Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which type of lever is exemplified by standing on your toes?
Which type of lever is exemplified by standing on your toes?
The prime mover muscle opposes the action of the antagonist muscle.
The prime mover muscle opposes the action of the antagonist muscle.
False
What muscle is responsible for elevating the mandible during chewing?
What muscle is responsible for elevating the mandible during chewing?
Masseter
The muscle that increases thoracic volume during inhalation is the ______.
The muscle that increases thoracic volume during inhalation is the ______.
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Match the following muscles to their actions:
Match the following muscles to their actions:
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Which type of muscle arrangement is characterized by a greater range of motion?
Which type of muscle arrangement is characterized by a greater range of motion?
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The external oblique muscle functions to flex the vertebral column.
The external oblique muscle functions to flex the vertebral column.
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What is the role of a fixator muscle?
What is the role of a fixator muscle?
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What is the primary function of the cerebellum?
What is the primary function of the cerebellum?
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The thalamus is involved in regulating body temperature.
The thalamus is involved in regulating body temperature.
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Name the three parts of the diencephalon.
Name the three parts of the diencephalon.
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The __________ is responsible for visual processing.
The __________ is responsible for visual processing.
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Match each cranial nerve to its corresponding function:
Match each cranial nerve to its corresponding function:
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Which type of brain waves is associated with deep sleep?
Which type of brain waves is associated with deep sleep?
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The left hemisphere is primarily responsible for artistic abilities.
The left hemisphere is primarily responsible for artistic abilities.
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What are the three branches of the trigeminal nerve?
What are the three branches of the trigeminal nerve?
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The __________ helps regulate circadian rhythms by secreting melatonin.
The __________ helps regulate circadian rhythms by secreting melatonin.
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What is the role of the association fibers in the cerebral white matter?
What is the role of the association fibers in the cerebral white matter?
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The caudate nucleus is part of the limbic system.
The caudate nucleus is part of the limbic system.
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Identify the foramina through which the oculomotor nerve exits the skull.
Identify the foramina through which the oculomotor nerve exits the skull.
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Match each lobe of the cerebrum with its main function:
Match each lobe of the cerebrum with its main function:
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The cerebellar cortex is highly __________.
The cerebellar cortex is highly __________.
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Which plexus is responsible for innervating the diaphragm?
Which plexus is responsible for innervating the diaphragm?
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The spinal cord is innervated by two principal ramuses, the dorsal and ventral ramus.
The spinal cord is innervated by two principal ramuses, the dorsal and ventral ramus.
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What is a dermatome?
What is a dermatome?
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The ____ plexus supplies the lower limbs.
The ____ plexus supplies the lower limbs.
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Match the following plexuses with their distributions:
Match the following plexuses with their distributions:
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Which tract is responsible for carrying pain and temperature sensations?
Which tract is responsible for carrying pain and temperature sensations?
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The brain receives blood supply only from the internal carotid arteries.
The brain receives blood supply only from the internal carotid arteries.
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Which muscle is responsible for abducting the humerus?
Which muscle is responsible for abducting the humerus?
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The spinal nerves are part of the Central Nervous System (CNS).
The spinal nerves are part of the Central Nervous System (CNS).
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What is the main role of the reticular formation?
What is the main role of the reticular formation?
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The ____ is a protective layer surrounding the brain and spinal cord.
The ____ is a protective layer surrounding the brain and spinal cord.
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What does the term 'innervation' refer to in the context of muscles?
What does the term 'innervation' refer to in the context of muscles?
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The primary function of the ______ nervous system is to control voluntary movements.
The primary function of the ______ nervous system is to control voluntary movements.
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Match the following major parts of the brain with their functions:
Match the following major parts of the brain with their functions:
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What is the origin of the lumbar plexus?
What is the origin of the lumbar plexus?
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Which ion channels are essential for action potentials?
Which ion channels are essential for action potentials?
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Gray matter is primarily composed of myelinated axons.
Gray matter is primarily composed of myelinated axons.
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Cerebrospinal fluid is produced in the spinal cord.
Cerebrospinal fluid is produced in the spinal cord.
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What are the three main layers of meninges?
What are the three main layers of meninges?
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Name one function of astrocytes in the nervous system.
Name one function of astrocytes in the nervous system.
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The ______ nervous system prepares the body for 'fight or flight' responses.
The ______ nervous system prepares the body for 'fight or flight' responses.
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The largest nerve in the body, which innervates the lower leg, is the ____ nerve.
The largest nerve in the body, which innervates the lower leg, is the ____ nerve.
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Which muscle group extends the knee?
Which muscle group extends the knee?
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All action potentials are the same size regardless of the strength of the stimulus.
All action potentials are the same size regardless of the strength of the stimulus.
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What is the resting membrane potential of neurons approximately measured in millivolts?
What is the resting membrane potential of neurons approximately measured in millivolts?
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The ______ canal is essential for maintaining the equilibrium of sodium and potassium in neurons.
The ______ canal is essential for maintaining the equilibrium of sodium and potassium in neurons.
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Match the following muscles with their primary action:
Match the following muscles with their primary action:
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The enteric nervous system is dependent on the brain for its functions.
The enteric nervous system is dependent on the brain for its functions.
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What is the primary role of microglia in the central nervous system?
What is the primary role of microglia in the central nervous system?
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Which type of receptor responds to temperature changes?
Which type of receptor responds to temperature changes?
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Which pathway carries fine touch and proprioception sensations to the brain?
Which pathway carries fine touch and proprioception sensations to the brain?
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Nociceptors are responsible for detecting light.
Nociceptors are responsible for detecting light.
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What are the functions of proprioceptors?
What are the functions of proprioceptors?
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The primary somatosensory cortex is organized according to __________, where different regions correspond to sensations from different body parts.
The primary somatosensory cortex is organized according to __________, where different regions correspond to sensations from different body parts.
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Match the following types of sensory receptors with their functions:
Match the following types of sensory receptors with their functions:
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Which type of receptor is primarily located in the skin?
Which type of receptor is primarily located in the skin?
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Upper motor neurons are located in the anterior horn of the spinal cord.
Upper motor neurons are located in the anterior horn of the spinal cord.
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What is the primary role of the cerebellum in movement?
What is the primary role of the cerebellum in movement?
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The __________ pathway is associated with the control of involuntary movements and postural adjustment.
The __________ pathway is associated with the control of involuntary movements and postural adjustment.
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What is the function of Golgi tendon organs?
What is the function of Golgi tendon organs?
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The reticular activating system (RAS) regulates sleep only.
The reticular activating system (RAS) regulates sleep only.
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What is the function of the anterolateral pathway?
What is the function of the anterolateral pathway?
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Pain receptors, also known as __________, are found throughout the body.
Pain receptors, also known as __________, are found throughout the body.
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What is the function of the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve?
What is the function of the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve?
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The vagus (X) nerve exits the skull through the foramen magnum.
The vagus (X) nerve exits the skull through the foramen magnum.
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Which structure do preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system originate from?
Which structure do preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system originate from?
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The _____ nerve controls movement of the tongue.
The _____ nerve controls movement of the tongue.
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Match the type of neuron with its description:
Match the type of neuron with its description:
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What primary neurotransmitter is released by all preganglionic neurons?
What primary neurotransmitter is released by all preganglionic neurons?
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Sympathetic division neurons originate from the cranial nerves.
Sympathetic division neurons originate from the cranial nerves.
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What does the autonomic nervous system primarily regulate?
What does the autonomic nervous system primarily regulate?
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The _____ responds to the body's internal environment by carrying signals from the CNS to target organs.
The _____ responds to the body's internal environment by carrying signals from the CNS to target organs.
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Match the sympathetic responses with their effects:
Match the sympathetic responses with their effects:
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Which division of the autonomic nervous system promotes the 'rest and digest' response?
Which division of the autonomic nervous system promotes the 'rest and digest' response?
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The hypothalamus plays a role in regulating voluntary motor functions.
The hypothalamus plays a role in regulating voluntary motor functions.
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What are the two types of receptors involved in autonomic responses?
What are the two types of receptors involved in autonomic responses?
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The _____ detects changes in the internal environment during an autonomic reflex.
The _____ detects changes in the internal environment during an autonomic reflex.
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Which of the following factors enhances memory retention?
Which of the following factors enhances memory retention?
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The olfactory receptors are located in the olfactory bulb.
The olfactory receptors are located in the olfactory bulb.
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What is the primary role of the iris in the eye?
What is the primary role of the iris in the eye?
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The _____ part of the eye helps bend light to focus on the retina.
The _____ part of the eye helps bend light to focus on the retina.
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Match the following components of the ear with their functions:
Match the following components of the ear with their functions:
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What is the role of supporting cells in olfaction?
What is the role of supporting cells in olfaction?
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All tastes require the same mechanism for transduction.
All tastes require the same mechanism for transduction.
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What are the five primary tastes?
What are the five primary tastes?
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During sleep, ________ helps to consolidate memories.
During sleep, ________ helps to consolidate memories.
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What part of the eye is responsible for color detection?
What part of the eye is responsible for color detection?
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Rods are responsible for color vision.
Rods are responsible for color vision.
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Explain the process of image formation in the eye.
Explain the process of image formation in the eye.
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The _____ controls the amount of light entering the eye.
The _____ controls the amount of light entering the eye.
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Match the structures of the inner ear to their functions:
Match the structures of the inner ear to their functions:
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How do emotions affect memory?
How do emotions affect memory?
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What is the primary function of estrogen in the female reproductive system?
What is the primary function of estrogen in the female reproductive system?
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Graded potentials are always large and dependent on the amount of ion influx.
Graded potentials are always large and dependent on the amount of ion influx.
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What ion influx is primarily responsible for depolarization during an action potential?
What ion influx is primarily responsible for depolarization during an action potential?
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In the nervous system, the process of generating new neurons is known as ______.
In the nervous system, the process of generating new neurons is known as ______.
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Match the following neurotransmitters with their types:
Match the following neurotransmitters with their types:
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Which of the following correctly describes spatial summation?
Which of the following correctly describes spatial summation?
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The refractory period is the time during which another action potential cannot be initiated.
The refractory period is the time during which another action potential cannot be initiated.
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What is the role of Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system?
What is the role of Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system?
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The process where an axon degenerates distal to a site of injury is called ______.
The process where an axon degenerates distal to a site of injury is called ______.
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Which structure is responsible for fast communication between neurons?
Which structure is responsible for fast communication between neurons?
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Myelinated axons conduct action potentials more slowly than unmyelinated axons.
Myelinated axons conduct action potentials more slowly than unmyelinated axons.
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What role do neurotransmitters play in signal transmission at chemical synapses?
What role do neurotransmitters play in signal transmission at chemical synapses?
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The outermost layer that surrounds the entire spinal nerve is called the ______.
The outermost layer that surrounds the entire spinal nerve is called the ______.
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Match the types of neural circuits with their definitions:
Match the types of neural circuits with their definitions:
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What is the primary function of the semicircular canals?
What is the primary function of the semicircular canals?
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Exocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream.
Exocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream.
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What type of hormone is typically unable to pass through the cell membrane?
What type of hormone is typically unable to pass through the cell membrane?
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The __________ secretes hormones that regulate the sleep-wake cycle.
The __________ secretes hormones that regulate the sleep-wake cycle.
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Match the following glands with their hormones:
Match the following glands with their hormones:
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What is the role of hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex?
What is the role of hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex?
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The hypothalamus is located above the pituitary gland.
The hypothalamus is located above the pituitary gland.
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What type of feedback mechanism reduces hormone release in response to high levels of a hormone?
What type of feedback mechanism reduces hormone release in response to high levels of a hormone?
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The hormone __________ is responsible for raising blood sugar levels.
The hormone __________ is responsible for raising blood sugar levels.
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Match the following hormones to their respective glands:
Match the following hormones to their respective glands:
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Which of the following is true about lipid-soluble hormones?
Which of the following is true about lipid-soluble hormones?
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The relationship between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland is mainly about nutrient absorption.
The relationship between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland is mainly about nutrient absorption.
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What are the two general mechanisms of hormone action?
What are the two general mechanisms of hormone action?
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What is the primary function of the thymus in the immune system?
What is the primary function of the thymus in the immune system?
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Erythropoietin is secreted by the liver to stimulate red blood cell production.
Erythropoietin is secreted by the liver to stimulate red blood cell production.
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Name one function of leptin secreted by adipose tissue.
Name one function of leptin secreted by adipose tissue.
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The primary role of ________ is to promote sodium and water excretion to regulate blood pressure.
The primary role of ________ is to promote sodium and water excretion to regulate blood pressure.
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Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygen?
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygen?
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Platelets are formed from stem cells in the spleen.
Platelets are formed from stem cells in the spleen.
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What is the lifespan of red blood cells?
What is the lifespan of red blood cells?
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The process of stopping bleeding is known as ________.
The process of stopping bleeding is known as ________.
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Match the following hormones with their primary functions:
Match the following hormones with their primary functions:
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What is the primary cause of hemolytic reactions in blood transfusions?
What is the primary cause of hemolytic reactions in blood transfusions?
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The presence of Rh antigen indicates a Rh-negative blood type.
The presence of Rh antigen indicates a Rh-negative blood type.
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What are eicosanoids primarily involved in?
What are eicosanoids primarily involved in?
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Blood is slightly alkaline with a pH range of ________ to ________.
Blood is slightly alkaline with a pH range of ________ to ________.
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Which type of blood cell is primarily involved in the immune response?
Which type of blood cell is primarily involved in the immune response?
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Thrombopoiesis is the process of red blood cell production.
Thrombopoiesis is the process of red blood cell production.
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What is the primary function of the heart's valves?
What is the primary function of the heart's valves?
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The left ventricle has thinner walls than the right ventricle.
The left ventricle has thinner walls than the right ventricle.
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What is the location of the heart?
What is the location of the heart?
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The outermost layer of the heart wall is called the ______.
The outermost layer of the heart wall is called the ______.
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Which chamber receives deoxygenated blood from the body?
Which chamber receives deoxygenated blood from the body?
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The coronary arteries supply blood to the lungs.
The coronary arteries supply blood to the lungs.
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What is cardiac output?
What is cardiac output?
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During ventricular systole, the pressure in the ventricles ______.
During ventricular systole, the pressure in the ventricles ______.
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Match the following components of the heart with their respective functions:
Match the following components of the heart with their respective functions:
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Which layer of the cardiac wall is responsible for contraction?
Which layer of the cardiac wall is responsible for contraction?
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The PR interval on an electrocardiogram represents ventricular depolarization.
The PR interval on an electrocardiogram represents ventricular depolarization.
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What happens during diastole?
What happens during diastole?
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The ______ artery supplies the left side of the heart.
The ______ artery supplies the left side of the heart.
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Which of the following factors increases stroke volume?
Which of the following factors increases stroke volume?
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Study Notes
Chapter 11: The Muscular System
- Skeletal muscles contract and pull on bones, acting as levers, to produce movement at joints.
- A lever is a rigid structure (bone) that moves on a fixed point (fulcrum), which is the joint.
- The types of levers are:
- First-Class: Fulcrum between load and effort (e.g., neck).
- Second-Class: Load between fulcrum and effort (e.g., standing on toes).
- Third-Class: Effort between load and fulcrum (e.g., biceps flexing elbow).
- Muscle fascicle arrangements (parallel, fusiform, circular, convergent, pennate) affect strength and range of motion.
- Pennate muscles are strong.
- Parallel muscles offer greater range of motion.
- Muscle roles in groups:
- Prime Mover (Agonist): Main muscle causing movement.
- Antagonist: Opposes the prime mover.
- Synergist: Assists the prime mover.
- Fixator: Stabilizes the origin of the prime mover.
- Skeletal muscle names often describe location, shape, size, fiber direction, number of origins, attachment points, or action.
- Facial muscles (e.g., Orbicularis oculi, Zygomaticus major) are innervated by the facial nerve.
- Muscles for Mastication (e.g., Masseter, Temporalis) are innervated by the trigeminal nerve.
- Muscles moving the head (e.g., Sternocleidomastoid, Semispinalis capitis) are innervated by the spinal accessory nerve and/or cervical nerves.
- Abdominal muscles (e.g., Rectus abdominis, External oblique) are innervated by thoracic nerves.
- Thoracic muscles for breathing (e.g., Diaphragm, Intercostals) are innervated by the phrenic nerve and intercostal nerves.
- Thoracic muscles moving the pectoral girdle (e.g., Trapezius, Serratus anterior) are innervated by the accessory nerve and long thoracic nerve.
- Thoracic muscles moving the humerus (e.g., Pectoralis major, Deltoid) are innervated by brachial plexus nerves.
- Arm muscles moving radius and ulna (e.g., Biceps brachii, Triceps brachii) are innervated by musculocutaneous and radial nerves.
- Forearm muscles moving the wrist, hand, and digits (e.g., Flexor digitorum superficialis, Extensor carpi radialis) are innervated by median and radial nerves.
- Muscles moving the vertebral column (e.g., Erector spinae, Quadratus lumborum) are innervated by spinal nerves.
- Gluteal region muscles moving the femur (e.g., Gluteus maximus, Piriformis) are innervated by gluteal nerves.
- Muscles moving the femur, tibia, and fibula (e.g., Quadriceps femoris, Hamstrings) are innervated by femoral and sciatic nerves.
- Intrinsic foot muscles moving the toes (e.g., Flexor digitorum brevis, Abductor hallucis) are innervated by plantar nerves.
Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
- The nervous system is divided into the central (brain and spinal cord) and peripheral nervous systems (nerves and ganglia).
- Somatic nervous system controls voluntary movements, peripheral sensory information.
- Autonomic nervous system controls involuntary actions (heart rate, digestion), including sympathetic ("fight or flight") and parasympathetic ("rest and digest") branches and enteric nervous system.
- Three basic functions: sensory input, integration, motor output.
- Neurons transmit electrical signals; neuroglia support them (astrocytes, oligodendrocytes/Schwann cells, microglia, ependymal cells).
- Gray matter contains cell bodies and synapses; white matter contains myelinated axons.
- Neurons communicate via resting membrane potential (maintained by the Na+/K+ pump), action potentials (depolarization/repolarization), and synaptic transmission (neurotransmitter release).
- Ion channels (leak, voltage-gated, ligand-gated, mechanically-gated) mediate graded and action potentials.
- Graded potentials are local, variable-strength changes in membrane potential.
- Action potentials are all-or-nothing changes in membrane potential propagated along axons.
- Synaptic transmission involves electrical or chemical signaling (via neurotransmitters).
- Spatial and temporal summation are ways of adding graded potentials.
- Neurotransmitters (amino acids, monoamines, peptides, acetylcholine) have excitatory or inhibitory effects.
- Neural circuits include diverging, converging, reverberating, and parallel after-discharge circuits.
- Brain plasticity and neurogenesis enable adaptation and learning.
- Peripheral nerve damage can result in Wallerian degeneration and potentially regeneration.
Chapter 13: Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
- The spinal cord is protected by the meninges (dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater) and cerebrospinal fluid, encased within vertebrae.
- Spinal nerves connect to the spinal cord via dorsal (sensory) and ventral (motor) roots.
- A spinal nerve is a mixed nerve, containing both sensory and motor fibers.
- Spinal nerves are enveloped by epineurium, perineurium, and endoneurium, and branch into rami.
- Dorsal rami innervate the back muscles; ventral rami contribute to plexuses.
- Plexuses (cervical, brachial, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal) redistribute nerve fibers in the limbs and trunk.
- Dermatomes are specific skin areas innervated by a spinal nerve, helpful in locating spinal cord/nerve damage.
- Cervical plexus innervates neck and diaphragm.
- Brachial plexus innervates upper limbs.
- Lumbar plexus innervates lower abdomen and anterior thigh.
- Sacral and coccygeal plexuses innervate buttocks, perineum, and lower limbs.
Chapter 14: Brain and Cranial Nerves
- Major brain parts: cerebrum, diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus), cerebellum, brainstem (midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata).
- Brain protection: meninges, cranial bones, CSF, blood-brain barrier.
- Blood supply: internal carotid arteries, vertebral arteries, Circle of Willis.
- CSF formation/circulation: choroid plexus, ventricles, subarachnoid space, arachnoid villi.
- Brainstem/reticular formation: vital function control, consciousness regulation.
- Cerebellum: motor coordination, balance, posture.
- Diencephalon components (thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus): relay sensory info, regulate homeostasis.
- Cerebrum components (cortex, gyri, sulci, fissures): higher cognitive functions, sensory processing.
- Cerebral lobes: frontal (motor, decision), parietal (sensory), temporal (auditory, memory), occipital (visual).
- Cerebral white matter tracts: association, commissural, projection fibers.
- Basal nuclei: motor control, initiation, and coordination of movement.
- Limbic system: emotion, memory.
- Cerebral cortex areas (sensory, association, motor): processing, integration, and control of movement.
- Hemispheric lateralization: specialization of hemispheres for specific functions.
- Brain waves: reflect brain activity, indicative of different states of consciousness.
- Cranial nerves (I-XII): numbered, typed (sensory, motor, both), their functions (smell, sight, eye movements, facial expressions, hearing, taste, throat sensations, respiratory control, neck and shoulder movements, tongue).
Chapter 15: Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)
- Somatic vs. ANS: Somatic: voluntary control; ANS: involuntary control (smooth/cardiac muscle & glands).
- ANS structure: two-neuron chain (pre- and postganglionic).
- Sympathetic vs. Parasympathetic:
- Sympathetic: thoracolumbar, short preganglionic, long postganglionic, "fight-or-flight" responses.
- Parasympathetic: craniosacral, long preganglionic, short postganglionic, "rest-and-digest" responses.
- Neurotransmitters/receptors: ACh (cholinergic) and NE/epinephrine (adrenergic), with specific receptor types (nicotinic, muscarinic, alpha, beta).
- ANS responses: Sympathetic: increases heart/blood pressure, dilates pupils, inhibits digestion, stimulates sweat/muscle blood flow; Parasympathetic: decreases heart/blood pressure, constricts pupils, stimulates digestion, promotes rest/recovery.
- Visceral reflexes: sensory, afferent, integrating, efferent pathways, and effector organs.
- Hypothalamus: major control center for ANS, regulates internal environment.
Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor, and Integrative Systems
- Sensation: Detecting stimuli and interpreting it, components include stimulus, receptor, transduction, conduction, perception.
- Sensory receptor classification (by stimulus type and location).
- Somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, pain sensations; location and function.
- Proprioception receptors: muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, and joint kinesthetic receptors, function.
- Sensory pathways: receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, ascending tract, perception.
- Sensory pathways (posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral, trigeminothalamic, spinocerebellar): their components and function, sensory mapping.
- Upper and lower motor neurons, their location and role in movement.
- Cerebral cortex, brainstem, basal nuclei, and cerebellum roles in voluntary and involuntary movements.
- Direct and indirect motor pathways: their locations, functions, and effects on movement.
- Integrative functions (wakefulness, sleep, coma, learning, memory, language).
- Stages of sleep (NREM 1-4, REM).
- Memory factors (attention, repetition, association, emotion, sleep).
Chapter 17: The Special Senses
- Olfaction (smell): olfactory receptors, supporting and basal cells, transduction process.
- Taste (gustation): primary tastes (sweet, sour, salty, bitter, umami), transduction process.
- Vision (importance, visible light range).
- Eye accessory structures (eyelids, eyelashes, lacrimal apparatus, conjunctiva, extrinsic muscles).
- Eye components (cornea, pupil, lens, retina, optic nerve, iris, sclera).
- Eye functions (cornea, pupil, lens, retina, optic nerve).
- Image formation by the eye: light path, focusing by the lens, retinal signal conversion.
- Retina processing: rods (light intensity), cones (color), bipolar cells, ganglion cells.
- Ear anatomy (outer, middle, inner ear): pinna, auditory canal, tympanic membrane, ossicles, Eustachian tube, cochlea, vestibule, semicircular canals.
- Hearing physiology: sound wave transmission, ossicle vibration, cochlear hair cell stimulation, auditory nerve signal transmission.
- Equilibrium organs (semicircular canals, otolith organs): their functions and contribution to balance.
Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
- Endocrine vs. nervous system control: slow, long-term vs. fast, short-term responses.
- Exocrine vs. endocrine glands (method of product release).
- Hormone-receptor interaction: binding to surface or intracellular receptors, triggering responses.
- Water-soluble vs. lipid-soluble hormones (mechanism of action).
- Mechanisms of hormone action: signal transduction (water-soluble) and direct gene activation (lipid-soluble).
- Hormone secretion control: negative and positive feedback, maintaining homeostasis.
- Hypothalamus-pituitary gland relationship (anatomical and regulatory).
- Anterior vs. posterior pituitary gland (location, histology, hormones, functions).
- Thyroid gland (location, histology, hormones, functions: T3/4 for metabolism, Calcitonin for blood calcium).
- Parathyroid glands (location, histology, hormones, functions: PTH for blood calcium regulation).
- Adrenal glands (location, histology, hormones, functions: cortex (corticosteroids) and medulla (catecholamines, stress response.)
- Pancreatic islets (location, histology, hormones, function: alpha cells (glucagon), beta cells (insulin), blood glucose regulation).
- Gonads (male testes and female ovaries): location, hormones (testosterone, estrogen, progesterone), functions.
- Pineal gland (location, hormone, melatonin).
- Thymus (location, hormone, immunity).
- Other hormone-secreting tissues/organs
- Eicosanoids and growth factors.
- Stress response and the HPA axis.
Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood
- Blood functions (transportation, regulation, protection).
- Blood characteristics and components (plasma, formed elements; RBCs, WBCs, platelets).
- Blood cell origin (hematopoietic stem cells).
- RBC structure, function, life cycle, and production (erythropoiesis by kidneys).
- WBC structure, function, and production (leukopoiesis, immune responses).
- Platelets: structure, function (hemostasis), and origin (thrombopoiesis).
- Hemostasis mechanisms (vascular spasm, platelet plug, coagulation).
- Blood clotting factors (promote and inhibit clotting).
- ABO and Rh blood groups (antigens, antibodies, transfusion compatibility). Transfusion incompatibility risks.
Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
- Heart location and position in the mediastinum.
- Pericardium structure (layers).
- Heart wall layers (epicardium, myocardium, endocardium).
- Heart chambers (right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle); internal/external anatomy.
- Heart valve structure and function (AV valves, semilunar valves, preventing backflow).
- Blood flow through the heart: pulmonary and systemic circuits.
- Coronary circulation (coronary arteries, coronary veins).
- Cardiac muscle tissue structure (intercalated discs).
- Cardiac conduction system (SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers).
- Action potential in cardiac contractile fibers (depolarization, plateau, repolarization).
- Electrocardiogram (ECG) waves and intervals (P wave, QRS complex, T wave, PR interval, QT interval).
- Cardiac cycle pressure and volume changes (systole, diastole).
- Heart sounds (S1, S2) and their relationship to ECG.
- Cardiac output (CO)= Stroke volume(SV)×Heart rate(HR).
- Factors affecting stroke volume (preload, contractility, afterload).
- Factors affecting heart rate (autonomic NS, hormones).
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Test your knowledge of human anatomy with this quiz focused on muscle types, actions, and arrangements. It includes questions about levers, muscle functions, and specific movements in the body. Perfect for students in anatomy courses or enthusiasts looking to refresh their understanding.