Podcast
Questions and Answers
A patient is diagnosed with glaucoma. What characteristic visual field defect is most commonly associated with this condition?
A patient is diagnosed with glaucoma. What characteristic visual field defect is most commonly associated with this condition?
- Central scotoma
- Color vision loss
- Peripheral vision loss (correct)
- Metamorphopsia
When discussing glaucoma with a patient, which statement is most accurate regarding intraocular pressure (IOP)?
When discussing glaucoma with a patient, which statement is most accurate regarding intraocular pressure (IOP)?
- Elevated IOP is the direct cause of glaucoma in all patients
- IOP only becomes relevant in closed-angle glaucoma
- Normal IOP always excludes a diagnosis of glaucoma
- Elevated IOP is a risk factor, but glaucoma can occur with normal IOP (correct)
Latanoprost is prescribed to manage a patient's glaucoma. How does this medication work?
Latanoprost is prescribed to manage a patient's glaucoma. How does this medication work?
- Decreasing aqueous humor production
- Constricting the pupil to improve drainage
- Increasing trabecular meshwork outflow
- Increasing uveoscleral outflow (correct)
Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis?
Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis?
Which of the following is a recommended component of eyelid hygiene for managing blepharitis?
Which of the following is a recommended component of eyelid hygiene for managing blepharitis?
A patient presents with mild otitis externa. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
A patient presents with mild otitis externa. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
What is the most common bacterial pathogen associated with acute otitis media (AOM)?
What is the most common bacterial pathogen associated with acute otitis media (AOM)?
A child is diagnosed with acute otitis media. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment?
A child is diagnosed with acute otitis media. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment?
A 6-month-old infant is suspected of having acute otitis media. Which is the most appropriate management strategy?
A 6-month-old infant is suspected of having acute otitis media. Which is the most appropriate management strategy?
Increased pressure in the endolymphatic system is a key feature of which condition?
Increased pressure in the endolymphatic system is a key feature of which condition?
Which cranial nerve is primarily affected in Bell's palsy?
Which cranial nerve is primarily affected in Bell's palsy?
Which of the following is a recognized treatment for moderate to severe Bell's palsy?
Which of the following is a recognized treatment for moderate to severe Bell's palsy?
Which statement about Herpes ophthalmicus is incorrect?
Which statement about Herpes ophthalmicus is incorrect?
What triggers ovulation?
What triggers ovulation?
Which medication is known to cause amenorrhea?
Which medication is known to cause amenorrhea?
Which bacteria are examples of beneficial vaginal flora?
Which bacteria are examples of beneficial vaginal flora?
A patient presents with amenorrhea and chronic pelvic pain: Which is the most relevant diagnosis to consider?
A patient presents with amenorrhea and chronic pelvic pain: Which is the most relevant diagnosis to consider?
Which of the following medications is used to treat endometriosis?
Which of the following medications is used to treat endometriosis?
Which cell type is primarily associated with osteoporosis?
Which cell type is primarily associated with osteoporosis?
Which of the following is a first-line recommendation for treating osteoporosis?
Which of the following is a first-line recommendation for treating osteoporosis?
What is a primary characteristic of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
What is a primary characteristic of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
When testing for testosterone deficiency, at what time should the sample be collected?
When testing for testosterone deficiency, at what time should the sample be collected?
Tadalafil is an example of what?
Tadalafil is an example of what?
Which agent should not be prescribed with Tadalafil?
Which agent should not be prescribed with Tadalafil?
Which of the following most likely contribute to a patient's decline in free testosterone?
Which of the following most likely contribute to a patient's decline in free testosterone?
Which of the following would be the most likely treatment for prostatis?
Which of the following would be the most likely treatment for prostatis?
A patient presents to you describing LUTS (Lower Unitary Tract Symptoms). Which agent would be best to prescribe?
A patient presents to you describing LUTS (Lower Unitary Tract Symptoms). Which agent would be best to prescribe?
During menopause, what hormone change is characteristic due to reduced negative feedback?
During menopause, what hormone change is characteristic due to reduced negative feedback?
A provider is providing detail about side effects that Hormone Replacement Therapy can cause. Which of these is least likely?
A provider is providing detail about side effects that Hormone Replacement Therapy can cause. Which of these is least likely?
For which patient is HRT appropriate?
For which patient is HRT appropriate?
What are the key features of PCOS?
What are the key features of PCOS?
What is a goal when treating PCOS?
What is a goal when treating PCOS?
What can the provider try first in a patient presenting with dysmenorrhea and chronic pelvic pain?
What can the provider try first in a patient presenting with dysmenorrhea and chronic pelvic pain?
What does ascending infection in the ovaries, fallopian tubes, or uterus indicate?
What does ascending infection in the ovaries, fallopian tubes, or uterus indicate?
What is needed to determine if primary or secondary testosterone deficient is caused?
What is needed to determine if primary or secondary testosterone deficient is caused?
For acute bacterial prostatitis, what pathogen can cause this?
For acute bacterial prostatitis, what pathogen can cause this?
Which of the following bacterial species is most often the culprit with bacterial conjunctivitis?
Which of the following bacterial species is most often the culprit with bacterial conjunctivitis?
Which agent would the provider use to treat Acute Conjuctivitis?
Which agent would the provider use to treat Acute Conjuctivitis?
Meniere's and BPPV share which aspect?
Meniere's and BPPV share which aspect?
Herpes Zoster Oticus (reactivation of varicella-zoster virus in CN VII) can be classified as what?
Herpes Zoster Oticus (reactivation of varicella-zoster virus in CN VII) can be classified as what?
What can be expected in primary hypogonadism?
What can be expected in primary hypogonadism?
Flashcards
What is Glaucoma?
What is Glaucoma?
Progressive damage to the optic nerve often associated with increased intraocular pressure, leading to vision loss.
What is Latanoprost?
What is Latanoprost?
A prostaglandin analog that increases aqueous humor outflow, reducing intraocular pressure.
What is Conjunctivitis?
What is Conjunctivitis?
Inflammation of the conjunctiva, which can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or allergies.
What is Erythromycin?
What is Erythromycin?
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What is Blepharitis?
What is Blepharitis?
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What is Diluted Shampoo?
What is Diluted Shampoo?
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What is Otitis Media?
What is Otitis Media?
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What is Otitis Externa?
What is Otitis Externa?
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What is Amoxicillin-clavulanate?
What is Amoxicillin-clavulanate?
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What is the increased pressure in the endolymphatic system?
What is the increased pressure in the endolymphatic system?
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What causes BPPV?
What causes BPPV?
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What is the Epley maneuver?
What is the Epley maneuver?
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What is VII facial nerve?
What is VII facial nerve?
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What is the treatment of moderate to severe Bell's Palsy?
What is the treatment of moderate to severe Bell's Palsy?
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What bacteria can cause PID (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease)?
What bacteria can cause PID (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease)?
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What is Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?
What is Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?
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What is dysmenorrhea?
What is dysmenorrhea?
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What is Testosterone deficiency?
What is Testosterone deficiency?
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When to test for Testosterone Deficiency?
When to test for Testosterone Deficiency?
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What is PDE-5 inhibitors?
What is PDE-5 inhibitors?
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What is alpha blockers?
What is alpha blockers?
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What are Nitrates and PDE-5 inhibitors?
What are Nitrates and PDE-5 inhibitors?
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What is 5-Alpha Reductase?
What is 5-Alpha Reductase?
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What oral contraceptives that prevent ovulation?
What oral contraceptives that prevent ovulation?
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What needs to happen when testing serum testoterone?
What needs to happen when testing serum testoterone?
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PCOS
PCOS
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What is hematocrit & PSA?
What is hematocrit & PSA?
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What is Tamsulosin?
What is Tamsulosin?
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Study Notes
HEENT Review:
- The content covers Glaucoma, Otitis (Externa and media), Conjunctivitis, Blepharitis, Meniere's/BPPV, and Bell's Palsy vs. Ramsay Hunt.
Glaucoma:
- Glaucoma can occur even with normal IOP (Intraocular Pressure).
- Elevated IOP is a risk factor, not necessarily the direct cause of glaucoma.
- The pain may or may not be present in glaucoma patients.
- Glaucoma is not reversible and tends to progress over time.
- Loss of peripheral vision, central vision impairment, and blindness are associated with glaucoma.
- Pathophysiology involves the slow death of the optic nerve.
- Elevated IOP deforms the lamina cribrosa and blocks anterograde and retrograde axonal transport.
- Excitotoxic amino acids like glutamate have been found to be increased in glaucomatous eyes.
- A persistent increase in glutamate levels may cause retinal ganglion cell death.
- Anterior compartment contains aqueous humor which is less viscous.
- The vitreous humor in the posterior compartment is gel-like and formed by the ciliary body.
- Elevated IOP needs controlled by managing aqueous humor production.
- Open-angle glaucoma has an angle between the trabecular meshwork and the iris to promote flow.
- Closed-angle glaucoma causes peripheral vision loss, becomes acute and is often painful.
- Increase drainage and decrease production to control pressure.
- Latanoprost is a prostaglandin agonist used to treat glaucoma.
- Opening to the canal of Schlemm increases patency to improve outflow.
- Improve outflow with Alpha-2 agonists
- Timolol (beta blocker) alters the production of aqueous humor.
- Beta-adrenergic blockers decrease aqueous fluid production; major side effects: heart block, cardiac failure, bronchospasm.
- Cholinergic agonists improve trabecular outflow; side effects: miosis, brow ache, decreased vision.
Conjunctivitis:
- Bacterial conjunctivitis presents with pus and generally starts in one eye.
- Viral conjunctivitis may not have the same purulent exudate and can start in one or both eyes.
- Allergic conjunctivitis generally affects both eyes.
- Diluted shampoo is recommended to treat blepharitis.
- Topical steroids should be avoided due to glaucoma or cataracts as a side effect.
Otitis:
- Mild to moderate otitis externa is typically treated with a topical antibiotic.
- S. pneumoniae is the most likely bacterial etiology of otitis media
- First-line empiric treatment of uncomplicated otitis media includes Amoxicillin or Amoxicillin-Clavulanate.
- Bacterial or viral load and eustachian-tube dysfunction are causes of otitis media
Meniere's Disease and Tinnitus:
- Meniere's disease is likely etiology for increased pressure in the endolymphatic system.
- BPPV (Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo) involves calcium carbonate crystals that displaced in the semicircular apparatus.
- Meniere's often has some hearing loss; BPPV tends not to have hearing loss.
- Epley maneuvers are for BPPV.
- Tinnitus has a cognitive behavioural element involved.
Bell's Palsy and Ramsay Hunt Syndrome:
- Bell's Palsy involves Cranial Nerve VII, the facial nerve.
- Risk factors for Meniere's Disease include allergies, autoimmune disorders, and genetics, but not diabetes.
- Moderate to severe Bell's Palsy treated with steroids and antiviral medications.
- For Herpes ophthalmicus, the facial nerve is not involved; this is an incorrect statement
- Ramsey Hunt has vesicular presentation with ear pain
Women's Health:
- During menstrual cycle hypothalamus produces releasing hormones,
- Anterior pituitary produces FSH and LH with the influence of GnRH.
- Follicular growth is triggered by the production of FSH and LH
- Ovaries contain follicles in different stages with flat layer of epithelial cells that grown into cuboidal which grows under the infuence of FSH
- When LH kicks accelerates grown and releases oocyte
- Theca and granulosa cells produce estrogen
- Prostaglandins are a luteal outflow
- surge of hormones during ovulation, fertilization occurs
- Corpus luteum produces progesterone and estrogen
- The surge decreases as the corpus luteum forms
- The surge decrease are the corpus luteum hormones
- In response to decreased estrogen and progesterone HCG) is produced by the conceptus (trophoblast cells keeps uterine lining a receptive place for embryo
- Increased risk of 1st degree relatives with endometriosis.
- Oral contraceptives is one of the treatments for endometriosis
- Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is associated with increased aromatase and testosterone.
- Aromatase is a conversion enzyme that makes estrogen from testosterone.
- Plan-B (morning after pill) contains progestin which inhibits LH surge to inhibit ovulation and thickens cervical mucus secretions.
- Increased estrogen and increased inhibin are not effects from Oral Contraceptives
- Most oral contraceptives will decrease LH and FSH.
- At ovulation a surge of LH (luteinizing hormone) causes ovulation.
- Medications may cause amenorrhea (Non-menstruating) such as: Hormonal contraceptives, Anticoagulants, atypical antipsychotics, SSRIS, or chemotherapy
Male Reproductive Treatment & Diagnoses
- Elevated LH & FSH with low free testosterone indicates primary testosterone deficiency, also known as primary hypogonadism
- Opoid Use includes a secondary cause of TDS
- First-line treatment of bacterial prostatitis is Fluroquinolone
- Testosterone deficiency needs to be tested in the AM
- Alpha Antagonist is a treatment for HPH
- Gonorrhea and chlamydia are sexually transmitted infections can be treated with Doxycycline and Ceftriaxone
- It is best to avoid nitrates w/ Cialis due to risk factors with HTN
Self Assesment Q&A:
- A history of pulmonary embolism is a contraindication for HRT.
- Elevated free testosterone levels hallmark of PCOS.
- Chlamydia trachomatis is causative agents for pelvic inflammatory disease. ceftriaxone + doxycycline are standard outpatient regimen.
- Menopause involves loss of ovarian sensitivity to gonadotropins.
- Aromatase inhibitors increase testosterone production
- Test levels are highest in the morning, peaking within the first three hours of waking.
- Cialis exhibits its effect over longer duration.
- Treat bacterial prostatitis with bactrim
- At ovulation, a surge of LH (luteinizing hormone) causes ovulation.
- Elevated free testosterone levels hallmark of PCOS.
- Danozol reduce endometriosis.
- With PID or tenderness or fever, ceftriaxone and doxycycline should be treated.
- increased FSH is present during menopause
- Thrombosis are common side effects
- The combination of estrogen and progesterone could indicate MRT or HRT
- Prostatitis is a condition for fluoroquinones to be made
- Menieres' disease will have increased pressure in the endolymphatic system and cause hearing loss
Quick Guide to Bacteria Based Infection
- PSA: Pseudomonas, S.aureus with swimmers ear.
- SHM: S.pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzar, Moraxella catarrhalis. for otitis or ear media.
- CGMP for caused by chalmydia.
- Non Infections will be caused by Gardener's, SE asks PP.
- STIS w/ chlmyida or gonorrhea are treated w/ Cef + Doxy
- For youg boys with epipdimytiis think more gonorrhea or chalmydia while older folks are commonly cased by E. Coli
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