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Questions and Answers
A patient exhibits paralysis and fasciculations in the anterior and lateral compartments of the leg, following a motorbike accident, but normal posterior compartment function. Which nerve is most likely injured?
A patient exhibits paralysis and fasciculations in the anterior and lateral compartments of the leg, following a motorbike accident, but normal posterior compartment function. Which nerve is most likely injured?
A patient cannot dorsiflex their left foot but retains plantar flexion. Which nerve is most likely to be damaged?
A patient cannot dorsiflex their left foot but retains plantar flexion. Which nerve is most likely to be damaged?
When a patient stands on their toes, which nerve's function is predominately being assessed?
When a patient stands on their toes, which nerve's function is predominately being assessed?
A patient sustained a deep laceration in the plantar region overlying the medial cuneiform, resulting in inability to flex and abduct the big toe and numbness of plantar aspect of the medial 3.5 toes, which nerve is most likely damaged?
A patient sustained a deep laceration in the plantar region overlying the medial cuneiform, resulting in inability to flex and abduct the big toe and numbness of plantar aspect of the medial 3.5 toes, which nerve is most likely damaged?
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A positive Trendelenburg sign is most suggestive of a functional deficiency in which nerve?
A positive Trendelenburg sign is most suggestive of a functional deficiency in which nerve?
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If a fracture occurs at the greater trochanter of the femur, which of the following muscles would most likely be detached?
If a fracture occurs at the greater trochanter of the femur, which of the following muscles would most likely be detached?
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Damage to the common fibular nerve would likely result in paralysis and fasciculations in which two leg compartments?
Damage to the common fibular nerve would likely result in paralysis and fasciculations in which two leg compartments?
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Which nerve provides cutaneous sensation to the plantar aspect of the medial three and a half toes?
Which nerve provides cutaneous sensation to the plantar aspect of the medial three and a half toes?
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Which of the following joint and type of joint pairing is correct?
Which of the following joint and type of joint pairing is correct?
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An abnormal vascular connection that bypasses the capillary bed by directly connecting an artery and a vein is called a(n):
An abnormal vascular connection that bypasses the capillary bed by directly connecting an artery and a vein is called a(n):
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A pregnancy test detects which hormone to indicate a positive result?
A pregnancy test detects which hormone to indicate a positive result?
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Primordial germ cells (PGCs) initially migrate to which location after their formation?
Primordial germ cells (PGCs) initially migrate to which location after their formation?
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Which of these options best describes the standard normal anatomical position?
Which of these options best describes the standard normal anatomical position?
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The erector spinae muscle group develops from which embryonic cells?
The erector spinae muscle group develops from which embryonic cells?
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What process facilitates the blastocyst 'hatching' from the zona pellucida before implantation?
What process facilitates the blastocyst 'hatching' from the zona pellucida before implantation?
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In the bilaminar disc phase of development, the inner cell mass initially divides into which primitive structures?
In the bilaminar disc phase of development, the inner cell mass initially divides into which primitive structures?
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Which of the following accurately describes the action of the flexor hallucis longus muscle?
Which of the following accurately describes the action of the flexor hallucis longus muscle?
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A twin pregnancy where the embryos share a placenta and chorionic cavity but have separate amniotic cavities is most likely due to monozygotic splitting at what stage?
A twin pregnancy where the embryos share a placenta and chorionic cavity but have separate amniotic cavities is most likely due to monozygotic splitting at what stage?
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If a patient experiences loss of sensation on the dorsum of the foot due to damage of the superficial fibular nerve, which muscle should be tested to confirm the nerve injury?
If a patient experiences loss of sensation on the dorsum of the foot due to damage of the superficial fibular nerve, which muscle should be tested to confirm the nerve injury?
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An 'unhappy triad' knee injury, which occurrs after a strike to the lateral aspect of the knee, typically involves damage to which of the following components?
An 'unhappy triad' knee injury, which occurrs after a strike to the lateral aspect of the knee, typically involves damage to which of the following components?
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A tear of the ligament that attaches on the acetabular rim anteriorly and the intertrochanteric line, primarily affects which hip movement?
A tear of the ligament that attaches on the acetabular rim anteriorly and the intertrochanteric line, primarily affects which hip movement?
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In a wound located in the right thigh, bounded laterally by the vastus medialis, posteromedially by the adductor longus and magnus, and anteriorly by the sartorius, which nerve is most likely to be severed?
In a wound located in the right thigh, bounded laterally by the vastus medialis, posteromedially by the adductor longus and magnus, and anteriorly by the sartorius, which nerve is most likely to be severed?
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Which of the following muscles is responsible for plantarflexion of the foot?
Which of the following muscles is responsible for plantarflexion of the foot?
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A football player has injured his knee and has a ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, a torn medial meniscus and a torn tibia collateral ligament, Which single event resulted in the injury?
A football player has injured his knee and has a ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, a torn medial meniscus and a torn tibia collateral ligament, Which single event resulted in the injury?
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Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities leads to the condition of having an extra copy of chromosome 21?
Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities leads to the condition of having an extra copy of chromosome 21?
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A newborn presents with anencephaly. Which developmental process is most likely disrupted?
A newborn presents with anencephaly. Which developmental process is most likely disrupted?
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From which specific region of the spinal cord do motor neurons originate that innervate skeletal muscles?
From which specific region of the spinal cord do motor neurons originate that innervate skeletal muscles?
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Damage to the sustentaculum tali is most likely to affect which tendon due to its passage through the groove on the inferior aspect?
Damage to the sustentaculum tali is most likely to affect which tendon due to its passage through the groove on the inferior aspect?
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Which of the following accurately describes the composition and function of the ventral rami in a typical spinal nerve?
Which of the following accurately describes the composition and function of the ventral rami in a typical spinal nerve?
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Preganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers that bypass the paravertebral ganglia and do not synapse are classified as which type of fibers?
Preganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers that bypass the paravertebral ganglia and do not synapse are classified as which type of fibers?
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Which of the these is a characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system?
Which of the these is a characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system?
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Considering the muscles that attach to the fibula, which muscle's action primarily counteracts the downward pull of the other eight?
Considering the muscles that attach to the fibula, which muscle's action primarily counteracts the downward pull of the other eight?
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Which of the following accurately describes the anatomical relationship of the fibularis tertius?
Which of the following accurately describes the anatomical relationship of the fibularis tertius?
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A patient has lower limb varicosities due to incompetent venous valves. Which statement accurately reflects lower limb venous drainage?
A patient has lower limb varicosities due to incompetent venous valves. Which statement accurately reflects lower limb venous drainage?
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An MRI reveals a bony tumor compressing a nerve in the obturator canal. Which muscle would be fully paralyzed by this compression?
An MRI reveals a bony tumor compressing a nerve in the obturator canal. Which muscle would be fully paralyzed by this compression?
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If the obturator artery becomes blocked, which artery would provide collateral circulation to the medial thigh compartment?
If the obturator artery becomes blocked, which artery would provide collateral circulation to the medial thigh compartment?
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A patient lands heavily on their heel, resulting in a calcaneal fracture. Which group of muscles would be most affected?
A patient lands heavily on their heel, resulting in a calcaneal fracture. Which group of muscles would be most affected?
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Following a fall, a patient is unable to laterally rotate their thigh at the hip joint. Which muscles are most likely impaired?
Following a fall, a patient is unable to laterally rotate their thigh at the hip joint. Which muscles are most likely impaired?
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A blood clot forms between the external iliac and femoral arteries, deep to the inguinal ligament. What is a possible alternate route for blood to reach the leg?
A blood clot forms between the external iliac and femoral arteries, deep to the inguinal ligament. What is a possible alternate route for blood to reach the leg?
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Which nerve is located lateral to the tendon of the fibularis tertius?
Which nerve is located lateral to the tendon of the fibularis tertius?
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Which cell layers directly contribute to the formation of the bilaminar embryonic disc?
Which cell layers directly contribute to the formation of the bilaminar embryonic disc?
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The formation of the trilaminar embryonic disc is the end result of which process?
The formation of the trilaminar embryonic disc is the end result of which process?
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What are the end products after completion of meiosis II during oogenesis?
What are the end products after completion of meiosis II during oogenesis?
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Which placental component provides the most significant contribution to fetal nourishment during development?
Which placental component provides the most significant contribution to fetal nourishment during development?
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A male infant presents with intellectual disability, large ears, a prominent jaw, and pale blue irises. Which genetic condition is most likely responsible?
A male infant presents with intellectual disability, large ears, a prominent jaw, and pale blue irises. Which genetic condition is most likely responsible?
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Failure of the caudal neuropore to close during neurulation is most likely to result in which of the following congenital defects?
Failure of the caudal neuropore to close during neurulation is most likely to result in which of the following congenital defects?
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A microdeletion in the paternal chromosome 15q11-13 region is associated with which clinical condition?
A microdeletion in the paternal chromosome 15q11-13 region is associated with which clinical condition?
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A neonate presents with holoprosencephaly, a single ventricle, and close set eyes. The mother reported alcohol abuse during pregnancy. This presentation correlates with which condition?
A neonate presents with holoprosencephaly, a single ventricle, and close set eyes. The mother reported alcohol abuse during pregnancy. This presentation correlates with which condition?
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Study Notes
Joint Relationships
- Ankle joint - condyloid joint
- Hip joint - ball and socket joint
- Interphalangeal joint - pivot joint
- Knee joint - gliding joint
- Metatarsophalangeal joint - ball and socket joint
Arteriovenous Shunts
- An artery flowing directly into a vein, bypassing the capillary bed, is called an arteriovenous shunt.
Pregnancy Test Biomarker
- Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a biomarker for a positive pregnancy test.
PGC Migration
- Primordial germ cells (PGCs) migrate to the developing liver, then remain there until week 5 or 6 of gestation.
Anatomical Position
- Standing upright, with the head straight, upper extremities by the sides, and palms facing forward is the anatomical position.
Muscle Development
- Erector spinae muscles develop from epaxial cells of the myotome.
Blastocyst Hatching
- Trophoblastic enzymes digest the zona pellucida, facilitating implantation.
Embryonic Disc
- Epiblasts and hypoblasts are part of the bilaminar disc phase of the embryo.
Oogenesis Completion
- One viable mature oocyte and three polar bodies are formed at the completion of oogenesis, meiosis II.
Fetal Development Nourishment
- The frondosum is most important in terms of nourishment during fetal development.
Angelman Syndrome
- It is a syndrome caused by a microdeletion on the paternal chromosome 15. It is characterized by mental retardation, large ears, prominent jaw, and blue irises.
Neurulation Defects
- Failures in neurulation can cause various defects, such as Caudal Dysgenesis; Spina Bifida.
Sacrococcygeal Teratoma
- Embryonic basis of sacrococcygeal teratoma is the retention of caudal primitive streak remnants.
Holoprosencephaly
- A birth defect characterized by a single ventricle in the fetal brain, in combination with closely set eyes.
Cri-du-chat Syndrome
- Microdeletion of the short arm of chromosome 5 causes this syndrome.
- It's characterized by a cat-like cry, microcephaly, mental retardation and congenital heart defects.
Trendelenburg Test
- A test used to assess the integrity of the gluteal muscles that support the pelvis during stance.
Lower Limb Dysfunction
- Injured sciatic nerve can result in paralysis of the posterior, anterior and lateral compartment muscles of the leg.
Tibial nerve injury
- Symptoms of a tibial nerve injury include loss of plantar flexion, weakness in the foot, and reduced sensation in the sole of the foot.
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Description
Test your knowledge on various aspects of human anatomy and embryology. This quiz covers joint types, arteriovenous shunts, pregnancy biomarkers, and embryonic development. Great for students studying human biology or preparing for exams.
