HEENT Review: Glaucoma, Otitis, Conjunctivitis

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Questions and Answers

A patient is diagnosed with glaucoma. What characteristic visual field defect is most commonly associated with this condition?

  • Central scotoma
  • Color vision loss
  • Peripheral vision loss (correct)
  • Metamorphopsia

When discussing glaucoma with a patient, which statement is most accurate regarding intraocular pressure (IOP)?

  • Elevated IOP is the direct cause of glaucoma in all patients
  • IOP only becomes relevant in closed-angle glaucoma
  • Normal IOP always excludes a diagnosis of glaucoma
  • Elevated IOP is a risk factor, but glaucoma can occur with normal IOP (correct)

Latanoprost is prescribed to manage a patient's glaucoma. How does this medication work?

  • Decreasing aqueous humor production
  • Constricting the pupil to improve drainage
  • Increasing trabecular meshwork outflow
  • Increasing uveoscleral outflow (correct)

Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis?

<p>Topical erythromycin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a recommended component of eyelid hygiene for managing blepharitis?

<p>Diluted baby shampoo scrubs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with mild otitis externa. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

<p>Topical ciprofloxacin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common bacterial pathogen associated with acute otitis media (AOM)?

<p>Streptococcus pneumoniae (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is diagnosed with acute otitis media. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment?

<p>Amoxicillin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 6-month-old infant is suspected of having acute otitis media. Which is the most appropriate management strategy?

<p>Immediate antibiotic treatment (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Increased pressure in the endolymphatic system is a key feature of which condition?

<p>Meniere's Disease (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve is primarily affected in Bell's palsy?

<p>Facial nerve (VII) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a recognized treatment for moderate to severe Bell's palsy?

<p>Steroids and antiviral medications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about Herpes ophthalmicus is incorrect?

<p>It is caused by HSV-1. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers ovulation?

<p>LH surge (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is known to cause amenorrhea?

<p>Hormonal contraceptives (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacteria are examples of beneficial vaginal flora?

<p>Corynebacteria and Lactobacilli (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with amenorrhea and chronic pelvic pain: Which is the most relevant diagnosis to consider?

<p>Endometriosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is used to treat endometriosis?

<p>Danazol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cell type is primarily associated with osteoporosis?

<p>Osteoclasts (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a first-line recommendation for treating osteoporosis?

<p>Weight-bearing exercise (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary characteristic of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

<p>Ascending infection of the upper female reproductive tract (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When testing for testosterone deficiency, at what time should the sample be collected?

<p>Morning (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tadalafil is an example of what?

<p>PDE-5 antagonist (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which agent should not be prescribed with Tadalafil?

<p>Nitrates (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following most likely contribute to a patient's decline in free testosterone?

<p>Opioid use (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following would be the most likely treatment for prostatis?

<p>Ciprofloxacin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents to you describing LUTS (Lower Unitary Tract Symptoms). Which agent would be best to prescribe?

<p>Alpha antagonists (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During menopause, what hormone change is characteristic due to reduced negative feedback?

<p>Increased FSH and LH (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A provider is providing detail about side effects that Hormone Replacement Therapy can cause. Which of these is least likely?

<p>Anemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which patient is HRT appropriate?

<p>Patient with night sweats newly entering menopause (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the key features of PCOS?

<p>Increased androgens with irregular cycles and insulin resistance. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a goal when treating PCOS?

<p>Increase regularity and limit androgenic factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can the provider try first in a patient presenting with dysmenorrhea and chronic pelvic pain?

<p>NSAIDS and OCPs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does ascending infection in the ovaries, fallopian tubes, or uterus indicate?

<p>Chlamydia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is needed to determine if primary or secondary testosterone deficient is caused?

<p>FSH and LH (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For acute bacterial prostatitis, what pathogen can cause this?

<p>Proteus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following bacterial species is most often the culprit with bacterial conjunctivitis?

<p>Staph Aureus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which agent would the provider use to treat Acute Conjuctivitis?

<p>Moxifloxacin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Meniere's and BPPV share which aspect?

<p>Vertigo (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Herpes Zoster Oticus (reactivation of varicella-zoster virus in CN VII) can be classified as what?

<p>Ramsey Hunt Syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can be expected in primary hypogonadism?

<p>High LH/FSH, low testosterone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is Glaucoma?

Progressive damage to the optic nerve often associated with increased intraocular pressure, leading to vision loss.

What is Latanoprost?

A prostaglandin analog that increases aqueous humor outflow, reducing intraocular pressure.

What is Conjunctivitis?

Inflammation of the conjunctiva, which can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or allergies.

What is Erythromycin?

A common first-line treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis, particularly in children.

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What is Blepharitis?

Inflammation of the eyelid margins, frequently caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

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What is Diluted Shampoo?

A recommended treatment for blepharitis involving gentle scrubbing of the eyelids.

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What is Otitis Media?

Infection of the middle ear, commonly caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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What is Otitis Externa?

Infection of the external auditory canal, often caused by bacteria such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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What is Amoxicillin-clavulanate?

First-line antibiotic for acute otitis media, especially if beta-lactamase production is suspected

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What is the increased pressure in the endolymphatic system?

A likely cause of Meniere's Disease, leading to vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss.

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What causes BPPV?

Calcium carbonate crystals are displaced in the semicircular canals.

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What is the Epley maneuver?

A positioning technique used to treat BPPV by repositioning calcium carbonate crystals.

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What is VII facial nerve?

A cranial nerve affected in Bell's Palsy, leading to facial paralysis.

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What is the treatment of moderate to severe Bell's Palsy?

Steroids and antivirals.

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What bacteria can cause PID (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease)?

Genital Infections : Chlamydia Trachomatis, Neisseria Gonorrhoeae.

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What is Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?

Inflammation of the vagina caused by overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria.

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What is dysmenorrhea?

A hallmark sign is caused by painful periods due to endometrial tissue.

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What is Testosterone deficiency?

Testosterone levels decreasing with fatigue, muscle loss.

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When to test for Testosterone Deficiency?

Taking a blood test as soon as you wake up.

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What is PDE-5 inhibitors?

Relax smooth muscles increasing blood flow to the penis.

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What is alpha blockers?

Helps with benign prostatic hyperplasia. Helps relax the prostate.

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What are Nitrates and PDE-5 inhibitors?

Used for those affected with Erectile Dysfunction. These should be avoided.

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What is 5-Alpha Reductase?

Finasteride Helps reduce Androgen systems from PCOS.

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What oral contraceptives that prevent ovulation?

They suppress gonadotropin release, leading to decreased LH and FSH, which prevents ovulation.

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What needs to happen when testing serum testoterone?

Has to be administered in the morning to be more accurate.

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PCOS

Estrogen and androgens are altered causing dysfunction with the ovaries.

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What is hematocrit & PSA?

Testosterone replacement may cause it. Monitor before taking!

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What is Tamsulosin?

Medication that treats BPH alpha 1 antagonist

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Study Notes

HEENT Review:

  • The content covers Glaucoma, Otitis (Externa and media), Conjunctivitis, Blepharitis, Meniere's/BPPV, and Bell's Palsy vs. Ramsay Hunt.

Glaucoma:

  • Glaucoma can occur even with normal IOP (Intraocular Pressure).
  • Elevated IOP is a risk factor, not necessarily the direct cause of glaucoma.
  • The pain may or may not be present in glaucoma patients.
  • Glaucoma is not reversible and tends to progress over time.
  • Loss of peripheral vision, central vision impairment, and blindness are associated with glaucoma.
  • Pathophysiology involves the slow death of the optic nerve.
  • Elevated IOP deforms the lamina cribrosa and blocks anterograde and retrograde axonal transport.
  • Excitotoxic amino acids like glutamate have been found to be increased in glaucomatous eyes.
  • A persistent increase in glutamate levels may cause retinal ganglion cell death.
  • Anterior compartment contains aqueous humor which is less viscous.
  • The vitreous humor in the posterior compartment is gel-like and formed by the ciliary body.
  • Elevated IOP needs controlled by managing aqueous humor production.
  • Open-angle glaucoma has an angle between the trabecular meshwork and the iris to promote flow.
  • Closed-angle glaucoma causes peripheral vision loss, becomes acute and is often painful.
  • Increase drainage and decrease production to control pressure.
  • Latanoprost is a prostaglandin agonist used to treat glaucoma.
  • Opening to the canal of Schlemm increases patency to improve outflow.
  • Improve outflow with Alpha-2 agonists
  • Timolol (beta blocker) alters the production of aqueous humor.
  • Beta-adrenergic blockers decrease aqueous fluid production; major side effects: heart block, cardiac failure, bronchospasm.
  • Cholinergic agonists improve trabecular outflow; side effects: miosis, brow ache, decreased vision.

Conjunctivitis:

  • Bacterial conjunctivitis presents with pus and generally starts in one eye.
  • Viral conjunctivitis may not have the same purulent exudate and can start in one or both eyes.
  • Allergic conjunctivitis generally affects both eyes.
  • Diluted shampoo is recommended to treat blepharitis.
  • Topical steroids should be avoided due to glaucoma or cataracts as a side effect.

Otitis:

  • Mild to moderate otitis externa is typically treated with a topical antibiotic.
  • S. pneumoniae is the most likely bacterial etiology of otitis media
  • First-line empiric treatment of uncomplicated otitis media includes Amoxicillin or Amoxicillin-Clavulanate.
  • Bacterial or viral load and eustachian-tube dysfunction are causes of otitis media

Meniere's Disease and Tinnitus:

  • Meniere's disease is likely etiology for increased pressure in the endolymphatic system.
  • BPPV (Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo) involves calcium carbonate crystals that displaced in the semicircular apparatus.
  • Meniere's often has some hearing loss; BPPV tends not to have hearing loss.
  • Epley maneuvers are for BPPV.
  • Tinnitus has a cognitive behavioural element involved.

Bell's Palsy and Ramsay Hunt Syndrome:

  • Bell's Palsy involves Cranial Nerve VII, the facial nerve.
  • Risk factors for Meniere's Disease include allergies, autoimmune disorders, and genetics, but not diabetes.
  • Moderate to severe Bell's Palsy treated with steroids and antiviral medications.
  • For Herpes ophthalmicus, the facial nerve is not involved; this is an incorrect statement
  • Ramsey Hunt has vesicular presentation with ear pain

Women's Health:

  • During menstrual cycle hypothalamus produces releasing hormones,
  • Anterior pituitary produces FSH and LH with the influence of GnRH.
  • Follicular growth is triggered by the production of FSH and LH
  • Ovaries contain follicles in different stages with flat layer of epithelial cells that grown into cuboidal which grows under the infuence of FSH
  • When LH kicks accelerates grown and releases oocyte
  • Theca and granulosa cells produce estrogen
  • Prostaglandins are a luteal outflow
  • surge of hormones during ovulation, fertilization occurs
  • Corpus luteum produces progesterone and estrogen
  • The surge decreases as the corpus luteum forms
  • The surge decrease are the corpus luteum hormones
  • In response to decreased estrogen and progesterone HCG) is produced by the conceptus (trophoblast cells keeps uterine lining a receptive place for embryo
  • Increased risk of 1st degree relatives with endometriosis.
  • Oral contraceptives is one of the treatments for endometriosis
  • Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is associated with increased aromatase and testosterone.
  • Aromatase is a conversion enzyme that makes estrogen from testosterone.
  • Plan-B (morning after pill) contains progestin which inhibits LH surge to inhibit ovulation and thickens cervical mucus secretions.
  • Increased estrogen and increased inhibin are not effects from Oral Contraceptives
  • Most oral contraceptives will decrease LH and FSH.
  • At ovulation a surge of LH (luteinizing hormone) causes ovulation.
  • Medications may cause amenorrhea (Non-menstruating) such as: Hormonal contraceptives, Anticoagulants, atypical antipsychotics, SSRIS, or chemotherapy

Male Reproductive Treatment & Diagnoses

  • Elevated LH & FSH with low free testosterone indicates primary testosterone deficiency, also known as primary hypogonadism
  • Opoid Use includes a secondary cause of TDS
  • First-line treatment of bacterial prostatitis is Fluroquinolone
  • Testosterone deficiency needs to be tested in the AM
  • Alpha Antagonist is a treatment for HPH
  • Gonorrhea and chlamydia are sexually transmitted infections can be treated with Doxycycline and Ceftriaxone
  • It is best to avoid nitrates w/ Cialis due to risk factors with HTN

Self Assesment Q&A:

  • A history of pulmonary embolism is a contraindication for HRT.
  • Elevated free testosterone levels hallmark of PCOS.
  • Chlamydia trachomatis is causative agents for pelvic inflammatory disease. ceftriaxone + doxycycline are standard outpatient regimen.
  • Menopause involves loss of ovarian sensitivity to gonadotropins.
  • Aromatase inhibitors increase testosterone production
  • Test levels are highest in the morning, peaking within the first three hours of waking.
  • Cialis exhibits its effect over longer duration.
  • Treat bacterial prostatitis with bactrim
  • At ovulation, a surge of LH (luteinizing hormone) causes ovulation.
  • Elevated free testosterone levels hallmark of PCOS.
  • Danozol reduce endometriosis.
  • With PID or tenderness or fever, ceftriaxone and doxycycline should be treated.
  • increased FSH is present during menopause
  • Thrombosis are common side effects
  • The combination of estrogen and progesterone could indicate MRT or HRT
  • Prostatitis is a condition for fluoroquinones to be made
  • Menieres' disease will have increased pressure in the endolymphatic system and cause hearing loss

Quick Guide to Bacteria Based Infection

  • PSA: Pseudomonas, S.aureus with swimmers ear.
  • SHM: S.pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzar, Moraxella catarrhalis. for otitis or ear media.
  • CGMP for caused by chalmydia.
  • Non Infections will be caused by Gardener's, SE asks PP.
  • STIS w/ chlmyida or gonorrhea are treated w/ Cef + Doxy
  • For youg boys with epipdimytiis think more gonorrhea or chalmydia while older folks are commonly cased by E. Coli

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