Hematology Practice Questions PDF

HEMATOLOGY 1- A high reticulocyte count with low RBCs, low haemoglobin and low hematocrit indicate: a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Bleeding or hemolysis ***** c. Bone marrow failure d. Aplastic anemia _________________________________________ 2- Auer rods are characteristic for: a. Acute...

HEMATOLOGY 1- A high reticulocyte count with low RBCs, low haemoglobin and low hematocrit indicate: a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Bleeding or hemolysis ***** c. Bone marrow failure d. Aplastic anemia _________________________________________ 2- Auer rods are characteristic for: a. Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia***** b. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia c. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia d. Chronic Lymophoid Leukemia _________________________________________ 3- A lack of which of these will result in abnormally large red blood cells and a condition called megaloblastic anemia a. Oxygen b.Carbon dioxide c. Vitamin C d.Vitamin B - 12 and folic acid ***** _________________________________________ 4- Stage II Non – Hodgkin’s lymphoma is : a. lymph nodes affected on both sides of the diaphragm ; b. Only one group of lymph nodes affected anywhere in the body ; c. Lymphoma either in organs outside the lymphatic system or in the bone marrow d. Two or more groups of lymph nodes affected on the same side of the diaphragm *** _________________________________________ 5- Differential Diagnosis of Aplastic anemia should be done except : a. Acute leukemias b. Primery myelofibrosis c. Iron deficiency anemia*** d. Megaloblastic anemia _________________________________________ 6- What may be felt in the nech or under the arms in aperson with non - hodgkins lymphoma ? a. Pain and stiffness b. Muscle tension c. Excessive sweaing d. Swollen lymph nodes**** _________________________________________ 7- Hodgkins lymphoma can be except : a. Lymphocyte rich b. Follicular**** c. Nodular sclerosis d. Mixed cellularity _________________________________________ 8- In the breakdown of RBC bilirubin is : a. Oxidized to bilverdin b. Excreted**** c. Returned to the pool d. Reused by new red cell _________________________________________ 9- Stage IV Non - hodgkins lymphopma is : a. Two or more groups of lymph nodes affected on the same side of the diaphragm  b. Only one group of lymph nodes affected anywhere in the body c. Lymphoma either in organs outside the lymphatic system or in the bone marrow*** d. lymph nodes affected on both sides of the diaphragm _________________________________________ 10- Where does non - hodgkin lymphoma originate ? a. In the colon b. In the limbic system c. In the alimentary canal d. In the lymphatic system**** _________________________________________ 11- Stage Ill Non - hodgkins lymphopma is: a. lymph nodes affected on both sides of the diaphragm *****  b. Only one group of lymph nodes affected anywhere in the body c. Two or more groups of lymph nodes affected on the same side of the diaphragm d. Lymphoma either in organs outside the lymphatic system or in the bone marrow _________________________________________ 12- Megaloblastic anemia is suspected in anemic patients with : a. Microcytosis and pancytopenia b. Hypochromia and leukopenia c. Macrocytosis and pancytopenia**** d. Normochromia and thrombocytopenia _________________________________________ 13- lymphoma belongs to : a. Solid tumors b. Membranopathies c. Lymphoproliferative disease **** d. Myeloproliferative disease 14- Mature T cells marker is a. CD8 *** b. CD20 c. CD117 d. CD30 _________________________________________ 15- Which of the following is a possible sign or symptom of non - Hodgkin lymphoma? a. fever b. Night sweats c. All of the answers are possible signs or symptoms**** d. Fatigue _________________________________________ 16- The cells that carry out acquired immune response are a. Platelet b. Granulocyte Neutrophils c. B Lymphocytes **** d. Eosinophils _________________________________________ 17- Posthemorrhagic anemia can be: a. Acute and Chronic**** b. Regenerative c. Auoimmune haemolytic d. Deficiency _________________________________________ 18- Anemia by the color index can be: a. Hypochromic**** b.Microcytic c. Normocytic d.Regenerative _________________________________________ 19- For iron deficiency anemia is not right: a. Can cause neurological symptoms b. Treatment is iron supplements c. Is Hypochromic Microcytic anemia d. It is absorbed in duodenum and small intestine**** _________________________________________ 20- Diffuse large B cell lymphoma belongs to: a. Aggressive lymphoma*** b. Hodgkins lymphoma c. Very aggressive lymphoma d. Indolent lymphoma _________________________________________ 21- Reed-Sternberg cells are present: Select one a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma**** b. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma _________________________________________ 22- WHO Criteria for ET diagnosis include all except: a. Megakaryocyte proliferation in the bone marrow b. Not meeting the criteria of other myeloproliferative disorders c. Platelets count more than 450 000/cumm  d. Hemoglobin elevation more than 16.5 g/dl**** _________________________________________ 23- Which translocation is typical for Chronic myeloid leukemia: a. MLL-AF4 b. E2A-PBX1 c. PLM-RARA d. BRC-ABL**** _________________________________________ 24- If the patient has extremely low levels of B12 in the body , what could happen? a. Severe rages b. Liver cancer c. Stomach cancer d. Mental confusion and dementia*** _________________________________________ 25- Isoimmune hemolytic anemia is caused by: a. When antibodies from mother who is suffering from autoimmune haemolytic anemia passes fetus blood stream b. Transfusion of no compatible blood group**** c. Antibody is produced against foreign antigens, it can be chemical , virus , bacteria and so on d. When antibodies are produced against own erythrocytes _________________________________________ 26- Specific symptom of AML is a. Fatigue b. No specific symptoms**** c. Weight loss d. Fever _________________________________________ 27- Which of the following is a good prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukemia? a. B-lineage immunophenotype**** b. CNS involvement c. Age ˂ 1 d. A WBC ˃ 20,000 _________________________________________ 28- Primary lymphoid organs are: a. Thymus gland b. Bone marrow c. Both**** d. None of them _________________________________________ 29- A 60-year-old man presents with headaches and anaemia. Investigations reveal an IgM paraprotein of 30 g/L. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Waldenstrem macroglobilinemia**** b. Mycosis fungoides  c. Follicular lymphoma d. Burkitt’s lymphoma _________________________________________ 30- Erythropoietin is secreted by: a. Bone marrow b. Hupophysis c. Kidney**** d. Adrenal gland _________________________________________ 31- Granulocytes are all except: a. Basophill b. Platelet*** c. Eosinophill d. Segmented Neurophils _________________________________________ 32- Which of the following is a bad prognostic indicator in acute myeloid leukemia : a. Normal cytogenetics b. ˃3 clonal chromosomal abnormalities***  c. Rapid response to therapy d. No CNS involvement _________________________________________ 33- Mature B cells are: a. Plasma cell**** b. Cd4+ lymphocyte c. Mast cell d. Cd8+ lymphocyte _________________________________________ 34- Tear-drop shaped erythrocytes are characterstics for: a. Primary Myelofibrosis**** b. Thalassemia c. Multiple Myeloma d. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma _________________________________________ 35- Hiatus Leukemicus is typical for : a. Multiple myeloma b. Chronic Leukemias c. Myeloprolypherative disorders d. Acute leukemias*** _________________________________________ 36- What the WBC (leukocytes) indicates : a. Secrete a variety of growth factors essential for growth and repair of tissue, particularly connective tissue b.Pick up inhaled oxygen from the lungs and transport to the body’s tissues c. They release chemicals from their granules that destroy pathogens; they are also capable of phagocytosis , the monocyte , an agranular leukocyte, differentiates into a macrophage that then phagocytizes the pathogens ***** d.Control of platelet plug formation _________________________________________ 37- Progenitor cell for basophils is: a. Monoblast b. Lymphoblast c. Myeloblast**** d. Megakaryoblast _________________________________________ 38- M0 type of AML by FAB classification is: a. Acute promyelocytic leukemia b. Undifferentiated acute myeloblastic leukemia**** c. Myelomonocytic d. Megacarioblastic _________________________________________ 39- CML means a. All above b. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia**** c. Chronic Megacaryoblastic Leukemia d. Chronic Myeloblastic Leukemia _________________________________________ 40- Myloprolypherative disorders include: a. Essential Thrombocythemia for the platelets b.Polycythaemia ver ‘PRV’ in RBC c. Primary Myelofibrosis d.All above**** _________________________________________ 41- A person can develop iron-deficiency anemia despite eating food that contains adequate iron : a. True b. False _________________________________________ 42- Lymphocytosis can be caused by: a. Autoimmune disorders b. Myelodysplastic syndrome c. Acute viral infections*** d. Immune deficiency _________________________________________ 43- Non-Hodgkin lymphoma: a. Mixed cellularity b. Lymphocyte rich c. Follicular**** d. Nodular sclerosis _________________________________________ 44- In warm antibody haemolytic anemia antibodies are mostly: a. Ig E b. Ig G**** c. Ig D d. Ig M _________________________________________ 45- The hemoglobin types found in a normal adult are: a. A , A2 ; F**** b. A2 , F c. A , A2 , C d. S , A , F _________________________________________ 46- Stage I Non - hodgkins lymphopma is : a. Lymphoma either in organs outside the lymphatic system or in the bone marrow b. lymph nodes affected on both sides of the diaphragm c. Two or more groups of lymph nodes affected on the same side of the diaphragm d. Only one group of lymph nodes affected anywhere in the body****** _________________________________________ 47- Secondary lymphoid organs are: A. Lymph nodes B. Spleen C. All above D. Lymphoid tissues _________________________________________ 48- Mature T cells marker is : A. CD20. B. CD117. C. CD4. D. CD30. 49- Anemia due to deficiency of iron or vitamin B12 can be differentiated based on the examination of the blood cells: A. True. B. False. _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ LABORTATORY MEDICINE 1- Hyperglycemia. At what concentration of glucose can we talk about hyperglycemia? A. 4.89 mmol/L; B. 5.1 mmol/L; C. 3,5; D. ≥ 6.1mmol/L; _________________________________________ 2- Urea is a waste product formed in A. muscles B. liver  C. heart D. Kidneys _________________________________________ 3- Which test is the new gold standard for diagnosis of viral infections? A. viral antigen detection B. viral culture C. ELISA D. Nucleic acid testing (PCR) _________________________________________ 4- Reticulocytes are A. immature red cell that contain RNA B. immature monocytes that contain RNA C. immature lymphocytes that contain RNA D. immature eosinophils that contain RNA _________________________________________ 5- The most commonly ordered and most specific marker of heart damage which is positive within a few hours of damage and remains elevated for up to two weeks is A. Creatine Kinase B. Cardiac troponin C. AST D. Myoglobine _________________________________________ 6- What is pancytopenia? A. Decreased RBCs B. Decreased PLTS C. Decreased WBCs, RBCs and PLTS D. Decreased WBCs 34. _________________________________________ 7- The preferred initial test for thyroid disorders is : A. T4 test B. TSH test C. T3 test D. Free T4 _________________________________________ 8- Erythropoietin stimulates production of Select one: A. Granulocyte; B. Platelet C. Lymphocyte D. Red blood cell; _________________________________________ 9- Which dietary component(s) is/are needed for DNA synthesis, and thus greatly influence the production of red blood cells: A. Calcium; B. Vitamin B12 and folic acid; C. Protein; D. Iron; _________________________________________ 10- Which test is considered to be the most specific test for identifying iron deficiency anemia, unless infection or inflammation are present? Select one:  A. ESR B. CBC C. Ferritin D. Reticulocyte count 11- Anemia arises due to deficiency of: A. Iron; B. Folic acid; C. All of the above; D. Vitamin B12; _________________________________________ 12- Full Blood Count (FBC) - test evaluates: A. Kidney function; B. Infectious disease; C. Liver function; D. The general condition of the body, with pathological changes in the blood, requires additional studies; _________________________________________ 13- What parameters indicate anemia? A. RBC;  B. RBC, Hb, Hct, PLT; C. RBC, Hb, Hct; D. WBC; _________________________________________ 14- What you can be the cause? A. Clumps; B. Increase number of large PLT; C. Schistocytes or microcytic RBCs; D. EDTA-induce thrombocytopenia; _________________________________________ 15- T cells develop into several distinct type in: A. Spleen B. Bone marrow C. Thymus D. Lymph node _________________________________________ 16- Which additional parameters will help us make a more accurate diagnosis? A. Transferrin saturation,  B. Iron, serum C. Vitamin B12 D. Glucose concentration." E. C and D. _________________________________________ 17- How to calculate INR? A. (PT patient/PT control plasma) ISI. B. PT patient-PT control plasma. C. PT patient ISI. D. PT patient/PT control plasma. _________________________________________ 18- what is the INR? A. ACTIVATED PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME. B. Thrombin time. C. International normalized ratio. D. Prothrombin activity by index. _________________________________________ 19- about what pathology we can think?  A. Pernicious anemia. B. Iron deficiency anemia. C. Aplastic anemia. D. Hemolytic anemia. _________________________________________ 20- which of the following signifies anemia: select one A. A low hemoglobin level. B. A low platelet level. C. A low white blood cell count. D. A low sodium level. _________________________________________ 21- what parameters indicate anisocytosis: A. WBC. B. RDW. C. MCV. D. MCH. _________________________________________ 22- what is oligouria:  A. 780 ml/day. B. 2200 ml/day. C. Less than 500 ml/day. D. Less than 100 ml/day. _________________________________________ 23- MCV and RDW are indicating on pathology of: select one A. PLT. B. NEUTROPHILS. C. RBC. D. EOSINOPHILS. _________________________________________ 24- a chosen concentration (mg/L) of an antibiotic which defines whether a species of bacteria is susceptible or resistant to the antibiotic: select one A. A breakpoint. B. Cut off value.  C. Sensitivity. D. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). _________________________________________ 25- Variation in erythrocyte shape is called ? A. spherocytosis B. anisocytosis C. anisochromia D. poikolocytosis. _________________________________________ 26- In which phase of laboratory testing do the most errors occur ? A. postanalysis B. all are correct C. preanalysis. D. analysis _________________________________________ 27- The yellow color of urine is due to: A. transferin  B. hemoglobin C. urobilin. D. Bilirubin. _________________________________________ 28- Normal pH range for urine is: A. 5.4-7 B. 4.5-9 C. 4.6–8 D. 3.5-6 _________________________________________ 29- Which is the example of organism in BSL3? A. Staphylococcus B. HIV C. Ebola. D. TB. _________________________________________ 30- The mean and normal range of Hemoglobin for an adult male ? A. 15.7 ( 14.0-17.5 ) g / dL.  B. 13.0 ( 12.0-14.0 ) g / dL C. 13.0 ( 11.0-15.0 ) g / dL D. 17.0 ( 16.0-18.0 ) g / dL _________________________________________ 31- Plasma is about 45 % of the total blood volume? select one A. True. B. False. _________________________________________ 32- Patient with diabetes mellitus have urine with? select one A. Increased volume and decreased specific gravity. B. Decreased volume and decreased specific gravity. C. Decreased volume and increased specific gravity.  D. Increased volume and increased specific gravity. _________________________________________ 33- Select the statement about red blood cells that is incorrect: select one A. Mature red blood cells lack nuclei B. Red blood cells lack mitochondria C. Deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen. D. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin. _________________________________________ 34- The type of white blood cell that often arrives at the site of infection first , is a granulocyte , and contains granules that stain light purple is a ? select one A. Monocytes. B. Neutrophils.  C. Basophils. D. Eosinophils. _________________________________________ 35- Which is the example of organism in BSL 4 : A. Staphylococcus B. HIV. C. TB. D. Ebola. _________________________________________ 36- Normal value for INR in healthy people is ? A. 2.5 or below. B. 4.5 or below. C. 1.1 or below. D. 1.5 or higher. _________________________________________ 37- which test is used to screen for neural defects such as spina bifida ?  A. Hcg. B. AFP. C. progesterone. D. estradiol. _________________________________________ 38- Which pattern is characteristic for hyperthyroidism ? select one A. T3-normal, T4-normal, TSH-low. B. T3-high or normal, T4-high or normal, TSH-low. C. T3-high, T4-high, TSH-high. D. only T4-high. _________________________________________ 39- Positive results for both CCP antibody and RF, means ? select one A. most likely a patient has lupus. B. a patient has osteoarthritis. C. it is very likely that a patient has RA.  D. a patient does not have RA. _________________________________________ 40- In MTB testing culture Negative is reported after ? A. six weeks. B. four weeks. C. two weeks. D. one week. _________________________________________ 41- Normal range of hematocrit (Hct) for an adult male is ? a. 41-51% b. 61-71% c. 51-61% d. 71-81% _________________________________________ 42- Hematocrit (Hct) is ? a. the average concentration of HB in a given volume of packed red cell.  b. the ratio of the volume of erythrocytes to the whole blood. c. the content of haemoglobin inside a single red cell. d. the average volume of a single red cell. 43- Polyuria is ? a. production of more than 2000 ml of urine in 24 hrs. b. production of more than 1000 ml of urine in 24 hrs. c. production of more than 800 ml of urine in 24 hrs. d. production of more than 1500 ml of urine in 24 hrs. _________________________________________ 44- Shortened aPTT tests may be due to ? a. Von Willebrand disease. b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). c. lack of vitamin K. d. haemophilia A and B. _________________________________________ 45- The term primary hemostasis refers to ?  a. all answers are correct. b. platelet reactivity at the site of injury. c. the cascade of enzymatic reactions that results in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin monomers. d. all answers are wrong. _________________________________________ 46- Lymphopenia can be caused by ? a. acute viral infections. b. lymphocytic leukemia. c. HIV. d. lymphoma. _________________________________________ 47- the blood urea nitrogen or BUN test is primarily used ? a. to evaluate heart injury. b. to evaluate liver function. c. to evaluate kidney function. D. to rule out diabetes. _________________________________________ 48- Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) test evaluates ? select one  A. haemoglobin concentration over the past 6 monthes. b. haemoglobin concentration over the past 1 month. c. the average amount of glucose in the blood over the past 2 to 4 months. d. the average amount of glucose in the blood over the past 1 month. _________________________________________ 49- Concentration of antibiotic that inhibits the visible growth of an organisim in an in vitro system is ? a. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). b. a breakpoint. c. cut off value d. sensitivity. _________________________________________ 50- Mean cell haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is ? a. the average volume of a single red cell. b. the average concentration of Hb in a given volume of packed red cells.  c. the ratio of the volume of erythrocytes to that of the whole blood. d. the content (weight) of Hb inside a single red cell. _________________________________________ 51- Mean cell volume (MCV) is ? a. the average volume of a single red cell. b. the ratio of the volume of erythrocytes to that of the whole blood. c. the average concentration of Hb in a given volume of packed red cells. d. the content (weight) of Hb inside a single red cell. _________________________________________ 52- The mean normal range for platelet count is ? a. 311 (172-450) × 1012/L. b. 250 (150-350) × 109 /L. c. 311 (172-450) × 109/L. d. 250 (150-350) × 1012/L. _________________________________________ 53- The term secondary hemostasis refers to ? a. all answers are wrong.  b. all answers are correct. c. platelet reactivity at the site of vessel injury. d. the cascade of enzymatic reactions that results in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin monomers. _________________________________________ 54- Initial screening for coronary risk panel may involve ? A. only a LDL test and not a full lipid profile. b. only a single test for total cholesterol and not a full lipid profile. c. only a HDL test and not a full lipid profile. d. full lipid panel should be used. _________________________________________ 55- Reference intervals or "normal range" are defined as the range of values into which ? a. 100% of nondiseased ("normal") individuals will fall. b. 95% of nondiseased ("normal") individuals will fall. c. 75% of nondiseased ("normal") individuals will fall.  d. 50% of nondiseased ("normal") individuals will fall. _________________________________________ 56- Refractory periodontitis ? a. develops due to a complete remission after therapy, followed by recurrence of the disease as a result of reformation of plague, and calculus. b. periodontitis unresponsive to any treatment provided. _________________________________________ 57- Which is the lipid profile test ? a. creatinine. b. cholesterol total, HDL-cholesterol, LDL- cholesterol, VLDL-cholesterol, triglycerides. c. HbA1c. d. total bilirubin. _________________________________________ 58- fasting plasma glucose level more than 126 mg/dL (more than 7mmol/L) indicates ? a. indicates diabetes mellitus. b. is a normal value.  c. indicates prediabetes. d. indicates gestational diabetes in pregnant women. 59- the ability of a test to discriminate disease from no disease is described by ? a. positive predictive value. b. sensitivity and specificity of the test. c. specificity of the test. d. sensitivity of the test. _________________________________________ 60- Negative results for both CCP antibody and RF, means ? a. most likely a patient has lupus. b. a patient has osteoarthritis. c. it is less likely that the person has RA. d. it is very likely that a patient has RA. _________________________________________ 61- Prolonged aPTT tests may be due to ? a. extensive cancer. b. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). c. an acute phase reaction. d. Von Wilebrand disease. _________________________________________ 62- excretion of more than 4 g/day protein in urine is ? a. minimal proteinuria. b. heavy proteinuria. c. normal value. d. moderate proteinuria. _________________________________________ 63- "Schuffner's granules" are characteristics of ? a. malaria. b. megaloblastic anemia. c. iron deficiency anemia. d. pernicious anemia. _________________________________________ 64- a normal eGFR for adults is ? a. greater than 90 mL/min/1.73m2 b. greater than 70 mL/min/1.73m2 c. greater than 50 mL/min/1.73m2 d. greater than 35 mL/min/1.73m2 _________________________________________ 65- creatinine is a waste product produced by ? a. liver.  b. kidneys. c. muscles. d. heart. _________________________________________ 66- Fasting plasma glucose level < 100 mg/dl (< 5.6 mmol/L) ? a. is a normal value. b. indicates diabetes mellitus. c. indicates prediabetes. d. indicates gestational diabetes in pregnant women. _________________________________________ 67- healthy adults with no other risk factors for heart disease should be tested with a fasting lipid panel : a. there is no need for lipid testing in this population. b. once every four to six years. c. once every two years. d. once a year. _________________________________________ 68- In hypochromia : a. MCH and MCHC are usually decreased. b. MCH and MCHC do not change. c. MCH decreases but MCHC does not change. d. MCH and MCHC are usually increased. _________________________________________ 69- the mean and normal range for white blood cell count is : A. 11.5 (8.5-14.5) x 1012/L B. 11.5 (8.5-14.5) x 109/L C. 7.8 (4.4-11.3) x 109/L D. 7.8 (4.4-11.3) x 1012/L _________________________________________ 70- circle the correct answer : A. precipitation immunoassays use radioisotopes as labels. B. precipitation immunoassays provide the simplest method for antigens and antibodies to react with each other using inert particles as labels.  C. precipitation immunoassays provide the simplest method for antigens and antibodies to react with each other without involving the detection of any labels. D. precipitation immunoassays use inert particles as labels. _________________________________________ 71- In congenital viral infection : A. maternal IgA and IgM antibodies passively transfer across the placenta into the fetal circulation. B. maternal IgG antibodies do not passively transfer across the placenta into the fetal circulation. C. maternal IgM antibodies passively transfer across the placenta into the fetal circulation. D. maternal IgG antibodies passively transfer across the placenta into the fetal circulation. _________________________________________ 72- A very high level of ALT is frequently seen with : A. people with blocked bile ducts. B. liver cancer. C. cirrhosis. D. acute hepatitis. _________________________________________ 73- Gross hematuria is : A. presence of an increased number of red blood cells in urine visible to the naked eye. B. presence of free hemoglobin in urine. C. presence of 3 or greater red blood cells in urine per high-powered field. D. all answers are wrong. _________________________________________ 74- The presence of hypochromic and normochromic cells in the same film is called : A. spherocytosis. B. anisocytosis. C. anisochromia or dimorphic anemia.  D. poikolocytosis. _________________________________________ 75- Based on cytochemistry myeloblasts are positive for : A. glycogen. B. acid phosphatase. C. MPO. D. non specific esterase. _________________________________________ 76- coagulation basic tests. which parameters indicate intrinsic pathways : A. PT by quick method. B. fibrinogen. C. INR. D. aPTT. _________________________________________ 77- What the WBC (leukocytes) indicate : A. control of platelet plug formation. B. they release chemicals from their granules that destroy pathogens; they are also capable of phagocytosis. The monocyte an agranular leukocyte,  differentiates into a macrophage that then phagocytizes the pathogens. C. pick up inhaled oxygen from the lungs and transport it to the body's tissues. D. secrete a variety of growth factors essential for growth and repair of tissue. Particuraly connective tissue. _________________________________________ 78- Nocturnia is : A. excretion of more than 400 mL of urine at night with specific gravity