Hematology: Blood Cells & Lymphoma

Hematology

• High reticulocyte count with low RBCs, hemoglobin, and hematocrit indicates bleeding or hemolysis.
• Auer rods are characteristic of acute myeloblastic leukemia.
• Lack of Vitamin B-12 and folic acid cause abnormally large red blood cells and megaloblastic anemia.
• Stage II Non – Hodgkin's lymphoma affects two or more groups of lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
• Iron deficiency anemia should be excluded in differential diagnosis of aplastic anemia.
• Swollen lymph nodes can be felt in the neck or under the arms in a person with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
• Hodgkin's lymphoma is not follicular.
• In the breakdown of RBC, bilirubin is excreted.
• Stage IV Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma presents as lymphoma in organs outside the lymphatic system or in the bone marrow.
• Non - Hodgkin lymphoma originates in the lymphatic system.
• Stage III Non - Hodgkin’s lymphoma affects lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm.
• Megaloblastic anemia is suspected in anemic patients with macrocytosis and pancytopenia.
• Lymphoma is classified as a lymphoproliferative disease.
• CD8 is a marker for mature T cells.
• Possible signs or symptoms of non-Hodgkin lymphoma include fever, night sweats, fatigue and other symptoms.
• B Lymphocytes carry out acquired immune response.
• Posthemorrhagic anemia is classified as acute and chronic.
• Anemia by the color index can be hypochromic.
• Iron deficiency anemia does not arise by iron being absorbed in the duodenum and small intestine.
• Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma belongs to the aggressive lymphoma type.
• Reed-Sternberg cells are present in Hodgkin's lymphoma.
• Platelet count more than 450,000/cumm is not a part of WHO criteria for ET diagnosis.
• Hemoglobin elevation more than 16.5 g/dl is not a criteria for ET diagnosis Chronic myeloid leukemia presents the BRC-ABL translocation.
• A patient with extremely low B12 levels can experience mental confusion and dementia.
• Isoimmune hemolytic anemia is caused by transfusion of non-compatible blood group.
• Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) presents no specific symptoms.
• B-lineage immunophenotype a good prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
• Primary lymphoid organs consist of both the thymus gland and bone marrow.
• Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia is suspected in a 60-year-old man presenting headaches and anemia, with investigations revealing an IgM paraprotein of 30 g/L.
• Erythropoietin is secreted by the kidney.
• Platelets are not granulocytes.

• 3 clonal chromosomal abnormalities is a bad prognostic indicator in acute myeloid leukemia.

• Mature B cells are plasma cells.
• Tear-drop shaped erythrocytes are characteristics of primary myelofibrosis.
• Hiatus Leukemicus is typical for acute leukemias.
• WBC (leukocytes) release chemicals from granules to destroy pathogens and differentiate into macrophages to phagocytize pathogens.
• The progenitor cell for basophils is the myeloblast
• In the FAB classification, the M0 type of AML is undifferentiated acute myeloblastic leukemia.
• CML means Chronic Myeloid Leukemia.
• Myloprolypherative disorders include the Essential Thrombocythemia for the platelets, Polycythaemia vera ‘PRV' in RBC, Primary Myelofibrosis
• It's true that a person can develop iron-deficiency anemia despite eating food that contains adequate iron
• Lymphocytosis can be caused by acute viral infections.
• Non-Hodgkin lymphoma can be Follicular.
• In warm antibody haemolytic anemia antibodies are mostly Ig G.
• The hemoglobin types found in a normal adult are A, A2; F.
• Stage I Non - hodgkins lymphoma is the only one group of lymph nodes affected anywhere in the body.
• Secondary lymphoid include all of lymph nodes including spleen, Lymphoid tissues
• Mature T cells marker is CD4.
• Anemia due to deficiency of iron or vitaminB12 can be differentiated based on the examination of the blood cells

Laboratory Medicine

• Hyperglycemia is diagnosed when glucose concentration is ≥ 6.1mmol/L
• Urea is a waste product formed in the liver.
• Nucleic acid testing (PCR) is the new gold standard for diagnosing viral infections.
• Reticulocytes are immature red cells that contain RNA.
• Cardiac troponin is the most commonly ordered and specific marker for heart damage, positive within a few hours and elevated for up to two weeks.
• Pancytopenia consists of decreased WBCs, RBCs, and PLTs.
• TSH the preferred initial test for thyroid disorders.
• Erythropoietin stimulates production of red blood cells.
• Vitamin B12 and folic acid are needed for DNA synthesis and they greatly influence the production of red blood cells
• Ferritin the most specific test for identifying iron deficiency anemia.
• Anemia the deficiency of Iron, Folic acid, Vitamin B12
• Full Blood Count (FBC) is a test evaluates the general condition of The body, with pathological changes in the blood, requires additional studies
• Parameters that indicate anemia include RBC, Hb, and Hct .
• Having an increased number of large PLT can be a cause you can be the cause?
• T cells develop into several distinct types in the Thymus.
• Additional parameters that help make a more accurate diagnosis include Iron, serum
• INR calculate is (PT patient/PT control plasma) ISI.
• International normalized ratio is the INR.
• Iron deficiency anemia can be thought about with this parameter.
• A low hemoglobin level among the following signifies anemia.
• RDW indicates anisocytosis.
• Oligouria is defined as less than 500 ml/day.
• MCV and RDW indicate RBC pathology.
• A breakpoint is a chosen concentration (mg/L) of an antibiotic which defines whether a species of bacteria is susceptible or resistant to the antibiotic.
• Variation in erythrocyte shape is called poikolocytosis.
• Preanalysis is where the most errors occur in laboratory testing.
• The yellow color of urine is due to urobilin..
• Normal pH range for urine is 4.6–8.
• TB (Tuberculosis)is an example of organism in BSL3.
• The mean and normal range of Hemoglobin for an adult male is 15.7 (14.0-17.5) g / dL.
• Plasma is not about 45 % of the total blood volume.
• Patient with diabetes mellitus have urine with Increased volume and increased specific gravity.
• Deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen, Select the statement about red blood cells that is incorrect
• The Neutrophils are the type of white blood cell that often arrives at the site of infection first, is a granulocyte, and contains granules that stain light purple
• Ebola is the example of organism in BSL 4.
• Normal value for INR in healthy people is 1.1 or below.
• AFP screen for neural defects such as spina bifida
• For hyperthyroidism: T3-high or normal , T4-high or normal, TSH-low
• If positive results for both CCP antibody and RF, RA is very likely
• If MTB testing culture shows negative, it is reported after six weeks.
• Normal range of hematocrit for an adult male is 41 - 51% .
• The average concentration of HB (Hemoglobin) in a given volume of packed red cells is the Hematocrit (Hct).
• The ratio of the volume of erythrocytes to the whole blood is a reference to erythrocytes..
• As regards Polyuria, it means the production of more than 2000 ml of urine in 24 hrs.
• Shortened aPTT tests may be a result of Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
• platelet reactivity at the site of injury. is where primary hemostasis refers
• Lymphopenia can be caused by HIV.
• Kidney function can be evaluated by by doing the blood urea nitrogen or BUN test
• The Hemoglobin A1 is test to estimates the average amount of glucose in the blood over the past 2 to 4 months.
• Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is concentration of antibiotic that inhibits the visible growth of an organism in an in vitro system
• Mean cell haemoglobin concentration describes the amount of content hemoglobin inside a single red cell
• Mean cell volume (MCV) describes average volume of a single red cell
• The mean normal range for platelet count is 250 (150-350) × 10^9 /L.
• The cascade of enzymatic reactions that results in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin monomers is the term secondary hemostasis refers to.
• full lipid panel should be used for Initial screening for a coronary risk panel
• 95% of nondiseased ("normal") individuals will fall within the"normal range".
• Refractory periodontitis develops due to a complete remission after therapy, followed by recurrence of the disease as a result of reformation of plague, and calculus.
• the lipid profile test consists of cholesterol total, HDL-cholesterol, LDL-cholesterol, VLDL-cholesterol, triglycerides.
• fasting plasma glucose level more than 126mg/dL (more than 7mmol/L) indicates diabetes mellitus:
• healthy adults with no other risk factors for the heart disease may not do the cholesterol lipid exam every four to six years but that doesn't exclude that they can develop a heart attack for any other reasons
• The MCH and MCHC are usually decreased in hypochromia.
• 7.8 (4.4-11.3) x 10^9/L is the mean and normal range for white blood cell count
• precipitation immunoassays use radioisotopes as labels
• maternal IgG antibodies passively transfer across the placenta into the fetal circulation.
• A very high level of ALT (Alanine transaminase (ALT) is frequently seen with acute hepatitis
• Gross hematuria is when theres an presence of an increased number of red blood cells in urine visible to the naked eye:
• anisochromia or dimorphic anemia is when The presence of hypochromic and normochromic cells are in the same film:
• poikolocytosis describes when the variation shapes the
• A MPO describes a positive reading, with a cytochemistry test, with the myeloidblasts
• aPTT indicates coagulation intrinsic pathways are indicated are : PT by quick method or (aPTt)
• they release chemicals from their granules that destroy pathogens
• excretion of more than 400 mL of, At low specific gravity100ml at night has nocturnia
• • the relative proportions of dissolved solid components to total volume of the specimen what the spcific gravity
• Number of particles of solute per unit of solution : osmolality test
• Culture is the accurate way of diagnosing if some ones has TB
• (up to 2mg D/L) of acetotic acid is normal when having an urinalsis
• potassium is especially important for people that have diabeties
• left shift is a indication there is in fection

• 2500 in (150-350) is a Poly uria with a normal platelet count

• A relative increase of leukocytes shows an Increase in cell percantage without an increase in conentration
• not an easy answer or trick question 1 Single platete is visulaized
• a. are not known to consistently cause disease in healthy adults and present minimal potential hazard to personnel and the environment.

Oncology

• Oestrogen receptor positivity indicates a good prognosis for breast cancer.

• Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid is very well best best treated with surgery and radioisotope therapy

• Adenoma is the term that best describes a circumscribed, pedunculated, 0.9 cm mass on a short stalk found in the upper rectum through a colonoscopy, from a 45 years old with a positive stool guaiac test

• Dense breasts on mammogram is associated with the highest risk of breast cancer

• Ultrasound of the axilla to evaluate for residual disease.

• The level of CEA is used to monitor response with cancer of the ovary.

• Chromosome 3p allele foss is one the most common events in lung cancer pathogenesis, regarding Correct Molecular Abnormalities Observed in Lung Cancer

• With pulmonary Carcinoid tumors, it's correct that Surgery has a curative potential for resectable localized tumors.

• Surface ulceration describes the true nature of cancer

• The next best step in management would be to do a to do a CT-guided biopsy of the mass on a 55 y/o man with history of smoking at Shortness of Breath , in order to determine plan of care

• Head of pancreas is the most common cancer site.

• Hormonal replacement therapy shouldn't be encouraged and Advanced diseases might respond to antiestrogen therap.

• Nulliparity risk for a woman to develop ovarian cancer.

• monitoring treatment :CA-125

• Young age, Estrogen receptor (ER) positive, and Aggressive features

• P53 mutation was selected to describe genetic abnormalities.

• commonly arises from pre-existing adenomas, Colorectal cancer

• Dietart is fibre is to be avoided when having Risk factors associated with colorectal cancer?

• "5 year survival rates of 15-20% have been reported in selected patients treated with chemo- and radiotherapy."

• 80% are due to smoking is the true prognosis

• "stage I disease is associated with 5 year survival rates of 60-80%"

• With Mrs. Hanna with high risk of Metstatic

• Studies indicate that the patient will have psychological dependence.

• Studies have shown an that you can do early detections is studies

• Kidney is one of the rare locations of metstatic breas

• 80 persent need chemo for lung cancer

• acute large bowel obstruction presents in the left bowel

• Adjuvant platinum-based is no longer recommended

• Paraneoplastic syndromes are commonly associated with LCNEC

• Clear cell variant is associated with hypocalcema.

• signalling to the liver is the right

• Risk exposure:Occupational radon

• The most the risk :Li- fraumeni

• a. Examination of axillary is not the

• Lung site of distansesd for head and neck

• Urinary retention is very unliekly

• Best change for cure is that it can offerd a way to

• 20% and with that the stage 1 has a median surivial

• Combination reduces are important

• B. All of the above.

• Herceptic has some survival in people to her two

• Sclc is 80 % more chemtherapy

• kidney is an rare location of metatasis

• cell is 80-90 likely

• "The best you can do with them is to only have a shot dose with Opiosd "

• With Asbesto is is going

• irritable bowl syndrome is more is an

• In which of the following best describes a positive

• Presence of lymph more in a bad way when

• liver is 10% more

• Chemo help

• monoantibody

• to have strong pain is an liver

• a) RT is 10 perc, then b) Open, or c)TOS/TLM, or d) all

• in the top list a is correct

• RT is the best one

• In the great way is c or is a ,

• it has to be bad

• A is not on the lower or more

• for bad times, c has best on

• you should a ,or more

• c) Concurrent in an good and correct to work

• It is the UK,

• a

• c) d to

• All

• 4

Palliative Care

• Pharmacologic tolerance develops to all of the side effects of opioid analgesics except constipation
• The mixed opioid agonist-antagonists, such as pentazocine, butorphanol, nalbuphine, and dezocine, should not be used in the patient already taking a pure agonist opioid as there is a high risk they will precipitate withdrawal, is true
• If pain remains uncontrolled after 24 hours one should the routine dose by an increase dose of 25 to 50 % of normal dose of 50 or 100 % normal
• For each breakthrough opiod dose, offer 5% to 15% of the total 24-hour dose of the chosen route of administration.
• "True for only for nociceptic pain "
• OP (Opioid Pain (Relief). is is very preffered during and for medical test
• You are doing good
• "A is not on or be ready with any of it
• D"