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Questions and Answers

Who is credited with being the 'Father of Microbiology'?

  • Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (correct)
  • Robert Koch
  • Louis Pasteur
  • Robert Hooke

    • What was Robert Hooke's major contribution to microbiology?

  • Discovery of bacteria
  • Formulation of the Germ Theory
  • Coining the term 'cell' (correct)
  • Development of the microscope

    • Who developed the concept of vaccination and created the first vaccine against smallpox?

  • Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
  • Louis Pasteur
  • Robert Koch
  • Edward Jenner (correct)

    • What period is referred to as the 'Golden Age of Microbiology'?

    <p>1857-1910</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who developed the process of pasteurization?

    <p>Louis Pasteur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the process of making a pathogenic microorganism less virulent?

    <p>Attenuation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is credited with discovering the causative agents for many deadly infectious diseases?

    <p>Robert Koch</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the method developed by Robert Koch to identify bacteria that cause disease?

    <p>Koch's Postulates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the normal flora of body surfaces?

    <p>Commensals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the relationship between bacteria and the GI tract?

    <p>Mutualism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of a bacterium's capsule?

    <p>To protect against dehydration and chemicals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the protein that makes up the flagellum in bacteria?

    <p>Flagellin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following bacterial groups has a complex cell wall with a mycolic acid layer?

    <p>CMNR group (Corynebacterium, Mycobacterium, Nocardia, and Rhodococcus)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the extrachromosomal DNA that replicates independently of the chromosomal DNA in bacteria?

    <p>Plasmid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the structure that allows bacteria to mimic a multicellular organism?

    <p>Biofilm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the protein that makes up the fimbriae in bacteria?

    <p>Pilin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the peptidoglycan layer in the bacterial cell wall?

    <p>To provide structural support to the cell</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the technique used to detect antigens and antibodies in bacteria?

    <p>Serological testing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the dormant form of bacterial cells that are highly durable and resistant?

    <p>Spores</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the layer that separates the inner and outer membranes in the Gram-negative bacterial cell wall?

    <p>Periplasmic space</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the time taken for one cell division in bacteria?

    <p>Generation time</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments?

    <p>Facultative aerobes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the stage of growth where population density stabilizes and nutrients run out?

    <p>Stationary phase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary component of agar-agar, used as a gelling compound in microbiological media?

    <p>Polysaccharide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for bacteria that require a specific growth factor for growth?

    <p>Fastidious bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the range of pH tolerance for most bacteria?

    <p>pH 6.8-7.2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of buffering agents in microbiological media?

    <p>To adjust pH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the stage of growth where bacteria are metabolically active but not dividing?

    <p>Lag phase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the rate of cell division in bacteria?

    <p>Growth rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary component of the nutrient requirement for most bacteria?

    <p>Macronutrients</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum percentage of agar required in a medium to include 'agar' in its name?

    <p>&gt;1.5%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of alpha-haemolysis?

    <p>Oxidation of hemoglobin to methemoglobin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between sterilization and disinfection?

    <p>Sterilization kills all microorganisms, including endospores, while disinfection only reduces vegetative microorganisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary advantage of using moist heat for microbial control?

    <p>It is more effective against endospores</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of UV light disinfection?

    <p>Formation of thymine dimers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of tyndallization?

    <p>To destroy bacterial spores</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary advantage of using autoclaving for sterilization?

    <p>It is more effective against endospores</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between enrichment media and selective media?

    <p>Enrichment media contain additional nutrients, while selective media contain inhibitory substances</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of semi-solid media?

    <p>To determine the motility of microorganisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between complex media and chemically defined media?

    <p>Complex media contain impure digests, while chemically defined media contain exact amounts of pure components</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary contribution of intrinsic mechanisms to antibiotic resistance?

    <p>It contributes less than extrinsic mechanisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary way that bacteria acquire antibiotic resistance in clinical isolates?

    <p>Through the transfer of genetic material</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of Koch's postulates?

    <p>To identify the pathogenicity of an organism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the presence and multiplication of bacteria in the blood?

    <p>Septicemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the ability of an agent to cause disease?

    <p>Pathogenicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the normal flora of body surfaces?

    <p>Microflora</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of adherence factors in pathogenesis?

    <p>To adhere to host cells and surfaces</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the ability of a pathogen to evade the host's immune system?

    <p>Evasion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the large intestine in relation to microbiota?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary way that antibiotics contribute to antibiotic resistance?

    <p>By selecting for resistant mutants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis?

    <p>Disrupting peptidoglycan synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of antibiotics are bactericidal and affect only anaerobes and microaerophiles?

    <p>Nitroimidazoles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of antibiotics that inhibit nucleic acid function?

    <p>Binding to inhibit DNA replication or transcription</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibiotic affects the 50S ribosome and is bacteriostatic against both G+ and G-?

    <p>Chloramphenicol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of antimicrobial resistance involving the modification of antimicrobial agents?

    <p>Modifying/degrading the AMAs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of antibiotics are bactericidal and affect only G- aerobes?

    <p>Polymyxins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis?

    <p>Binding to inhibit protein synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibiotic is bacteriostatic against both G+ and G- and has a broad spectrum?

    <p>Tetracyclines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of antimicrobial resistance involving the development of alternate pathways?

    <p>Development of alternate pathways that bypass the AMAs effect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibiotic is bactericidal and affects only G- and has a broad spectrum?

    <p>Aminoglycosides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of MSCRAMM in S.aureus?

    <p>Adherence and evasion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Hemolysin α in S.aureus?

    <p>Creates pores in cell membranes, leading to cell lysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Leukocidins in S.aureus?

    <p>Targets WBCs with pore-forming toxins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Exfoliating toxins in S.aureus?

    <p>Breaks down intercellular adhesion molecules, leading to blisters and skin peeling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Staphylokinase in S.aureus?

    <p>Breaks down fibrin clots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Lethal Factor (LEF) in B. anthracis?

    <p>Causes major cytokine release, apoptosis, and cell necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of botulinum toxin on neuromuscular junctions?

    <p>Inhibition of release of acetylcholine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Edema Factor (EF) in B. anthracis?

    <p>Converts ATP to cAMP, causing edema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of tetanospasmin on central nervous system neurons?

    <p>Inhibition of glycine and GABA release</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Protein A in S.aureus?

    <p>Binds to IGs, preventing immune recognition and opsonization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of dermonecrotic toxin on bone structure?

    <p>Osteoclast proliferation and osteoblast deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Clumping Factor in S.aureus?

    <p>Coagulase that converts fibrinogen to fibrin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacteria is responsible for atrophic rhinitis?

    <p>Pasteurella multocida</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Hyaluronidase in S.aureus?

    <p>Breaks down hyaluronic acid in connective tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the classification of Gram-positive rods?

    <p>Erysipelotrix, Listeria, Corynebacterium, Rhodococcus, Trueperella, Bacillus, Clostridium, and Mycobacterium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Gram-negative enteric rods?

    <p>Presence of a lipopolysaccharide outer membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the synaptic protein targeted by botulinum toxin?

    <p>Neurotransmitter release</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following bacteria is responsible for spastic paralysis?

    <p>Clostridium tetani</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of dermonecrotic toxin on cell signaling pathways?

    <p>Stimulation of cytokine production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of tetanospasmin?

    <p>Inhibition of glycine release</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hemolysin is responsible for creating pores in cell membranes, leading to an influx of water and cell lysis?

    <p>α-hemolysin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the capsule in Escherichia coli?

    <p>To protect from phagocytosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of toxin is responsible for inhibiting protein synthesis and inducing apoptosis in host cells?

    <p>Shiga toxins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the T3SS in EPEC, STEC, and EHEC?

    <p>To inject virulence factors into host cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cyclomodulin is responsible for inhibiting the eukaryotic cell cycle?

    <p>CNF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the lipid A layer in the cell wall of Escherichia coli?

    <p>To activate cytokine release from immune cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of secretion system is responsible for transporting effector proteins to host cells and DNA to other bacteria?

    <p>T4SS</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of siderophores in Escherichia coli?

    <p>To take iron from host's lacto- and transferrin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of toxin is responsible for damaging RBC membranes and obtaining iron?

    <p>Enterohemolysin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the T6SS in APEC?

    <p>To secrete antibacterial proteins into the periplasm of target bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of mastitis in cows?

    <p>Staph.Aureus, Strepto.agalactiae, uberis &amp; dysgalactiae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the elevated somatic cell count in milk?

    <p>Subclinical mastitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary source of transmission for mastitis?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the disease caused by Staph.hyicus in piglets?

    <p>Greasy pig disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the age range of piglets affected by Exudative epidermitis?

    <p>Up to 3 months of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical sign of mastitis in cows?

    <p>Swollen, firm, warm, and tender udder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the bacteria that can cause coliform mastitis in cows?

    <p>Klepsiella spp.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary way that mastitis is transmitted from one cow to another?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the more severe and peracute form of mastitis?

    <p>Hyperthermia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of mastitis on the milk produced by infected cows?

    <p>Visually changes the milk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary site of infection for Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis in sheep and goats?

    <p>Superficial wounds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of disease transmission for Rhodococcus hoagii in foals?

    <p>Contaminated soil and ingestion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical sign of anthrax in bovines?

    <p>Sudden death</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary site of infection for Bacillus anthracis in pigs?

    <p>Intestine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of control and prevention of anthrax?

    <p>Safe disposal of infected animals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary form of anthrax in equine?

    <p>Severe colic and anorexia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of disease transmission for Corynebacterium renale in cattle?

    <p>Urinary shedding and contaminated soil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical sign of caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats?

    <p>Necrosis of superficial lymph nodes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary site of infection for Rhodococcus hoagii in adult horses?

    <p>Lymph nodes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of disease transmission for Bacillus anthracis in ungulate herbivores?

    <p>Inhalation of spores, ingestion, and skin lesions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission of Streptococcus canis in neonatal septicemia?

    <p>Through the mouth of the queen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of the 'diamond skin' form of swine erysipelas?

    <p>Small light pink, purple raised areas on the skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary source of Listeria monocytogenes in the environment?

    <p>Soil and decaying plants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the infection that occurs in the guttural pouch of horses after recovery from Strangles?

    <p>Empyema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common feature of Streptococcus equi equi infection in horses?

    <p>Lymphadenitis and abscess formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae in pigs?

    <p>Shed in feces and contaminated food and water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the chronic infection that occurs in the joints of pigs infected with Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae?

    <p>Chronic arthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary site of infection for Listeria monocytogenes in monogastric animals?

    <p>Liver and small intestine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the stage of growth where bacteria are metabolically active but not dividing?

    <p>Quiescent phase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common feature of Streptococcus canis infection in kittens?

    <p>Local abscess formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary route of transmission for Burkholderia mallei?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which form of Glanders is characterized by nodules in the upper respiratory tract, lungs, and skin?

    <p>Cutaneous form</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the glycoprotein secreted by Burkholderia mallei used for diagnosis?

    <p>Mallein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which host range is affected by Melioidosis?

    <p>Unlimited, with disease usually sporadic but endemic in parts of Asia and Australia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of Calf Diphtheria?

    <p>Fusobacterium necrophorum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of Tuberculous infection affects birds?

    <p>M. avium avium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for Tuberculous infections?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the normal flora of body surfaces?

    <p>Normal flora</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the peptidoglycan layer in the bacterial cell wall?

    <p>Providing structural support</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the dormant form of bacterial cells that are highly durable and resistant?

    <p>Spores</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of transmission of Johne's disease?

    <p>Contaminated milk for calves and fecal-oral</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Feline leprosy?

    <p>Skin nodules especially on head, neck, and front limbs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reservoir of Swine dysentery?

    <p>Pigs' large intestine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission of Lyme disease?

    <p>Vector transmission through ticks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Leptospirosis?

    <p>Widespread zoonotic disease with species-specific serovars</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary organ affected in Leptospirosis?

    <p>Kidneys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission of Leptospirosis?

    <p>Contact with urine and contaminated water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Leptospirosis in dogs?

    <p>Icteric, uremic, hemorrhagic, and reproductive syndromes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between Leptospirosis in cattle and sheep?

    <p>Different serovars affect cattle and sheep</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary consequence of Leptospirosis in horses?

    <p>Autoimmune-mediated recurrent uveitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of infection is caused by Clostridium botulinum?

    <p>Toxico-infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission of Clostridium tetani?

    <p>Wound contamination with spores</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a clinical sign of tetanus?

    <p>Hyperactivity of voluntary muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of Clostridium septicum?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary source of Clostridium chauvoei?

    <p>Intestinal tract</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary habitat of Salmonella enterica subsp. Enterica?

    <p>Intestinal tract of both warm and cold-blooded animals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of braxy?

    <p>Abomasitis in sheep</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary outcome of infection with Clostridium septicum?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Clostridium tetani?

    <p>Ubiquitous in soil worldwide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between botulism and tetanus?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Salmonella serotype is most commonly associated with cattle?

    <p>S.Dublin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission of Salmonella in poultry?

    <p>Horizontal transmission through contaminated feed and environment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical sign of Bubonic Plague in cats?

    <p>Regional lymphadenitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reservoir of Yersinia pestis?

    <p>Tolerant mice and rats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following bacteria is a commensal of the upper respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts of mammals, birds, and reptiles?

    <p>Pasteurella multocida</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical sign of Hemorrhagic Septicemia in cattle?

    <p>Subcutaneous edema and hypersalivation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of Atrophic Rhinitis in pigs?

    <p>Co-infection with Bordetella bronchoseptica and Pasteurella multocida</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical sign of Avian Cholera in birds?

    <p>Sudden death and hemorrhages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of transmission of Pasteurella multocida in Shipping Fever?

    <p>Inhalation of contaminated dust</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between Bovine Respiratory Disease Complex (BRDC) and Atrophic Rhinitis?

    <p>BRDC affects cattle, while Atrophic Rhinitis affects pigs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary route of transmission for mycoplasmal diseases in animals?

    <p>Aerosols, milk, reproductive secretions, and eggs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following mycoplasma species causes septicemia in young goats?

    <p>M. mycoides ssp. capri</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical manifestation of M. hyorhinis infection in pigs?

    <p>Pleuritis, pericarditis, and peritonitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following mycoplasma species is associated with contagious bovine pleuropneumonia (CBPP)?

    <p>M. mycoides ssp. Mycoides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of disease caused by hemotrophic mycoplasmas?

    <p>Epicellular parasitism of red blood cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following mycoplasma species is associated with pneumonia and arthritis in cattle?

    <p>M. bovis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical manifestation of M. synoviae infection in chickens and turkeys?

    <p>Synovitis and lameness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of mycoplasmal diseases in animals?

    <p>Chronic and endemic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium is commonly found in the palatine tonsil of pigs and can cause septicemia, meningitis, endocarditis, bronchopneumonia, and polyarthritis in humans?

    <p>Streptococcus suis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for Trueperella pyogenes?

    <p>Endogenous transmission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium is known to cause enteric red mouth disease in freshwater fish?

    <p>Yersinia ruckeri</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis?

    <p>Coitus and artificial insemination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium is an opportunistic pathogen that can cause reproductive and intestinal diseases in animals?

    <p>Campylobacter spp.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of Trueperella pyogenes in the respiratory, urogenital, and gastrointestinal tracts of production animals?

    <p>Commensal bacterium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium is commonly found in the intestines of animals and can cause opportunistic infections?

    <p>Enterococcus spp.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of transmission for Yersinia pseudotuberculosis?

    <p>Fecal-oral transmission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for Bordetella bronchiseptica?

    <p>Aerosols and environmental contamination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of Chlamydia that allows it to persist in the environment?

    <p>It is an obligate intracellular parasite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical sign of Chlamydia psittaci infection in birds?

    <p>Wasting and lethargy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for Coxiella burnetii?

    <p>Aerosols and ingestion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of Anaplasma species?

    <p>They are transmitted by ticks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical sign of Bordetella bronchiseptica infection in guinea pigs?

    <p>Labored breathing and depression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which genus is responsible for causing cyclic thrombocytopenia in dogs?

    <p>Anaplasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical sign of Chlamydia felis infection in cats?

    <p>Conjunctivitis and upper respiratory tract disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary site of infection for Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

    <p>Granulocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the structures formed by Ehrlichia canis during infection?

    <p>Morulae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of Coxiella burnetii?

    <p>It is a Gram-negative bacterium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical feature of the chronic phase of canine monocytic ehrlichiosis?

    <p>Pancytopenia and excessive bleeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Rickettsia species is most pathogenic and causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever in dogs?

    <p>Rickettsia rickettsii</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary site of infection for Lawsonia intracellularis?

    <p>Apical cytoplasm of enterocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common characteristic of M.gallisepticum, M.bovoculi, and M.felis?

    <p>They are responsible for conjunctivitis in different animals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical feature of the acute form of porcine proliferative enteropathy (PPE)?

    <p>Sudden death of newly introduced animals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for Lawsonia intracellularis in pigs?

    <p>Direct contact with infected pigs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which E. coli strain is responsible for attaching and effacing lesions throughout the intestines?

    <p>EPEC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of M. bovis, which causes mastitis in cattle?

    <p>It produces fibrin deposits in the udder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which E. coli strain is responsible for edema disease in pigs?

    <p>STEC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between EHEC and STEC?

    <p>EHEC produces intimin and LEE gene products</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of diarrhea in neonatal pigs infected with E. coli?

    <p>ETEC producing enterotoxins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Streptococcus species is responsible for opportunistic infections in many animals, including EQ?

    <p>S. zooepidemicus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of M. agalactiae, which causes mastitis in sheep and goats?

    <p>It is responsible for contagious agalactia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    History of Microbiology

    • Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, a Dutchman, is considered the "Father of Microbiology" and discovered bacteria, RBC, spermatozoa, muscle fibers, and crystals
    • Robert Hooke, an Englishman, was the first to document microorganisms using a microscope and coined the term "cell"
    • Edward Jenner, an Englishman, is known as the "Father of Immunology" and developed the concept of vaccines, including the first vaccine against smallpox
    • The Golden Age of Microbiology lasted from 1857 to 1910
    • Louis Pasteur, a Frenchman, developed the germ theory and vaccination experiments against fowl cholera, anthrax, and rabies
    • Robert Koch, a German, discovered the causative agents of many deadly infectious diseases, developed Koch's postulates, and invented the bacterial culture method using agar on glass plates

    General Characteristics of Bacteria

    • Bacteria are ubiquitous in nature and can be found on body surfaces and in the GI tract, where they help digest nutrients
    • Only some bacteria are harmful pathogens, while others are commensals or mutualists
    • Bacterial cell types vary in size, shape, and arrangement

    Cell Structure

    • The cell envelope consists of a phospholipid membrane and a cell wall
    • Peptidoglycan/murein is unique to bacterial cell walls
    • Gram-positive bacteria have a thicker peptidoglycan layer, while Gram-negative bacteria have a thinner layer and an outer phospholipid membrane with porins
    • Exceptions include Mycoplasma, which has no cell wall, and the CMNR group, which has a complex cell wall with mycolic acid

    Surface Structures

    • Capsules are firmly attached to the cell wall and provide protection and facilitate attachment to hosts
    • Slime layers are loosely attached to the cell wall and help with biofilm formation
    • Flagella are composed of flagellin and provide motility
    • Fimbriae/pili are composed of pilin and facilitate attachment to host cells

    Cytoplasmic Structures

    • Cytoplasm consists of water, proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and inorganic ions
    • The nucleoid is a single, long, circular DNA molecule
    • Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA molecules that can provide advantages like antimicrobial resistance
    • Inclusions are storage granules that store polysaccharides and other nutrients
    • Ribosomes are smaller and less dense than those in eukaryotes and consist of 30S and 50S subunits

    Criteria for Classification

    • Growth on different media
    • Growth properties (oxygen, temperature, motility, etc.)
    • Microscopy (form, arrangement, size, and staining method)
    • Spore production
    • Biochemical activity (tests)
    • Serological tests (detects antigens/antibodies)
    • Genotypic/molecular analysis (MALDI-TOF, PCR, etc.)

    Physiology - Metabolism, Growth, and Nutrition

    • Main energy production methods: anaerobes via fermentation, aerobes via respiration
    • Reproduction via binary fission, with generation time varying among species:
      • E. coli: 20 minutes
      • S. aureus: 27-30 minutes
      • M. bovis: 20 hours
      • M. leprae: 20 days
    • Growth phases:
      • Lag phase: dormant, metabolically active, no distinct growth
      • Log phase: exponential growth
      • Stationary phase: population density stabilizes, nutrients run out, toxic waste products build up
      • Death phase: almost as fast as log phase
    • Requirements for growth:
      • Oxygen demand: obligate, facultative, microaerophile
      • Carbon dioxide: usually air level, some require higher
      • pH: acidophiles, neutrophiles, alkaliphiles (most are neutrophiles, pH 6.8-7.2)
      • Temperature: psychrophiles (10-15°C), mesophiles (30-37°C), thermophiles (55°C)
      • Osmotic pressure: usually best at physiological saline level
    • Nutrients:
      • Macronutrients (95%): components of nutrients, e.g., C, N, K, O, H, and cations for enzymes, cofactors, etc.
      • Micronutrients: vitamins, enzymes, cofactors
      • Growth factors: needed by some for growth, e.g., pyrimidines

    Cultivation

    • Process of propagating organisms with proper environmental conditions
    • Suitable media need to be sterile and have:
      • Gelling compound: agar-agar
      • Necessary chemical components
      • Certain environmental pH
      • Nutrients
      • Energy source
      • Essential metals and minerals
      • Buffering agents
      • Selective agents, pH indicators
    • Agar-agar: polysaccharide from red algae's cell wall, not nutritious, solidifies at 42°C, melts at 97-100°C
    • Media types:
      • Chemically defined media: exact amounts of pure components, e.g., citrate broth
      • Complex media: some parts impure digests, exact composition not known, e.g., tryptic soy broth
      • General purpose (basal) media: suitable for all less fastidious bacteria, e.g., nutrient agar
      • Enriched media: basal with additional nutrients, e.g., blood agar
      • Enrichment media: liquid media that permit only certain bacteria to grow, e.g., Fraser broth for Listeria
      • Differential media: pH indicators, e.g., agar color changes with bacterial growth
      • Selective media: inhibitory substances, e.g., 6.5% NaCl broth for enterococci
      • Selective-differential media: combination of selective and differential media, e.g., MSA, BPA
    • Other media: semi-solid media for microaerophilic bacteria or motility, assay media for antibiogram
    • Unculturable bacteria: don't proliferate on media, e.g., intracellular bacteria like Rickettsia, Coxiella, Chlamydia, Ehrlichia

    Haemolysis

    • Alpha: greenish color under the colonies, caused by hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) breaking down hemoglobin to methemoglobin
    • Beta: light yellow and clear area under and around colonies, caused by complete lysis of RBCs due to exotoxins (streptolysins)
    • Double: mix of alpha and beta, wider area, can see two zones
    • Gamma: no haemolysis, agar unchanged

    Methods of Microbial Control

    • Terms:
      • Sterilization: all viable microorganisms eliminated, no levels (0 or 100)
      • Disinfection: significant reduction of vegetative microorganisms on non-living materials
      • Antisepsis: same as disinfection, but on living animals/tissue
      • Asepsis: absence of microorganisms
      • Germicidal/microbicidal: chemical that destroys microorganisms, e.g., bactericidal, virucidal
      • Bacterio-/fungistatic: inhibits proliferation of bacteria/fungi
    • Methods can affect cell wall, cell membrane, cytoplasm, enzymes (inactivation), and DNA
    • Physical methods:
      • Heat: bacterial spores require >100°C for destruction, most vegetative die in 60-70°C in 10 minutes
      • Dry heat: hot air ovens and flaming (for instruments)
      • Moist heat: pasteurization, boiling water, tyndallization, autoclaving
    • Radiation:
      • UV light (non-ionizing): damages DNA by causing bonds between adjacent pyrimidine bases, inhibits DNA replication, and causes death
      • Gamma/X rays (ionizing): with wavelength

    Antibiotics

    • Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis: beta-lactam antibiotics (penicillins, cephalosporins), bacitracin, and vancomycin
    • Mechanism: bactericidal, better against Gram-positive (G+) bacteria, but also effective against Gram-negative (G-), and anaerobes
    • Bacitracin and vancomycin only affect G+ bacteria

    Antibiotics that Damage Cell Membrane Functions

    • Antibiotics: polymyxins and monensin
    • Mechanism: bactericidal, effective against G- aerobes

    Antibiotics that Inhibit Nucleic Acid Function

    • Antibiotics: nitroimidazoles (metronidazole, dimetridazole), and fluoroquinolones
    • Mechanism: bind to inhibit DNA replication or transcription
    • Nitroimidazoles: only affect anaerobes and microaerophiles, bactericidal
    • Fluoroquinolones: bactericidal, effective against G-

    Antibiotics that Inhibit Protein Synthesis

    • Antibiotics: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, and macrolides
    • Mechanism: affect the 30S or 50S ribosome
    • Tetracyclines: bacteriostatic, effective against both G+ and G- and protozoa (broad spectrum)
    • Aminoglycosides: bactericidal, effective against G-, mycobacteria, and some mycoplasmas, only affect aerobes
    • Chloramphenicol: bacteriostatic, effective against both G+ and G- (broad spectrum)
    • Macrolides: bacteriostatic, effective against G+ and mycoplasmas

    Antimicrobial Resistance

    • Main mechanisms: reducing penetration, using efflux pumps, modifying/degrading antibiotics, modifying/protecting targets, and developing alternate pathways
    • Intrinsic resistance: chromosomally encoded, natural to the taxonomic group
    • Extrinsic resistance: acquired through mutation or transfer of genetic material
    • Transfer of genetic material: vertical transmission, transformation, transduction, and conjugation
    • Over-reliance/usage of antibiotics contributes to resistance

    Pathogenicity and Virulence Factors

    • Identifying pathogenic bacteria: Koch's postulates
    • Infection: multiplication of an infectious agent within the body
    • Types of transmission: exogenous, endogenous, contact, vectors, iatrogenic, vertical, ingestion, inhalation, and inoculation
    • Most frequent transmission routes: damaged skin, mucous membranes, injuries, surgical sites, teats, and umbilicus
    • Definitions: bacteremia, septicemia, sepsis, pathogenicity, and virulence
    • General characteristic of pathogenesis: transmission, adherence, persistence, invasion, toxigenicity, evasion, and survival abilities

    Virulence Factors

    • Adherence factors: pili, fimbriae, lipoteichoic acid, protein F, etc.
    • Invasion factors: hyaluronidase, collagenase, fibrinolysin, lecithinase, coagulase, and DNAse
    • Evasion factors: modulate cell surfaces, release proteins to inhibit/degrade host immune factors, and mimic host molecules
    • Toxigenicity factors: enzymes, exotoxins, and endotoxins

    Animal Microflora

    • ~500-1000 bacterial species on all surfaces exposed to the environment
    • Vital functions: synthesize vitamins, ferment indigestible carbohydrates, and convert lactose to lactic acid
    • Presence inhibits growth of pathogenic bacteria and trains host immunity
    • Most are anaerobes, and also includes fungi and protozoa

    Staphylococcus aureus Virulence Factors

    • Cell wall-associated structures: MSCRAMM, peptidoglycan, capsule, and capsular polysaccharides for attachment, colonization, and invasion
    • Protein A: biofilm formation, binds to immunoglobulins, evading immune recognition and opsonization
    • Clumping factor: bound coagulase
    • Exotoxins:
      • Hemolysins: α, β, γ, and δ
      • Leukocidins: LukMF, LukPQ, and LukSF-I
      • Enterotoxins: induce vomiting and cause food poisoning
      • Superantigens: stimulate T-cell proliferation and massive cytokine release
      • Exfoliating toxins: break intercellular adhesion molecules, causing blisters and skin peeling
    • Enzymes:
      • Staphylokinase: breaks down fibrin clots
      • DNAse: degrades DNA
      • Lipase and phospholipase: enzymatic activity
      • Hyaluronidase: breaks down hyaluronic acid in connective tissue
      • Coagulase: converts fibrinogen to fibrin, creating clots that coat bacterial cells, resisting opsonization and phagocytosis
      • Protease: causes proteolysis

    Bacillus anthracis Virulence Factors

    • Two toxins: lethal factor (LEF) and edema factor (EF)
    • Enzymes encoded in pXO1 plasmid
    • LEF: causes major cytokine release, apoptosis, cell necrosis, and hypoxia
    • EF: adenylyl cyclase, converting ATP to cAMP, causing upset water homeostasis and edema
    • EF also inactivates phagocytes
    • Capsule: encoded in pXO2 plasmid, providing strong antiphagocytic protection
    • Secondary virulence factors:
      • Peptidases: affect proteins
      • Phospholipases: hydrolyze phospholipids
      • Hemolysins: α, β, γ, and δ

    Escherichia coli Virulence Factors

    • Adhesins: mediate attachment to host tissues
    • Capsule: K antigen, made of polysaccharides, protecting from phagocytosis
    • Cell wall: lipopolysaccharides
    • Lipid A (endotoxin): activates cytokine release from immune cells
    • O-antigen layer: protects against phagocytosis and the membrane attack complex
    • Toxins:
      • Enterotoxins: disturb intestinal fluid metabolism
      • Heat-stable toxins: low molecular weight, poorly antigenic
      • Heat-labile toxins: high molecular weight, highly antigenic
      • Shiga toxins (Stx)/verotoxins: inhibit protein synthesis, inducing apoptosis
      • Hemolysins: α-hemolysin, enterohemolysin, and cytolysin A
      • Cyclomodulins: stimulate or inhibit the eukaryotic cell cycle
    • Secretion systems:
      • T1SS: hemolysin secretion
      • T2SS: mediates transport of nutrient acquisition enzymes and exports some toxins
      • T3SS: injects virulence factors into host cells
      • T4SS: transports effector proteins to host and DNA to other bacteria
      • T5SS: autotransporters, promoting adherence, aggregation, and proteolytic activity
      • T6SS: against other bacteria, secreting antibacterial proteins directly into the periplasm of target bacteria
    • Iron transport/uptake: siderophores take iron from host's lactoferrin and transferrin

    Action Mechanism of Clostridial Toxins

    • Done by the light (L) chain of the toxin molecule
    • Both cleave one of the three SNARE complex proteins that would normally connect the neurotransmitter vesicles with the neuron's synaptic membrane
    • C.botulinum: produces botulinum toxin, inhibiting the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitter containing vesicles in neuromuscular junctions, resulting in flaccid paralysis
    • C.tetani: produces tetanospasmin, preventing the release of glycine and GABA neurotransmitters in the central inhibitory interneurons, resulting in spasmic paralysis

    Dermonecrotic Toxin

    • Affects cell-signaling pathways, increasing levels of inflammatory cytokines and proliferation of osteoclasts, and deficiency of osteoblasts, leading to distortion of nasal turbinate bones
    • Bordetella bronchiseptica first attaches to nasal mucosa, causing nasal irritation and making the nasal turbinates susceptible to DMT, which mildly damages the epithelium
    • Pasteurella multocida then attaches to damaged epithelium and secretes PMT, destroying the nasal turbinates

    Mastitis

    • Caused by Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus licheniformis, and Bacillus subtilis in ruminants, and Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus uberis, Streptococcus dysgalactiae, Corynebacterium bovis, and Bacillus cereus (rarely) in bovines.
    • Transmission occurs primarily from udder to udder during milking via contaminated milking machines or farmer's hands/other equipment, and also from the environment.
    • Clinical signs include:
      • Subclinical: elevated somatic cell count in milk
      • Clinical: swollen, firm, warm, and tender udder, and visually changed milk
      • More severe and peracute: onset of hyperthermia, reduced eating, rapid heart rate, and depression

    Exudative Epidermitis (Greasy Pig Disease)

    • Caused by Staphylococcus hyicus, a natural commensal of pig's skin, nose, and ears.
    • Disease occurs worldwide in piglets up to 3 months of age.
    • Transmission occurs through skin contact or vertical transmission (from vaginal mucosa at or shortly after birth).
    • Disease-causing strains produce exfoliative toxins, while commensals in healthy pigs do not.
    • Clinical signs include:
      • Lethargy, depression, anorexia, and reddened skin
      • Lesions progress over time, with skin covered in sebum, serum, and sweat, giving a greasy feel
      • Microscopically: superficial and deep pyoderma with brownish exudate

    Strangles

    • Caused by Streptococcus equi equi in solipeds (horses).
    • Highly contagious infection in nasopharynx and associated lymph nodes, leading to abscess formation.
    • Clinical signs include:
      • Fever, nasal discharge, lassitude, difficult swallowing, mild cough, and swollen mandibular lymph nodes
      • Sometimes, abscesses also form in lungs, abdomen, and brain (metastases)
      • Most recover quickly and uneventfully, but sometimes the infection stays in the guttural pouch after clinical recovery, leading to empyema (pus collection in a natural cavity) and chondroids (pus "stones")

    Neonatal Septicemia and Juvenile Streptococcosis

    • Caused by Streptococcus canis in cats.
    • Neonatal septicemia: transmission from vaginal secretion or mouth of queen to kitten, leading to local abscess, spread, and death within a week.
    • Juvenile streptococcosis: infection in 2-4 month old kittens, with S. canis invading tonsils and cranial lymphatics, leading to purulent lymphadenitis.

    Erysipelas

    • Caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae.
    • Ubiquitous in nature, affecting many species, but most common in swine.
    • Found in tonsils and intestinal lymphoid tissues.
    • Transmission occurs through:
      • Shedding in feces, contaminated food, water, and soil
      • Arthropod bites and wound infections
    • 3m-3y old pigs are most susceptible.
    • Forms of swine erysipelas include:
      • Septicemic (peracute/acute): high mortality, febrile and depressed pigs, abortions, skin lesions during septicemia or after recovery
      • "Diamond skin" (acute): febrile pigs with different skin lesions (small, light pink, purple, raised areas, many pink/purple diamond-shaped when severe)
      • Chronic arthritis: infection localizes in joint, leading to synovium thickening and joint deterioration for years
      • Vegetative endocarditis (chronic): masses most commonly on the mitral valves of the heart, often asymptomatic, sometimes with signs of congestive heart failure or sudden death

    Listeriosis

    • Caused by Listeria monocytogenes/ivanovii.
    • Widely distributed in environment, mostly in soil and decaying plants, also in GI tract, feces, silage, sewage, and bodies of fresh water.
    • Transmission occurs mainly through:
      • Contaminated feed, especially silage with pH > 5.5
      • Inhalation and mucous membrane wounds
    • Forms of listeriosis include:
      • Septicemic or "visceral" (mainly in monogastric animals): affects organs other than the brain, especially liver, with small necrotic foci
      • Meningoencephalitis or "neural" (affects RU and sometimes SU): localized asymmetric infection of the brain stem, with clinical signs including depression, confusion, drooping ears, head tilt, salivation, tongue sticking out of the mouth, facial paralysis, food impaction, and circling movement
      • Abortions: L. monocytogenes invades fetoplacental tissue, leading to abortion usually during the 3rd trimester
      • Mastitis and lymphadenitis

    Caseous Lymphadenitis

    • Caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (also Streptococcus canis in kittens).
    • The genus is part of the CMNR group with a mycolic acid layer on the cell wall.
    • Found on skin, nasopharynx mucous membranes, and intestinal tract.
    • Transmission occurs through superficial wounds, spreading via the lymphatic system.
    • Forms of caseous lymphadenitis include:
      • Granulomatous form: necrosis of superficial lymph nodes and subcutaneous tissue
      • Visceral form: lesions in internal organs and lymph nodes
      • Ulcerative lymphadenitis: in EQ, rare, ulcerative form: cellulitis that ascends the lymphatics, affected sites swell, abscesses rupture, and ulcers form
      • External form (pigeon fever/breast bone fever): single, large, thick-capsuled abscess under the abdomen or pectoral region

    Bovine Pyelonephritis

    • Caused by Corynebacterium renale and cystitidis + pilosum (less pathogenic - mild cystitis).
    • Shed in urine, contaminating soil, and attaching to urogenital tract mucosa, producing urease that hydrolyzes urea, damaging the tract and kidneys, leading to hemorrhagic cystitis, urethritis, and pyelonephritis.
    • Clinical signs include:
      • Fever, anorexia, arched back, frequent urination of small amounts (containing leukocytes, fibrin, and blood clots)

    Foal Rhodococcosis

    • Caused by Rhodococcus hoagii.
    • Natural habitat is soil, coprophilic (grow in herbivore feces and foal LI).
    • Transmission occurs through contaminated soil, inhalation of dust particles, and ingestion.
    • Forms include:
      • Multifocal purulent bronchopneumonia with abscesses: most common form, symptoms seen in 4-12 weeks old foals
      • Ulcerative typhlocolitis and mesenteric lymphadenitis: in 50% of foals with rhodococcal pneumonia
      • Other less common manifestations: osteomyelitis, purulent arthritis, ulcerative lymphangitis, reactive arthritis, and ocular inflammatory processes

    Rhodococcosis in Other Animals

    • SU and BO: pyogranulomatous lesions in lymph nodes, often found at slaughter and confused with tuberculosis
    • Goats: can have severe systemic form, with abscesses in lungs, liver, etc.

    Anthrax

    • Caused by Bacillus anthracis, an obligate pathogen.
    • Spores are ubiquitous in soils, and the vegetative form is only found in hosts.
    • Most commonly affects ungulate herbivores.
    • Transmission occurs through:
      • Skin
      • Ingestion
      • Inhalation
    • Forms of anthrax include:
      • Cutaneous: local growth, leading to localized edema, necrotic, black lesions, rare in animals, mostly in pigs
      • Intestinal: subclinical to fatal, gas build-up, mucosal edema, necrotic lesions, leading to regional hemorrhagic lymphadenitis, septicemia, toxemia, shock, and death
      • Pulmonary: most severe form, rapid spread to regional lymph nodes, leading to same as above, most common form in RU

    Anthrax in RU

    • Typical case: sudden and unanticipated death, minor anorexia and reduced milk yield are common, rapid rise of temperature (41.5C), staggering, dyspnea, trembling, and collapse with a few convulsive movements, and bleeding from orifices at death

    Anthrax in EQ

    • Clinical signs: fever, chills, severe colic, anorexia, depression, weakness, bloody diarrhea, ventral edema, death within 2-3 days

    Anthrax in SU and CAR

    • Acute form: oropharyngitis that can lead to suffocation
    • Chronic form: anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea/sometimes constipation, getting better with treatment

    Control and Prevention of Anthrax

    • Safe disposal of all carcasses and infected animals - culling and burning
    • Surveillance of in-contact animals
    • Blood samples for bacteriological examination without opening carc

    Botulism and Tetanus

    • Botulism: caused by Clostridium botulinum, found in soils and lake/sea sediments, transmission through ingestion of spores or wound contamination, mostly affects RU and EQ.
    • Clinical signs: progressive and symmetrical flaccid paralysis, limb weakness, breathing difficulties, recumbency, and death by respiratory arrest.
    • Tetanus: caused by Clostridium tetani, ubiquitous in soil worldwide, transmission through wound contamination with spores from soil, feces, dust, etc., mostly affects EQ and OV.
    • Clinical signs: hyperactivity of voluntary muscles, rigidity, tetanic spasms, and localized or systemic disease.

    Gas Gangrene and Malignant Edema

    • Caused by: Clostridium septicum, histotoxic infection, bacteria destroy and ingest host tissues, damage by enzymes and toxins.
    • Transmission: contaminated wounds, ingestion of contaminated soil, and colonization of intestinal tract.
    • Clinical signs: kill the animal, and environment is contaminated with spores, leading to spread.
    • Braxy: abomasitis in sheep after eating frozen root crops/grass, especially during winter.
    • Malignant edema: caused by introduction of the pathogen into a wound, produces alpha and beta toxins.

    Blackleg

    • Caused by: Clostridium chauvoei, histotoxic infection in BO, bacteria destroy and ingest host tissues, damage by enzymes and toxins.
    • Transmission: ingestion of spores, colonization of intestinal tract, and spread to muscle tissues via blood/lymphatics.
    • Clinical signs: remains dormant in muscle tissues.

    Salmonellosis

    • Caused by: different serotypes of Salmonella enterica subsp. Enterica, natural habitat in the intestinal tract of warm and cold-blooded animals.
    • Transmission: fecal-oral, contaminated food and water, host-specific serotypes.
    • Clinical signs: depression, fever, and death in 24-48 hours, neurologic signs in calves and pigs, mortality may reach 100%.
    • Enteritis: without septicemia, same fever, severe watery diarrhea, sometimes dysentery, and tenesmus.

    Buponic Plague (Black Death)

    • Caused by: Yersinia pestis, facultative intracellular bacteria, primary reservoir in tolerant mice and rats.
    • Transmission: mostly through the oriental rat flea, inhalation of droplets from infected animals, and rarely through raw meat.
    • Clinical signs: regional lymphadenitis, fever, depression, anorexia, sneezing, coughing, and CNS disturbances in cats, mostly fatal.

    Shipping Fever/BRDC

    • Caused by: Pasteurella multocida and Mannheimia haemolytica, commensal of upper respiratory and GI tracts of mammals, birds, reptiles.
    • Transmission: inhalation, bites, open wounds, contact with contaminated feces/carcasses.
    • Clinical signs: fever, inappetence, listlessness, inconsistent respiratory signs, leading to pneumonia.

    Atrophic Rhinitis

    • Caused by: Bordetella bronchoseptica and Pasteurella multocida, chronic, synergetic infection of the nasal cavity.
    • Affects: 3-7 month old pigs, clinical signs include sneezing, epistaxis, tear leakage, deviation of the nose, and secondary pneumonia.

    Hemorrhagic Septicemia

    • Caused by: Pasteurella multocida, acute, systemic infection in RU.
    • Clinical signs: high fever, depression, subcutaneous edema, hypersalivation, diarrhea, and sudden death.

    Other Diseases

    • Glanders: caused by Burkholderia mallei, facultative intracellular bacteria, transmission through ingestion, aerosols, fomites, and skin lesions.
    • Melioidosis: caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei, naturally found in soil and water, transmission through direct contact, inhalation, ingestion, and wound infections.
    • Calf Diphtheria: caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum, obligate anaerobe, transmission through the mouth, GI, and urogenital tracts.
    • Tuberculous Infections: caused by different Mycobacterium, transmission through aerosol inhalation, unpasteurized milk, and damaged skin barrier.
    • Johne's Disease: caused by Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis, obligate pathogen, transmission through fecal-oral route.
    • Feline Leprosy: caused by Mycobacterium lepraemurium, skin nodules, ulceration, and lymph node involvement.
    • Swine Dysentery: caused by Brachyspira hyodysenteriae, transmission through fecal-oral route, multiplications in the large intestine lead to disease.
    • Lyme Disease: caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, transmission through Ixodes species ticks, clinical signs include high fever, lameness, swollen joints, and swollen lymph nodes.
    • Leptospirosis: caused by different Leptospira serovars, widespread zoonotic disease, transmission through contact with urine/tissues from infected animals, contaminated water, and soil.

    Mycoplasmal Diseases

    • Mycoplasmas are ubiquitous parasites in animals and plants, causing chronic endemic diseases in many domestic mammals.
    • They can be transmitted through various routes, including aerosols, milk, reproductive secretions, and eggs.
    • Infections can lead to septicemia, multiple system diseases, and polyarthritis.

    Specific Mycoplasma Species

    • M. mycoides ssp. capri: causes septicemia in young goats, characterized by polyarthritis, pneumonia, and lesions in multiple organs.
    • M. capricolum ssp. Capricolum: causes acute and severe, generalized infections in goats and sheep, leading to fatal septicemia or polyarthritis.
    • M. hyorhinis: colonizes the upper respiratory tract of pigs, causing pleuritis, pericarditis, peritonitis, and polyarthritis.
    • M. bovis: causes pneumonia, followed by arthritis and polyarthritis.
    • M. agalactiae: causes mastitis in goats and sheep, leading to septicemia or polyarthritis.

    Hemotrophic Infections

    • Mycoplasmas are epicellular parasites of red blood cells, causing hemolytic anemia.
    • M. haemofelis: infects cats, causing hemolytic anemia.
    • M. ovis: infects lambs, causing hemolytic anemia.
    • M. suis: infects pigs, causing hemolytic anemia.

    Localized Infections

    • Respiratory tract infections: cause bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and pneumonia in various animals, including calves, lambs, pigs, dogs, mice, and rats.
    • Pleuropneumonia: caused by M. mycoides ssp. Mycoides, resulting in mortality rates of up to 50%.
    • Conjunctivitis: caused by various mycoplasma species, including M. gallisepticum, M. bovoculi, and M. felis.
    • Mastitis: caused by M. bovis and other species, leading to swollen udders, reduced milk production, and fibrin deposits.

    E. coli Infections

    • Diarrheagenic strains: cause diarrhea in various animals, including pigs, calves, lambs, and poultry.
    • Enteric colibacillosis: causes severe, watery diarrhea, often leading to mortality.
    • EPEC: causes diarrhea in all animals, including humans, characterized by attaching and effacing lesions.
    • STEC: causes diarrhea, often with bloody stools, and can lead to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) in humans.
    • ExPEC: causes a range of extraintestinal infections, including septicemia, meningitis, and urinary tract infections.

    Other Pathogens

    • Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus: causes mucosal commensal infections in various animals, including horses, cattle, and humans.
    • Streptococcus canis: causes infections in dogs, cats, and other animals, including otitis externa, pneumonia, and endocarditis.
    • Streptococcus suis: causes septicemia, meningitis, and endocarditis in pigs, and can be transmitted to humans.
    • Enterococcus spp.: causes infections in various animals, including otitis externa, urinary tract infections, and bacterial endocarditis.
    • Trueperella pyogenes: causes pyogenic infections in various animals, including mastitis, arthritis, and pneumonia.
    • Klebsiella pneumoniae: causes opportunistic infections in various animals, including pneumonia, suppurative conditions, and urinary tract infections.
    • Yersinia pseudotuberculosis: causes mesenteric lymphadenitis, terminal ileitis, and acute gastroenteritis in various animals, including birds and rodents.
    • Yersinia enterocolitica: causes infections in domestic animals and primates, including diarrhea, mastitis, and abortion.
    • Yersinia ruckeri: causes enteric red mouth disease in freshwater fish, particularly rainbow trout.
    • Campylobacter spp.: causes reproductive and intestinal diseases in various animals, including abortions, diarrhea, and asymptomatic infections.

    Chlamydia

    • Obligate intracellular parasites: no environmental reservoir.
    • Gram negative: no peptidoglycan layer.
    • Worldwide distribution: asymptomatic and persistent infections in the GI tract.
    • Transmission: mainly fecal-oral, also droplet inhalation and interpersonal contact.
    • Biphasic development: elementary bodies and reticulate bodies.

    Specific Chlamydia Species

    • Chlamydia abortus: causes ovine enzootic abortions globally.
    • Chlamydia psittaci: causes avian chlamydiosis in over 500 species, especially pigeons and parrots.
    • Chlamydia felis: causes acute to chronic conjunctivitis, rhinitis, and respiratory disease in cats.

    Coxiella burnettii

    • Gram negative, obligate intracellular pathogen: causes coxiellosis (Q fever) worldwide.
    • Biphasic development: replicative large-cell variant and metabolically dormant, spore-like small cell variant.
    • Transmission: aerosols, ingestion, or tick bites.

    Rickettsiales

    • Gram negative, obligate intracellular bacteria: worldwide distribution.
    • Infections in livestock and companion animals: include genus Anaplasma, Ehrlichia, and Rickettsia.

    Lawsonia intracellularis

    • Gram negative, obligately intracellular bacterium: causes proliferative enteropathy.
    • Found in the apical cytoplasm of infected enterocytes: wide host range, including pigs, sheep, dogs, birds, and marsupials.
    • Transmission: feces or direct contact with infected pig.
    • Two major clinical forms in pigs: acute hemorrhagic diarrhea and chronic mild diarrhea and reduced performance.

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    This quiz covers the history of microbiology, including the contributions of key figures such as Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, Robert Hooke, and Edward Jenner. Learn about the discovery of microorganisms and the development of vaccines.

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