trasplanta ab matching

PRE FORM AND ABO AND

what is tureof hLA

cd BY HA -2

  • Antigen pro skin cell
  • Marophages PTLD is with WHAT

EBV EB V

  • Most common by
  • Squammouls
  • Aza will incerases
  • Neprotxoicy with Cyclo spor

A TRANS plant called with Donor AND ANOTHER H

All otralnsplat .Zone AND PEN inj

C-spine fracture

  • Neurogenic shock

Patient is stabbed in chest and hypotensive

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