HBSF Block 1 Practice Problems Solutions PDF

HBSF Block1 Practice Problems Choose the correct joint name : type of joint relationship. A. Ankle joint : condyloid joint B. Hip joint : ball and socket joint C. Interphalangeal joint : pivot joint D. Knee joint : gliding joint E. Metatarsophalangeal joint : ball and socket joint If an arter...

HBSF Block1 Practice Problems Choose the correct joint name : type of joint relationship. A. Ankle joint : condyloid joint B. Hip joint : ball and socket joint C. Interphalangeal joint : pivot joint D. Knee joint : gliding joint E. Metatarsophalangeal joint : ball and socket joint If an artery flows directly into a vein, bypassing the capillary bed, it is called a(n): A. Arteriovenous shunt B. Collateral circulation C. Functional anastomosis D. Portal anastomosis E. Systemic shunt A woman used a pregnancy test kit two weeks after sexual intercourse without contraception, which returned as positive. Which of the following hormones is a biomarker for a positive pregnancy test? A. Estrogen B. Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) D. Luteinizing hormone (LH) E. Progesterone As part of reproductive development, some epiblast cells in the developing embryo differentiate into primordial germ cells (PGCs). After their formation, where do they migrate in first the step, remaining there until the fifth or sixth week of gestation? A. Amniotic sac B. Developing liver C. Gonadal ridge D. Pharyngeal arches E. Yolk sac Which of the following is the correct description for the normal anatomical position? A. Standing position, extended head, upper extremities by the sides and the palms facing backward B. Standing position, head straight forward, upper extremities by the sides and palms facing forward C. Prone position, head straight forward, upper extremities abducted at the sides and palms facing forward D. Supine position, extended head, upper extremities flexed at the shoulder joint and palms facing backward E. Supine position, head forward, upper extremities by the sides and palms facing forward The erector spinae group of skeletal muscles of the back develop from: A. Epaxial cells of the myotome B. Hypaxial cells of the myotome C. Lateral plate mesoderm cells D. Neural crest E. Somitomeres After traversing the fallopian tube for six days, the developing blastocyst ‘hatches out’ in preparation for implantation on the posterior wall of the endometrium. Which of the following facilitates this hatching? A. Digestion of zona pellucida by trophoblastic enzymes B. Fibrosis of zona pellucida C. Inner cell mass formation D. Primary chorionic villi formation E. Signaling from the nodal In the implanted blastocyst, the inner cell mass starts dividing initially into which of the following structures as part of the bilaminar disc phase? A. Epiblasts and amnioblasts B. Epiblasts and hypoblasts C. Epiblasts and trophoblasts D. Hypoblasts and amnioblast E. Hypoblasts and trophoblasts The embryological term gastrulation defines the formation of the: A. Bilaminar embryonic disc B. Notochord C. Prechordal plate D. Primitive node E. Trilaminar embryonic disc At the completion of the oogenesis, meiosis II, which of the following are formed? A. One viable mature oocyte and three polar bodies B. Two viable mature oocytes and two polar bodies C. Three viable mature oocyte and one polar body D. Four polar bodies E. Four viable mature oocytes Which of the following is most important in terms of nourishment during fetal development? A. Basalis B. Capsularis C. Frondosum D. Laeve E. Parietalis A baby born with the defect in the FMR1 gene shows signs of mental retardation, large ears, prominent jaw, and pale blue irises. What is this syndrome called? A. Angelman syndrome B. Cri-du-chat syndrome C. Fragile X syndrome D. Prader-Willi syndrome E. Triple X syndrome During the process of neurulation, the caudal neuropore closes around day 28 of gestation. Which of the following defects would arise due to a failure in the aforementioned process? A. Amniotic band syndrome B. Battledore placenta C. Caudal dysgenesis D. Spina bifida E. Synophthalmia (fused eyes) Microdeletion of the paternal chromosome 15q11-13 region causes which of the following syndromes? A. Angelman syndrome B. Cri-du-chat syndrome C. Fragile X syndrome D. Prader-Willi syndrome E. Triple X syndrome A newborn male patient presents with a 12-cm wide tumor in the anal region. A biopsy of the tumor showed the presence of hair, teeth, skin, and mesodermal tissue, confirming the diagnosis of sacrococcygeal teratoma. What is the embryonic basis for the occurrence of this type of teratoma? A. Mesodermal invasion of cloacal membrane B. Non-closure of the caudal neuropore C. Non-fusion of sacral vertebrae D. Non-migration of neural crest cells E. Retention of caudal primitive streak remnants A neonate, born to a mother with a history of alcohol consumption whilst pregnant, was found to have a small forebrain, brain lateral ventricles were merged into a single ventricle, and the eyes were close together. This condition is known as: A. Anencephaly B. Cranioschisis C. Holoprosencephaly D. Omphalocele E. Spina bifida A baby born with Cri-du-chat syndrome is noted to have a cat-like cry, microcephaly, mental retardation, and congenital heart disease. Which of the following is the cause of this syndrome? A. Extra copy of chromosome 21 B. Extra copy of the X chromosome C. Microdeletion on the maternal chromosome 15 D. Microdeletion on the paternal chromosome 15 E. Partial deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5 A baby was born without the presence of a cranial vault, a condition known as anencephaly. Failure of which of the following processes is the most likely the cause of this birth defect? A. Closure of the caudal neuropore B. Closure of the cranial neuropore C. Craniocaudal folding D. Formation of the caudal part of the neural tube E. Formation of the vertebral arch Which of the following spinal neurons are the cells of origin of the motor/efferent nerve fibers to skeletal muscles? A. Anterior horn neurons B. Dorsal horn neurons C. Lateral horn neurons D. Posterior horn neurons E. Posterior spinal root ganglia neurons A fracture of the sustentaculum tali would most likely cause damage to which of the following tendons as it passes through the groove on inferior aspect? A. Fibularis brevis tendon B. Fibularis longus tendon C. Flexor hallucis longus tendon D. Tibialis anterior tendon E. Tibialis posterior tendon Which of the following is true in terms of a typical spinal nerve? A. Dorsal/Posterior rami contain only sensory nerve fibers B. Dorsal/Posterior roots carry sensory and motor fibers C. Intercostal nerve is an example of a plexus D. Ventral/Anterior roots carry sensory fibers E. Ventral/Anterior rami carry sensory and motor fibers to the upper and lower extremities The preganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers which cross the sympathetic/paravertebral ganglia without synapsing are called: A. Preaortic B. Sensory C. Somatomotor D. Somatosensory E. Splanchnic Which of the following is most correct in terms of the sympathetic nervous system? A. It has long preganglionic axons (fibers) and short postganglionic axons (fibers) B. Preganglionic axons pass through the dorsal and ventral rami of spinal nerves C. Preganglionic nerve cell bodies are located in the intermedio-lateral cell column of the spinal cord D. Postganglionic nerve cell bodies are located in the brainstem and sacral portions of the spinal cord There are nine muscles of the leg that are attached to the fibula, and all except one exert a downward pull on the fibula. Which of the following best describes the muscle which counteracts the eight other muscles and pulls the fibula up? A. Dorsiflexor and inverter of the foot B. Flexor of the big toe C. Flexor of the leg and extensor of the thigh D. Flexor of the thigh and extensor of the leg E. Plantarflexor of the foot and extensor of the thigh A 26-year-old primigravid female comes in for routine sonography as part of Saba-mandated prenatal care. The ultrasound reveals a twin pregnancy with the two embryos sharing a common placenta and a common chorionic cavity, but having separate amniotic cavities. Which of the following would result in this type of twin pregnancy? A. Dizygotic (fraternal) twins B. Monozygotic splitting at bilaminar germ disc stage C. Monozygotic splitting at early blastocyst stage D. Monozygotic splitting at trilaminar germ disc stage E. Monozygotic splitting at two cell stage A patient presents with loss of sensation over the skin at the dorsum of the foot, innervated by the superficial fibular nerve. What muscle of the leg should the doctor test to confirm the injured nerve? A. Extensor digitorum brevis B. Extensor digitorum longus C. Extensor hallucis longus D. Fibularis longus E. Flexor hallucis longus During a football match, a player is injured by another whilst he was running by striking him on the lateral aspect of the knee. He is diagnosed to have "unhappy triad" of the knee joint. Which of the following best describes this injury? A. His right leg was struck in its lower half making him unbalanced B. The football player's shoe was unbalanced as it was not firmly planted on the turf C. The injury caused rupture of the right fibular collateral ligament and damage the lateral meniscus D. The injury caused rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament, damaged the medial meniscus and torn tibial collateral ligament E. The injury caused tearing of the posterior cruciate ligament and patellar ligament A hockey player has a tear of a ligament that attaches at the acetabular rim anteriorly and intertrochanteric line of the right femur. Which of the following is true in terms of the torn ligament? A. Prevents hyperabduction of the thigh B. Prevents hyperextension of the thigh while standing C. Prevents hyperflexion of the thigh while standing D. Strongest ligament of the hip E. Weakest ligament of the hip A 25-year-old male is stabbed by an icepick during an altercation at a bar. The wound is located at the right thigh bounded laterally by the vastus medialis muscle, posteromedially by the adductor longus and magnus and anteriorly by the sartorius muscle. During wound exploration, a nerve is noted to be severed. What would be a symptom of the patient? A. Paresthesia of the sole of the foot B. Total loss of flexion of the leg at the knee joint C. Total loss of plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint D. Total loss of sensation at the medial surface of the leg from the knee to the ball of the 1st digit E. Weakness of medial rotation of the thigh at the hip joint The germ cell present in the ovaries of a female patient at birth is known as the: A. Oocyte proper B. Oocyte with a polar body attached to it C. Oogonium D. Primary oocyte E. Secondary oocyte A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with damage to the quadratus plantae muscle in her right foot. This muscle is attached to the tendon of what muscle? A. Adductor hallucis B. Flexor digitorum longus C. Flexor hallucis brevis D. Flexor hallucis longus E. Tibialis posterior In healthy patients, an automatic reflex at the knee joint is elicited via striking the patellar ligament. Which spinal cord segments facilitate this reflex to occur? A. T12, L1-2 B. L2-4 C. L5, S1- 2 D. S1-3 E. S2-4 A 40-year-old patient undergoing femoral artery catheterization for coronary angiography. Which of the following best describes the involved artery in this procedure? A. Great saphenous vein drains into it B. Located lateral to the vein and medial to the nerve in the femoral triangle C. Most lateral content of the femoral triangle D. Originates from internal iliac artery E. Supplies the gracilis muscle If the tibial division of the sciatic nerve is transected, which of the following muscles in the posterior compartment of the thigh can still function? A. Adductor magnus, hamstring part B. Biceps femoris, long head C. Biceps femoris, short head D. Semimembranosus E. Semitendinosus A patient sustains a stab wound by a protruding nail at the left popliteal fossa and the most anterior and deepest structure at the fossa is severed. What is the most probably injured structure? A. Femoral artery B. Popliteal artery C. Popliteal vein D. Sciatic nerve E. Tibial nerve As part of a clinical skills class, a medical student is tasked with comparing the pulse of the dorsalis pedis artery on both feet. Where should she palpate to feel the pulsations of the dorsalis pedis artery? A. Between the tendons of extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus B. Between the tendons of flexor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus C. Lateral to the tendon of extensor digitorum longus D. Lateral to the tendon of fibularis tertius and medial to the tendon of fibularis brevis E. Medial to the tendon of tibialis anterior A patient presents with varicose veins in the lower limbs due to incompetent valve integrity. Which of the following statements best characterizes the venous drainage of the lower limbs? A. Great saphenous vein is accompanied by the saphenous nerve in the leg. B. Great saphenous vein passes medial to the calcaneal tendon. C. Lesser saphenous vein drains directly into the femoral vein. D. Lesser saphenous vein runs with the tibial nerve. E. Perforating veins normally drain blood from deep veins to superficial veins. MRI imaging of a 72-year-old male patient reveals a bony tumor compressing a nerve as it passes through the obturator canal. This compression will completely paralyze which of the following muscles? A. Adductor magnus, hamstring part B. Biceps femoris C. Gracilis D. Pectineus E. Rectus femoris If the obturator artery is blocked due to pathologic clot formation, what artery will still supply the medial compartment muscles of the thigh? A. Inferior gluteal artery B. Medial circumflex femoral artery C. Popliteal artery D. Posterior tibial artery E. Superior gluteal artery An adolescent male falls and lands on the heel of his right foot. At the emergency room, a plain radiograph of the injured foot is performed which reveals a fracture as shown below. Which of the following muscles will be mostly likely affected? A. Extensor digitorum longus, Gastrocnemius and Abductor hallucis B. Fibularis longus, Plantaris and Soleus C. Flexor digitorum longus, Flexor digitorum brevis and Plantaris D. Gastrocnemius, Plantaris and Soleus E. Plantaris, Fibularis brevis and Flexor digitorum longus A patient is unable to laterally rotate her left thigh at the hip joint following a slip and fall. Which of the following muscles are most likely affected? A. Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimis B. Gluteus maximus, piriformis, obturator internus C. Gluteus medius, piriformis, obturator internus D. Gluteus minimus, piriformis, obturator internus E. Semitendinosus, gluteus medius, gluteus maximus A blood clot is formed between the external iliac artery and the femoral artery deep to the inguinal ligament. What is an alternate route for the blood to bypass the blockade and perfuse the leg? A. Internal iliac artery - inferior gluteal artery - 1st perforating branch of profunda femoris - descending genicular branch of femoral artery - superior lateral genicular artery B. Internal iliac artery - superior gluteal artery - inferior gluteal artery - lateral circumflex artery - superior lateral geniculate artery C. Lateral circumflex femoral artery - fourth perforating branch of profunda femoris - femoral artery - superior lateral genicular artery D. Lateral circumflex femoral artery - medial circumflex femoral artery - profunda femoris - superior medial genicular artery E. Superior gluteal artery - inferior gluteal artery - 1st perforating branch of profunda femoris - superior medial genicular artery Trace the normal blood flow from the common iliac artery to the sole of the foot in chronological order. Choose the best pathway. A. Common iliac - external iliac - femoral - obturator - popliteal - posterior tibial - medial and lateral plantar B. Common iliac - external iliac - femoral - popliteal - posterior tibial - medial plantar and lateral plantar C. Common iliac - external iliac - internal iliac - femoral - posterior tibial - fibular - medial and lateral plantar D. Common iliac - internal iliac - femoral - popliteal - anterior tibial - posterior tibial - medial plantar and lateral plantar E. Common iliac - internal iliac - femoral - popliteal - posterior tibial - medial and lateral plantar The lymphatic system is used to drain interstitial fluid and help with the body’s immunologic response. Based on your knowledge of the system, choose the most correct pathway. A. Afferent lymphatic vessels - efferent lymphatic vessels - lymph nodes - lymphatic duct - venous system B. Afferent lymphatic vessel - lymphatic capillaries - efferent lymphatic vessel - lymph nodes - venous system C. Afferent lymphatic vessels - lymph nodes - efferent lymphatic vessels - lymphatic duct - venous system D. Efferent lymphatic vessels - lymphatic capillaries - lymph nodes - afferent lymphatic vessels - lymphatic trunk - venous system E. Lymphatic duct - lymphatic trunk - efferent lymphatic vessels - lymph nodes - afferent lymphatic vessels - venous system Which lymph nodes are expected to present with lymphadenopathy following infection of the big toe? A. Deep inguinal lymph nodes B. Popliteal lymph nodes C. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral group D. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes, medial group E. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes, vertical group On physical examination of a 25-year-old male a couple of months after a motorbike accident, the posterior compartment muscles of the leg are noted to be normal. However, the anterior and lateral compartment muscles are completely paralyzed with fasciculations. Which of the following nerves has been injured? A. Common fibular nerve B. Deep fibular nerve C. Sciatic nerve D. Superficial fibular E. Sural nerve A patient, with the chief complaint of difficulty in walking, is unable to dorsiflex his left foot however plantar flexion is unaffected. What nerve has likely been injured to produce this clinical presentation? A. Deep fibular nerve B. Femoral nerve C. Saphenous nerve D. Sural nerve E. Tibial nerve As part of a physical examination to evaluate lower limb function, a physician asks his patient to stand on his toes, as illustrated below. What nerve is being tested? A. Deep fibular nerve B. Saphenous nerve C. Superficial fibular nerve D. Sural nerve E. Tibial nerve A 16-year-old boy suffers a large transverse cut whilst traversing a muddy body of water. The laceration penetrates the first two layers of his plantar musculature, in the area overlying the medial cuneiform bone. At the emergency department, his inspecting physician notes a complete inability to flex and abduct the big toe, with associated skin numbness on the plantar aspect of the three and a half medial toes. Based on the patient’s symptoms, which of the following nerves is most likely damaged? A. Deep fibular nerve B. Lateral plantar nerve C. Medial plantar nerve D. Superficial fibular nerve E. Sural nerve Defective function of which of the following nerves would most likely produce a positive Trendelenburg test finding? A. Femoral nerve B. Inferior gluteal nerve C. Obturator nerve D. Sciatic nerve E. Superior gluteal nerve If a bony part of the femur indicated by the circle in the radiograph is fractured, which of the following muscles would be detached? A. Biceps femoris B. Gluteus maximus C. Gluteus medius D. Iliopsoas E. Sartorius