Human Anatomy and Embryology Quiz

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Questions and Answers

A patient exhibits paralysis and fasciculations in the anterior and lateral compartments of the leg, following a motorbike accident, but normal posterior compartment function. Which nerve is most likely injured?

  • Sciatic nerve
  • Tibial nerve
  • Deep fibular nerve
  • Common fibular nerve (correct)

A patient cannot dorsiflex their left foot but retains plantar flexion. Which nerve is most likely to be damaged?

  • Tibial nerve
  • Deep fibular nerve (correct)
  • Sural nerve
  • Femoral nerve

When a patient stands on their toes, which nerve's function is predominately being assessed?

  • Tibial nerve (correct)
  • Superficial fibular nerve
  • Deep fibular nerve
  • Saphenous nerve

A patient sustained a deep laceration in the plantar region overlying the medial cuneiform, resulting in inability to flex and abduct the big toe and numbness of plantar aspect of the medial 3.5 toes, which nerve is most likely damaged?

<p>Medial plantar nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A positive Trendelenburg sign is most suggestive of a functional deficiency in which nerve?

<p>Superior gluteal nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a fracture occurs at the greater trochanter of the femur, which of the following muscles would most likely be detached?

<p>Gluteus medius (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Damage to the common fibular nerve would likely result in paralysis and fasciculations in which two leg compartments?

<p>Anterior and lateral (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve provides cutaneous sensation to the plantar aspect of the medial three and a half toes?

<p>Medial plantar nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following joint and type of joint pairing is correct?

<p>Hip joint : ball and socket joint (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An abnormal vascular connection that bypasses the capillary bed by directly connecting an artery and a vein is called a(n):

<p>Arteriovenous shunt (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnancy test detects which hormone to indicate a positive result?

<p>Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Primordial germ cells (PGCs) initially migrate to which location after their formation?

<p>Yolk sac (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these options best describes the standard normal anatomical position?

<p>Standing position, head straight forward, upper extremities by the sides and palms facing forward (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The erector spinae muscle group develops from which embryonic cells?

<p>Epaxial cells of the myotome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process facilitates the blastocyst 'hatching' from the zona pellucida before implantation?

<p>Digestion of zona pellucida by trophoblastic enzymes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the bilaminar disc phase of development, the inner cell mass initially divides into which primitive structures?

<p>Epiblast and hypoblast (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the action of the flexor hallucis longus muscle?

<p>Plantarflexor of the foot and flexor of the big toe (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A twin pregnancy where the embryos share a placenta and chorionic cavity but have separate amniotic cavities is most likely due to monozygotic splitting at what stage?

<p>Early blastocyst stage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient experiences loss of sensation on the dorsum of the foot due to damage of the superficial fibular nerve, which muscle should be tested to confirm the nerve injury?

<p>Fibularis longus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An 'unhappy triad' knee injury, which occurrs after a strike to the lateral aspect of the knee, typically involves damage to which of the following components?

<p>Rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament, damage to the medial meniscus, and tear of the tibial collateral ligament (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A tear of the ligament that attaches on the acetabular rim anteriorly and the intertrochanteric line, primarily affects which hip movement?

<p>Prevents hyperextension of the thigh while standing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a wound located in the right thigh, bounded laterally by the vastus medialis, posteromedially by the adductor longus and magnus, and anteriorly by the sartorius, which nerve is most likely to be severed?

<p>Femoral nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following muscles is responsible for plantarflexion of the foot?

<p>Flexor Hallucis Longus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A football player has injured his knee and has a ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, a torn medial meniscus and a torn tibia collateral ligament, Which single event resulted in the injury?

<p>A strike on the lateral side of the knee (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities leads to the condition of having an extra copy of chromosome 21?

<p>Trisomy 21 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with anencephaly. Which developmental process is most likely disrupted?

<p>Closure of the cranial neuropore (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

From which specific region of the spinal cord do motor neurons originate that innervate skeletal muscles?

<p>Anterior horn (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Damage to the sustentaculum tali is most likely to affect which tendon due to its passage through the groove on the inferior aspect?

<p>Flexor hallucis longus tendon (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the composition and function of the ventral rami in a typical spinal nerve?

<p>Carry both sensory and motor fibers to the body wall and upper/lower extremities (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Preganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers that bypass the paravertebral ganglia and do not synapse are classified as which type of fibers?

<p>Splanchnic (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the these is a characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system?

<p>Preganglionic nerve cell bodies are located in the intermedio-lateral cell column of the spinal cord (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the muscles that attach to the fibula, which muscle's action primarily counteracts the downward pull of the other eight?

<p>Dorsiflexor and inverter of the foot (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the anatomical relationship of the fibularis tertius?

<p>Lateral to the tendon of fibularis brevis and medial to the tendon of tibialis anterior (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has lower limb varicosities due to incompetent venous valves. Which statement accurately reflects lower limb venous drainage?

<p>The lesser saphenous vein empties into the popliteal vein and not the femoral vein. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An MRI reveals a bony tumor compressing a nerve in the obturator canal. Which muscle would be fully paralyzed by this compression?

<p>Gracilis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the obturator artery becomes blocked, which artery would provide collateral circulation to the medial thigh compartment?

<p>Medial circumflex femoral artery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient lands heavily on their heel, resulting in a calcaneal fracture. Which group of muscles would be most affected?

<p>Gastrocnemius, Plantaris and Soleus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a fall, a patient is unable to laterally rotate their thigh at the hip joint. Which muscles are most likely impaired?

<p>Gluteus maximus, piriformis, obturator internus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A blood clot forms between the external iliac and femoral arteries, deep to the inguinal ligament. What is a possible alternate route for blood to reach the leg?

<p>Internal iliac artery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve is located lateral to the tendon of the fibularis tertius?

<p>Deep fibular nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cell layers directly contribute to the formation of the bilaminar embryonic disc?

<p>Epiblasts and hypoblasts (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The formation of the trilaminar embryonic disc is the end result of which process?

<p>Gastrulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the end products after completion of meiosis II during oogenesis?

<p>One viable mature oocyte and three polar bodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which placental component provides the most significant contribution to fetal nourishment during development?

<p>Frondosum (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A male infant presents with intellectual disability, large ears, a prominent jaw, and pale blue irises. Which genetic condition is most likely responsible?

<p>Fragile X syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Failure of the caudal neuropore to close during neurulation is most likely to result in which of the following congenital defects?

<p>Spina bifida (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A microdeletion in the paternal chromosome 15q11-13 region is associated with which clinical condition?

<p>Prader-Willi syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A neonate presents with holoprosencephaly, a single ventricle, and close set eyes. The mother reported alcohol abuse during pregnancy. This presentation correlates with which condition?

<p>Holoprosencephaly (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What causes Down Syndrome?

The presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, resulting in characteristic physical features and intellectual disabilities.

What causes anencephaly?

The failure of the cranial neuropore to close during embryonic development, leading to the absence of a cranial vault.

What are the motor neurons for skeletal muscles?

Motor neurons located in the anterior horn of the spinal cord, responsible for sending nerve impulses to skeletal muscles.

What tendon passes through the sustentaculum tali?

The tibialis posterior tendon, which runs through a groove on the inferior aspect of the sustentaculum tali, would be damaged by a fracture of the sustentaculum tali.

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What does the dorsal/posterior root carry?

The dorsal/posterior roots of a typical spinal nerve carry only sensory nerve fibers.

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What are the sympathetic nerve fibers that bypass the ganglia?

Sympathetic nerve fibers that bypass the sympathetic/paravertebral ganglia without synapsing are called splanchnic nerves.

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What are the axon lengths in the sympathetic nervous system?

The sympathetic nervous system has short preganglionic axons and long postganglionic axons.

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What muscle pulls the fibula upwards?

The peroneus longus muscle, a plantar flexor and everter of the foot, pulls the fibula upwards, counteracting the downward pull exerted by the other eight muscles.

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Monozygotic twins with separate amniotic sacs

A type of twin pregnancy where the two embryos share a placenta and chorionic cavity but have separate amniotic sacs.

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Unhappy Triad

A group of three injuries that often occur together in the knee: a torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), a torn medial collateral ligament (MCL), and a torn medial meniscus.

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Iliofemoral ligament

A ligament that attaches at the acetabular rim anteriorly and the intertrochanteric line of the femur. It helps prevent hyperabduction of the thigh.

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Superficial fibular nerve

A nerve that innervates the skin on the dorsum of the foot. Damage to this nerve can result in loss of sensation in that area.

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Extensor hallucis longus

A muscle located in the leg that extends the big toe. It is innervated by the deep fibular nerve.

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Monozygotic splitting at bilaminar germ disc stage

The process of splitting during early embryonic development that results in the formation of identical twins. It occurs after the formation of the bilaminar germ disc.

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Monozygotic splitting at two-cell stage

The process of splitting during early embryonic development that results in the formation of identical twins. It occurs before the formation of the bilaminar germ disc, at the two-cell stage.

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Arteriovenous shunt

A direct connection between an artery and a vein, bypassing the capillary bed.

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Collateral circulation

A series of interconnected blood vessels that provide alternative pathways for blood flow if one vessel is blocked.

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Normal anatomical position

The normal anatomical position is standing upright with the head facing forward, upper limbs at the sides, and palms facing forward.

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Erector spinae muscle development

The erector spinae muscle group, which supports the spine and allows for back extension, develops from the epaxial cells of the myotome, located on the dorsal side of the somites.

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Blastocyst hatching

The process by which the blastocyst escapes the zona pellucida, facilitated by trophoblastic enzymes that digest the zona pellucida. This allows the blastocyst to attach to the uterine lining.

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Bilaminar disc formation

The inner cell mass of the implanted blastocyst differentiates into two layers: the epiblast, which forms the embryo, and the hypoblast, which contributes to the yolk sac.

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Pregnancy test biomarker

A positive pregnancy test is typically due to the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the developing embryo.

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Primordial germ cell migration

Primordial germ cells, destined to form eggs or sperm, migrate from the yolk sac to the gonadal ridge, the future site of the gonads, early in embryonic development.

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Superficial Peroneal Nerve Location

The superficial peroneal nerve runs along the lateral leg, medial to the fibularis brevis tendon and lateral to the fibularis tertius tendon.

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Great Saphenous Vein

The great saphenous vein runs along the medial side of the leg, passing medial to the calcaneal tendon.

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Obturator Nerve & Adductor Muscles

The obturator nerve supplies the adductor muscles of the thigh, including gracilis, adductor longus, adductor brevis, and adductor magnus. A complete block of the obturator nerve would paralyze all of these muscles.

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Medial Circumflex Femoral Artery

The medial circumflex femoral artery is a branch of the profunda femoris, which in turn is a branch of the femoral artery. It is a major source of blood supply to the medial compartment of the thigh.

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Gastrocnemius Muscle

The gastrocnemius muscle is located in the calf. It is a powerful plantar flexor of the foot and its actions are mainly controlled by the tibial nerve.

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Lateral Rotation of the Thigh

Lateral rotation of the thigh is primarily performed by the external rotator muscles of the hip, which include the gluteus maximus, piriformis, obturator internus, and obturator externus.

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Deep Femoral Artery & Thigh Muscles

The deep femoral artery supplies the muscles of the thigh, including the adductors. Therefore, if the external iliac artery is blocked, blood can reach the thigh via the deep femoral artery.

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Plantar Muscles of the Foot

The plantar muscles of the foot include the flexor digitorum brevis, flexor hallucis brevis, abductor hallucis, and abductor digiti minimi. These muscles help with plantar flexion of the toes and support the arch of the foot.

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What nerve controls dorsiflexion?

The deep fibular nerve (also known as the peroneal nerve) is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot.

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Deep Fibular Nerve Injury Symptoms

The deep fibular nerve innervates the muscles responsible for dorsiflexion (lifting the foot) and eversion (turning the foot outward). Injury to this nerve can cause difficulty in dorsiflexion, leading to problems with walking, such as 'foot drop'.

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What nerve controls eversion?

The superficial fibular nerve is responsible for eversion (pointing the foot outward) of the ankle. You could consider its role in allowing you to push off with your foot when walking.

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What nerve controls plantar flexion?

The tibial nerve controls plantar flexion (pointing the toes downwards) and inversion (pointing the foot inward).

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What nerve provides sensory innervation to the lateral and anterior compartments of the leg?

The common fibular nerve provides sensory innervation to the lateral and anterior compartments of the leg. Injury to this nerve might affect sensation in those areas.

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Why does a Trendelenburg sign occur?

The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles, primarily responsible for hip abduction. If this nerve is injured, the affected leg will drop during walking, leading to a positive Trendelenburg sign.

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Which nerve is damaged if flexing and abducting the big toe are impossible?

The medial plantar nerve innervates the muscles involved in flexing and abducting the big toe. Damage to this nerve could lead to an inability to flex or abduct the big toe. Additionally, it provides sensory innervation to the plantar aspect of the three and a half medial toes, explaining the numbness on the plantar side of the toes.

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What nerve controls flexion of the 4th and 5th toes?

The lateral plantar nerve primarily innervates the muscles responsible for flexing the 4th and 5th toes, as well as abducting the little toe and flexing the little finger. It could also be involved in the overall flexion of the foot.

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What is gastrulation?

The formation of the three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm) in the developing embryo, giving rise to all organs and tissues.

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What is a blastocyst?

A fertilized egg cell that has undergone several cell divisions, forming an inner cell mass and an outer layer of cells.

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What is Fragile X syndrome?

A genetic condition caused by a mutation in the FMR1 gene, characterized by mental retardation, large ears, prominent jaw, and pale blue irises.

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What is caudal dysgenesis?

A birth defect caused by the failure of the caudal neuropore to close during neurulation, leading to abnormalities in the spinal cord and lower limbs.

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What is holoprosencephaly?

A birth defect characterized by a small forebrain, merged ventricles, and eyes that are close together, caused by a failure of the forebrain to separate properly during development.

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What is a sacrococcygeal teratoma?

A type of tumor that arises from retained primitive streak remnants, often found in the sacrococcygeal region, containing tissues derived from all three germ layers.

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What is Prader-Willi syndrome?

A rare genetic disorder caused by a deletion of the paternal chromosome 15q11-13 region, characterized by obesity, short stature, hypogonadism, and mild to moderate intellectual disability.

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What is Triple X syndrome?

A genetic condition caused by having an extra X chromosome in females, leading to mild developmental delays and other symptoms.

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Study Notes

Joint Relationships

  • Ankle joint - condyloid joint
  • Hip joint - ball and socket joint
  • Interphalangeal joint - pivot joint
  • Knee joint - gliding joint
  • Metatarsophalangeal joint - ball and socket joint

Arteriovenous Shunts

  • An artery flowing directly into a vein, bypassing the capillary bed, is called an arteriovenous shunt.

Pregnancy Test Biomarker

  • Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a biomarker for a positive pregnancy test.

PGC Migration

  • Primordial germ cells (PGCs) migrate to the developing liver, then remain there until week 5 or 6 of gestation.

Anatomical Position

  • Standing upright, with the head straight, upper extremities by the sides, and palms facing forward is the anatomical position.

Muscle Development

  • Erector spinae muscles develop from epaxial cells of the myotome.

Blastocyst Hatching

  • Trophoblastic enzymes digest the zona pellucida, facilitating implantation.

Embryonic Disc

  • Epiblasts and hypoblasts are part of the bilaminar disc phase of the embryo.

Oogenesis Completion

  • One viable mature oocyte and three polar bodies are formed at the completion of oogenesis, meiosis II.

Fetal Development Nourishment

  • The frondosum is most important in terms of nourishment during fetal development.

Angelman Syndrome

  • It is a syndrome caused by a microdeletion on the paternal chromosome 15. It is characterized by mental retardation, large ears, prominent jaw, and blue irises.

Neurulation Defects

  • Failures in neurulation can cause various defects, such as Caudal Dysgenesis; Spina Bifida.

Sacrococcygeal Teratoma

  • Embryonic basis of sacrococcygeal teratoma is the retention of caudal primitive streak remnants.

Holoprosencephaly

  • A birth defect characterized by a single ventricle in the fetal brain, in combination with closely set eyes.

Cri-du-chat Syndrome

  • Microdeletion of the short arm of chromosome 5 causes this syndrome.
  • It's characterized by a cat-like cry, microcephaly, mental retardation and congenital heart defects.

Trendelenburg Test

  • A test used to assess the integrity of the gluteal muscles that support the pelvis during stance.

Lower Limb Dysfunction

  • Injured sciatic nerve can result in paralysis of the posterior, anterior and lateral compartment muscles of the leg.

Tibial nerve injury

  • Symptoms of a tibial nerve injury include loss of plantar flexion, weakness in the foot, and reduced sensation in the sole of the foot.

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