endocrine and kidney diseases - zacchetti

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary product of the zona glomerulosa layer of the adrenal gland?

  • Androgens
  • Aldosterone (correct)
  • Cortisol
  • Estrogens

Which adrenal gland layer primarily produces cortisol?

  • Zona reticularis
  • Zona glomerulosa
  • Medulla
  • Zona fasciculata (correct)

What stimulates the release of ACTH?

  • Androgens
  • Cortisol
  • Adrenaline
  • Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) (correct)

What is the effect of cortisol on the release of ACTH and CRH?

<p>Inhibits the release (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the origin of the inner layer of the adrenal gland?

<p>Neuroectodermic (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the starting molecule for the synthesis of all steroidal hormones?

<p>Cholesterol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme is inhibited by grapefruit juice, potentially affecting drug metabolism?

<p>CYP enzymes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main effect of drugs that modulate aromatase activity?

<p>Block the production of estrogens (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What hormone is produced in the zona reticularis?

<p>Androgens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of StAR protein in steroid synthesis?

<p>Drives cholesterol into the mitochondria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition results from defects in StAR or CYP11A1?

<p>Lipoid congenital adrenal hyperplasia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary protein in the blood that binds to cortisol?

<p>Cortisol-binding globulin (CBG) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme converts cortisol to cortisone?

<p>11beta-HSD2 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which part of the cell are glucocorticoid receptors located?

<p>Cytoplasm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the element to which activated glucocorticoid receptors bind in the nucleus?

<p>Glucocorticoid Response Element (GRE) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary use of cortisol or hydrocortisone?

<p>Replacement therapy for adrenal insufficiency (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a long-acting glucocorticoid?

<p>Dexamethasone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to gradually reduce the dosage of glucocorticoids when discontinuing treatment?

<p>To allow the adrenal gland to recover (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common side effect of glucocorticoid use in children?

<p>Growth suppression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of using a drug with a first-pass effect when treating inflammatory bowel disease via rectal administration?

<p>Reduce systemic effects (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of dyslipidemia?

<p>Elevation of plasma cholesterol, especially LDL and triglycerides (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Statins primarily work by blocking which enzyme?

<p>HMG-CoA Reductase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common effect of statins on LDL receptors?

<p>Up-regulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statins was the first to be discovered?

<p>Mevastatin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statin was withdrawn from the market due to causing a high number of rhabdomyolysis cases?

<p>Cerivastatin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common side effect associated with statin use?

<p>Muscle problems such as myopathy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a hypocholesterolemic agent?

<p>Insulin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary use of fibrates?

<p>Lowering triglycerides (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Ezetimibe lower cholesterol?

<p>Blocking the absorption of cholesterol in the GI tract (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bempedoic acid inhibits cholesterol synthesis by acting on which enzyme?

<p>Adenosine triphosphate-citrate lyase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect is associated with Bempedoic acid?

<p>Tendon rupture (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main mechanism of action of PCSK9 inhibitors?

<p>Decreasing LDL receptor degradation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the route of administration for Inclisiran?

<p>Subcutaneous (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What describes "hypertrophic obesity"?

<p>Enlarged fat cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the main issues involved in obesity?

<p>Endocannabinoids increase in appetite (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately what percentage of the kidney's ultrafiltrate is reabsorbed?

<p>99% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of the body's oxygen intake is consumed by the kidneys?

<p>7-10% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the approximate cut-off size (in kDa) for molecules to be filtered by the kidneys?

<p>30 kDa (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The reabsorption of water in the proximal convoluted tubule is described as:

<p>Isotonic (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Blocking transporters in the proximal tubule would result in what effect?

<p>Strong diuretic and toxic effect (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water?

<p>Ascending limb (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of diuretics acting before the collecting duct?

<p>Potassium loss (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of aquaporins, if present, with an antidiuretic effect?

<p>Highly concentrated urine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a possible consequence of concentrating proteins too much in the tubule?

<p>Protein precipitation and tubule damage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The energy required for transport in the nephron is produced by which mechanism?

<p>Na/K-ATPase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which specific Na/K-ATPase subtype is highly expressed in the kidneys?

<p>ATP1A1 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of diuretics if there is no net elimination of sodium followed by chloride?

<p>Aquaretic effect (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What led to the discovery of chlorothiazide?

<p>Research related to sulfanilamide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do osmotic diuretics do?

<p>Inhibit the reabsorption of water (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where in the nephron do loop diuretics act?

<p>Loop of Henle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the target of thiazide diuretics?

<p>Na/Cl symport (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant effect of acetazolamide, other than diuresis?

<p>Metabolic acidosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common indication for osmotic diuretics?

<p>Edema (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A key characteristic of the Na/K/Cl symporters is that they have:

<p>Ototoxicity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common usage of potassium-sparing diuretics?

<p>To correct hypokalemia caused by other diuretics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is composed of which two types of cells?

<p>Macula densa and JG cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

<p>To secrete renin and control blood pressure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is renin's direct effect on angiotensinogen?

<p>It cleaves angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the RAAS system, what converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II?

<p>ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where is ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) most highly expressed?

<p>Lungs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary effect of angiotensin II?

<p>Vasoconstriction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of aldosterone in the RAAS system?

<p>Increased sodium and water reabsorption (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What stimulates renin secretion from juxtaglomerular cells?

<p>Beta-1 adrenergic stimulation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does increased sodium chloride at the macula densa have on renin secretion?

<p>Decreases renin secretion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where is angiotensinogen primarily secreted from?

<p>The liver (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following can increase angiotensinogen production?

<p>Inflammations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors?

<p>Block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What additional effect is produced by the inhibition of ACE?

<p>Inhibition of bradykinin degradation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors?

<p>Hypotension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of blocking the AT1 receptor?

<p>Vasodilation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of women over 50 are estimated to experience osteoporosis-related fractures in their lifetime?

<p>50% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of osteoporosis?

<p>Clinically silent until a fracture occurs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the estimated global population affected by osteoporosis?

<p>Over 200 million (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT typically associated with an increased risk of osteoporosis?

<p>High bone mass density (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides calcium and vitamin D, what type of exercise is important for osteoporosis prevention?

<p>Muscle-strengthening exercise (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to prescription guidelines, alendronate belongs to which class of agents?

<p>First-line agents (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which agent is typically reserved for women with a very high fracture risk or when other therapies have failed?

<p>Teriparatide (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the FRAX score take into account besides bone mass density?

<p>Weight and height (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does trabecular bone compare to cortical bone in terms of metabolic activity?

<p>Much more dynamic and metabolically active (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What cells are responsible for bone resorption?

<p>Osteoclasts (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cytokine is produced by osteoblasts and activated T cells in the bone marrow?

<p>RANKL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of the variance in peak bone mass is estimated to be determined by genetics?

<p>80% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of estrogen deficiency on bone cells?

<p>Increased expression of RANKL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main effect of parathyroid hormone (PTH) on serum calcium levels?

<p>Increases calcium levels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is NOT typically checked before prescribing zoledronic acid?

<p>High blood pressure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which condition is long-term treatment with bisphosphonates associated with transverse stress fractures?

<p>Low bone turnover (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication use is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

<p>Excessive Thyroxine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is "hormonal disruptors" related to when referring to osteoporosis?

<p>Molecules that alter hormone activity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should clinicians offer to women with known osteoporosis?

<p>Pharmacological treatment (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a glucocorticoid treatment include to prevent osteoporosis?

<p>Protective measures against osteoporosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the action of alendronate?

<p>Inhibits osteoclast activity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Alendronate should be taken with a large glass of water at least 30 minutes before eating in the morning because:

<p>Is toxic to the esophagus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a possible side effect of alendronate?

<p>Osteonecrosis of the jaw (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is described as a monoclonal antibody affecting the RANKL mechanism?

<p>Denosumab (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does salmon calcitonin compare to human calcitonin?

<p>More potent and longer half-life (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what specific case is Denosumab also approved?

<p>Approved for treatment of glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action characterizes Romosozumab?

<p>It blocks sclerostin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vitamin aids in calcium absorption.

<p>Vitamin D (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which group may Raloxifene be most useful?

<p>Younger postmenopausal women without severe osteoporosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What deficiency can vasopressin be used to treat?

<p>Vasopressin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a disadvantage of using arginine vasopressin (ArgVP)?

<p>Vasoconstriction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structural modification gives desmopressin (DDAVP) its advantages over vasopressin?

<p>D-Arginine substitution (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which route of administration for desmopressin assures better bioavailability?

<p>Intranasal (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A warning sign that the dosage of desmopressin may be too high is:

<p>Weight gain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs is both a V1 and V2 agonist?

<p>Terlipressin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Vaptans, antagonists of vasopressin receptors, increase:

<p>Renal-free water excretion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is FDA-approved for polycystic kidney disease?

<p>Tolvaptan (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common side effect related to intravenous administration of hydralazine:

<p>Tachycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A frequent side effect of minoxidil that has been exploited for another use is:

<p>Hypertrichosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A common side effect of diazoxide is:

<p>Hyperglycemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the half-life of sodium nitroprusside when administered intravenously?

<p>2 minutes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Uricosuric agents are prescribed to increase uric acid excretion in cases of:

<p>Gout (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common recommendation when using uricosuric agents?

<p>Hydration and dilute urine production (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common treatment for UTIs?

<p>Macrodantin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Glucocorticoids

Hormones mainly produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex, influencing transcriptional programs and inducing cells to produce adrenaline and catecholamines.

Neuroectodermic origin

The adrenal gland's inner layer originates from this, containing cells that differentiate into neurons when NGF is added in culture.

Zona glomerulosa

Outer layer of adrenal gland producing aldosterone

Zona fasciculata

Middle layer of the adrenal cortex mainly producing cortisol

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Zona reticularis

Innermost layer of adrenal cortex that mainly produces androgens

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Biosynthesis of Steroid Hormones

The process by which steroid hormones are synthesized, starting with cholesterol and involving enzymes like oxidases and reductases.

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ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic Hormone)

Stimulates the adrenal cortex to release cortisol and has an atrophic effect on the zona fasciculata if missing.

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Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone (CRH)

A small releasing hormone that stimulates the release of ACTH from the anterior pituitary gland.

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Negative Feedback Mechanism

Cortisol blocks the secretion of ACTH and CRH.

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Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal (HPA) Axis

A system where hypothalamic release of CRH stimulates pituitary ACTH release, influencing adrenal cortisol production, modified by neurotransmitters and stress.

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Central Activity Override

Can override normal feedback, activating glucocorticoid release through stress and various drugs.

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Cortisol's Feedback Role

Able to inhibit immune system activity to restore homeostasis.

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Replacement therapy

Following the normal rhythm of endogenous glucocorticoids.

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Melanocortin 2 Receptor (MC2)

The adrenal gland receptor which is coupled to G-proteins and works by increasing cAMP to increase the synthesis of steroids.

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StAR Protein

Located in the mitochondria to drive cholesterol towards steroid production and is increased in cAMP.

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CYP11A1

First enzyme in the steroid production process which is increased by ACTH.

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Lipoid Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

A condition characterized by increased ACTH and adrenal gland hyper-activation due to missing feedback with the cells accumulating cholesterol

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Cortisol Binding Globulin (CBG)

A plasma protein that is used to bind cortisol.

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Steroid Recpetors

Intracellular receptors responsible for the transcription of different steroids within the body.

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Glucocorticoids

Enzymes that modulate the expression of transcription factors that are indeed acting on targets

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Dyslipidemia

Elevation of plasma cholesterol, particularly LDL and triglycerides, contributing to arteriosclerosis.

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Primary dyslipidemia

Genetic dyslipidemia.

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Secondary dyslipidemia

Dyslipidemia caused by lifestyle factors like diet and sedentary behavior.

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Statins

Drugs that inhibit HMG-CoA Reductase, lowering LDL cholesterol by up-regulating LDL receptors.

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Statin Effects

Inhibition of liver cholesterol synthesis, increase in HMG-CoA Reductase and LDL receptor levels, and increased clearance of lipoproteins.

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Statin Side Effects

Muscle problems (myositis, rhabdomyolysis), liver enzyme elevations, increased diabetes risk, CNS effects.

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Resins

Non-systemic drugs that block bile acid entry into hepatic circulation, increasing cholesterol use by the liver.

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Fibrates

Drugs mainly for high triglycerides that activate PPARalpha to reduce triglycerides and increase LDL clearance/HDL secretion.

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Niacin

Reduces triglycerides, lowers LDL-C, and increases HDL-C, but with side effects like flushing and GI issues.

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Ezetimibe

Blocks cholesterol absorption in the GI tract by inhibiting the NPC1L1 transporter, lowering LDL-C.

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Bempedoic acid

Inhibits adenosine triphosphate-citrate lyase, reducing cholesterol synthesis in the liver.

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PCSK9 Inhibitors

Monoclonal antibodies that block PCSK9, increasing LDL receptors and reducing cholesterol.

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Inclisiran

Modified RNA interference molecule that decreases PCSK9 expression, given subcutaneously twice a year.

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Amphetamines

Drugs that act on catecholaminergic systems to cause weight loss via decreased appetite & increased activity.

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Orlistat

Blocks fat absorption in the intestine, reducing fat-soluble vitamin absorption and causing GI side effects.

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Diuretics

Drugs designed to increase urine flow, primarily by promoting sodium and chloride excretion which is followed by water.

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Ultrafiltration

The kidney's process of filtering blood to remove waste and reabsorb essential substances.

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Proximal Convoluted Tubule Role

The main issue in this location is the reabsorption of sodium, followed by water and other solutes.

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SGLT2 Inhibitors

Molecule that blocks the reuptake of glucose in the proximal tubule, reducing blood sugar levels.

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Loop of Henle's Function

Nephron segment with a descending limb permeable to water and an ascending limb impermeable to water, affecting urine concentration.

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Impaired Hypoosmotic Pre-Urine

If this process is impaired, the ability to dilute urine is decreased.

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Sodium Reabsorption Blockage

A diuretic effect and potassium loss may occur if these are blocked.

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Aldosterone's Role

Hormone that increases sodium reabsorption in the collecting duct.

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Aquaporins' Function

Water channel proteins regulating water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.

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Non-Specific Transport

In the tubules, the mechanisms of transport that are not highly specific, which can produce reabsorption or active secretion of small organic molecules, including drugs.

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Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

The kidneys' ability to maintain a stable glomerular filtration rate despite changes in blood pressure.

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Diuretics Definition

Substances that can increase urine flow, but their effect is useful only if there is a net elimination of Na+ followed by Cl-.

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Osmotic Diuretics

Substances that remain in the pre-urine creating an osmotic resistance to the reabsorption of water.

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Acetazolamide

The class of diuretics discovered based on the sulfanilamide effect, which produces metabolic acidosis, diuresis, and alkalinization of the urines.

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Na/K/Cl symport (NKCC-2) Inhibitors

These diuretics inhibit the reabsorption of 25% of the sodium at the kidney. The prototypes are Furosemide, Bumetanide, and Torsemide

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Thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics

This diuretics is able to reduce calcium and uric acid elimination which can be useful if we do not want to have the loss of calcium in certain patients

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Renal Na+ channels Inhibitors

These inhibitors of renal Na+ channels are K+-sparing diuretics and they inhibit the ENaC. The drugs are Amiloride and Triamterene

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Aldosterone antagonists

Also known as potassium-sparing, it acts at the level of the intracellular receptors for aldosterone, inhibiting its mineralocorticoid effect, hence reducing all the activities that are present in the cell that increase the reuptake of sodium .

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Natriuretic peptides

The effect of certain natriuretic peptides stimulating natriuresis by acting on the physiological atrial or brain-derieved natriuretic peptides

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Renin-Angiotensin System (RAS)

The system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body.

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Angiotensinogen

A protein in the blood that is cleaved by renin to form angiotensin I.

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Angiotensin I

A decapeptide formed from angiotensinogen by the action of renin.

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Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE)

An enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

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Angiotensin II

An octapeptide with vasoconstrictor properties and triggers aldosterone release.

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Vasoconstriction

A potent vasoconstrictor that raises blood pressure.

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Aldosterone

A steroid hormone released from the adrenal cortex that promotes sodium and water reabsorption.

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Sodium and Water Reabsorption

The process where sodium and water are returned to the bloodstream by the kidneys.

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Renin secretion

Juxtaglomerular cells (or granular cells) in kidney

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PGE2 and Renin Release

COX2-mediated prostaglandin production.

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Feedback Control of GFR

The macula densa senses the increase of NaCl in the distal tubule and secretes a paracrine vasopressor which acts on the afferent arteriole to reset GFR

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ACE Inhibitors

Drugs directly inhibiting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway.

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Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs)

Drugs that block the receptors for angiotensin II.

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Renin Inhibitors

Drugs that directly inhibit the action of renin.

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Epidemiology

The study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified populations.

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Osteoporosis

A metabolic bone disease characterized by low bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration of bone tissue.

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Bisphosphonates

Antiresorptive agents that inhibit bone resorption, increasing bone mineral density and decreasing fracture risk.

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Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs)

Medications like raloxifene that modulates estrogen receptors, preventing osteoporosis.

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Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)

A hormone that increases serum calcium levels by affecting bone, kidney, and intestine.

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Sclerostin

A glycoprotein secreted by osteocytes that inhibits bone formation.

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Romosozumab

Antibody that inhibits sclerostin, increasing bone formation and decreasing bone resorption.

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RANK/RANKL Mechanism

The activation of osteoclasts through the interaction between RANK ligand on osteoblasts and RANK receptor on osteoclasts.

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Osteoprotegerin (OPG)

A soluble decoy receptor that inhibits RANK-RANKL interaction, reducing osteoclast differentiation.

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Denosumab

An antibody that blocks RANKL.

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FRAX Score

Used to predict fracture risk based on bone density and other factors like age, weight, and smoking status.

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Trabecular Bone

Dynamic bone that is metabolically active and sensitive to changes in bone remodeling balance.

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Trabecular Bone Score (TBS)

A measure that gives information about the dynamics of the osteoporotic process.

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Osteoclasts

Cells responsible for bone resorption.

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Osteoblasts

Cells responsible for bone formation.

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Lack of Gonadal Hormones

Hormones that accelerate bone loss in women after menopause.

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Osteomalacia

Condition in which the bones are soft due to a reduced proportion of mineral composition relative to organic material content.

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Effect of PTH

Increase in serum calcium levels, decreased calcium excretion from the kidney, and increased renal production of vitamin D.

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Peak Bone Mass

A condition in which bone mass peaks around the third decade of life and slowly decreases afterward.

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"Hormonal Disruptors"

Molecules which somehow alter the activity of estrogen hormones

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Risedronate

A bisphosphonate drug used to treat osteoporosis.

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Zoledronic acid

A bisphosphonate that it can be given once yearly via intravenous infusion and has a long term elimination half life

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Strontium Ranelate

It reduces the risk of spine and non-vertebral fractures.

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Alendronate

Bisphonate medication that can cause esophageal or oral irritation if not taken properly

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Vasopressin

A hormone important in central diabetes insipidus, where a deficiency causes excessive urine production. It acts as a replacement therapy to reduce urine output.

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Desmopressin (DDAVP)

A modified vasopressin with increased affinity for V2 receptors (reducing vasoconstriction) and prolonged activity due to deamination of terminal cysteine.

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Terlipressin

A vasopressin analog used for V1 activity, especially in septic shock, to support blood pressure when catecholamines are insufficient.

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Iatrogenic SIADH

Medications can cause this by interfering with vasopressin secretion, particularly psychotropic drugs like neuroleptics and antidepressants.

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Uricosuric Agents

Drugs that increase uric acid excretion to treat hyperuricemia and gout, but can also cause kidney stones.

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Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors

Medications (not uricosuric) that reduce uric acid production by inhibiting xanthine oxidase to treat gout.

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Antihypertensive Drugs

Commonly used drugs for severe resistant hypertension and hypertensive crises.

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Drugs and Dialysis

When undergoing dialysis, the changes in the drugs' properties depend on whether the drug is removed during dialysis.

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Minoxidil

A vasodilator that activates potassium channels to inhibit smooth muscle contraction, used for severe hypertension and baldness.

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Probenecid

Competitive inhibitor of penicillin excretion, prolonging its half-life and acting as a uricosuric agent.

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Sodium Bicarbonate

The attachment of the bacteria to the mucosa impaired by the PH

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Nitrofurantoin

This drug gained attention because it is very effective against bacteria while concentrating in levels in the urine

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Study Notes

Vasopressin

  • Vasopressin is important in central diabetes insipidus as replacement therapy for vasopressin deficiency.
  • Vasopressin deficiency can result in the production of 10-15 L/day of urine, leading to dehydration and hypokalemia.
  • LysVP (lysine vasopressin, derived from pigs) can be used instead of ArgVS (arginine vasopressin, derived from humans).
    • Acts on V1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction.
    • Has a short half-life.
  • Desmopressin (DDAVP) is a modified vasopressin with two modifications:
    • D-Arg causes higher affinity for the V2 receptors without affecting V1, almost eliminating vasoconstriction.
    • Terminal cysteine is deaminated, increasing vasopressin's stability and prolonging its activity.
  • Arginine Vasopressin can be used in septic shock to increase the pressure effect of catecholamines (norepinephrine).
  • DDAVP (Desmopressin) can be used in diabetes insipidus of central origin, but not in cases originating in the kidney due to lithium toxicity.
  • Desmopressin can distinguish between nephrogenic and central diabetes insipidus.
  • Desmopressin can be used when there is inadequate vasopressin secretion.
  • Desmopressin can be administered intranasally or sublingually with different doses.
  • It can be used for nocturnal enuresis (intranasal) and bleeding disorders.
  • Intranasal administration has better bioavailability, while sublingual requires higher doses.
  • Administration to the mucosa of the mouth is being experimented with using modified patches inspired by octopus suckers to increase permeation.
  • Desmopressin side effects include headaches, stomach pain, sickness, and running/bleeding nose (due to vasomotor activity).
  • At high local concentrations, desmopressin can involve V1 receptors in the intranasal mucosa.
  • Desmopressin can cause dizziness and weight gain due to water retention.
  • Overdosage can lead to water intoxication.
  • Systemic V1 receptor effects are valid only for vasopressin, not desmopressin.

Terlipressin

  • This is a version of vasopressin that acts as both a V1 and V2 agonist.
  • It is used mainly for V1 activity in conditions like septic shock, to support blood pressure when catecholamines are insufficient.

V2 Antagonists

  • Vasopressin receptor antagonists, particularly for V2 receptors, are called aquatics.
  • Aquatics increase renal-free water excretion, unlike diuretics that excrete sodium or sodium and water.
  • Used for hyponatremia and hypo-osmolality, especially with excessive vasopressin secretion.
  • Loop diuretics can mimic the aquaretic effect but require appropriate salt intake.

Vaptans

  • These include Mozavaptan, Tolvaptan, Conivaptan, Lixivaptan, Nelivaptan and Relcovaptan.
  • These are FDA-approved for hypervolemic and euvolemic hyponatremia.
  • Tolvaptan is used for polycystic kidney disease and was approved in 2018.
  • Research into V1 receptor antagonists for CNS effects was halted.
  • Antagonists for V1A receptors are being explored for vasomotor issues like Raynaud’s disease.

Other Drugs Affecting Vasopressin

  • Drugs that interfere with vasopressin secretion include psychotropic drugs, neuroleptics, antidepressants, and Vinca alkaloids.
  • NSAIDs also interfere with vasopressin agonists.
  • Aquaporin agonists have no reason to be administered as the wild-type protein is already at its highest activity.
  • Aquaporin antagonists are in preclinical development.

Antihypertensive Drugs

  • Used for severe-resistant hypertension and hypertensive crises.

Hydralazine

  • Used in severe or resistant essential hypertension, especially during hypertensive crises.
  • Can be given orally or intravenously.
  • May involve potassium channels in arterial vasodilation.
  • Causes reduction in peripheral resistance with baroreceptor activation.
  • Beta-blockers can help manage baroreceptor reflexes.
  • Can cause tachycardia, increased contractility, increased renin, and hydrosaline retention.
  • Does not cause strong orthostatic hypotension.
  • Administered orally and undergoes a first-pass effect.
  • Side effects include tachycardia and hypotension (related to IV administration), “steal of blood flow” at the coronary level, and immunological reactions/peripheral neuropathies (sensitive to vitamin B6 administration).

Minoxidil

  • Vasodilator used orally for severe or resistant hypertension.
  • Activates potassium channels, causing smooth muscle relaxation.
  • Causes a reduction in peripheral resistance (similar to hydralazine).
  • Frequent side effect: hypertrichosis.
  • Can cause ECG changes and has a black box warning for pericardial effusion/cardiac tamponade.
  • Minoxidil is administered gradually, and diuretics/beta-blockers can help manage hydrosaline retention/tachycardia.
  • May cause cardiac ischemia and reduced glucose tolerance.

Diazoxide

  • Strong drug given orally or intravenously for acute or severe hypertension.
  • Potassium channel activator that inhibits insulin secretion.
  • Can cause hyperglycemia (50% of patients).
  • Use for excessive insulin secretion (insulinomas or congenital hyperinsulinemia).
  • May produce hydrosaline retention, myocardial ischemia, and cerebral ischemia (hypotension).

Sodium Nitroprusside

  • Molecule of cyanide with iron and a nitric oxide donor, metabolized to NO.
  • Used IV in acute hypertensive crises to produce rapid and controlled hypotension.
  • Activates guanylate cyclase in smooth muscles, causing vasodilation.
  • Affects both arteries and veins, reducing peripheral resistance and preload.
  • Reduces oxygen consumption and can be used in myocardial infarction.
  • Side effects include hypotension and cyanogenesis (overdose).
  • Antidotes for cyanide poisoning: hydroxocobalamin, sodium thiosulfate, and sodium nitrate.
  • Can cause methemoglobinemia and non-specific side effects like nausea, asthenia, dizziness, and psychosis.

Uricosuric Agents

  • Increase uric acid excretion for hyperuricemia and gout.
  • Hyper-uricosuria can produce kidney stones.
  • Hydration and diluted urine are important.
  • Some uricosuric agents interfere with other drugs' excretion.

Gout Treatment

  • Lifestyle re-evaluation is very important.
  • Xanthine oxidase inhibitors reduce uricosuric acid by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase.
  • Allopurinol and oxypurinol (for patients with poor kidney function) are examples.
  • Febuxostat is another xanthine oxidase inhibitor.
  • Benzbromarone was withdrawn due to hepatotoxicity.

Febuxostat

  • Xanthine oxidase inhibitor, considered more potent and effective than allopurinol.

Probenecid

  • Uricosuric agent that competes with penicillin excretion, prolonging penicillin's half-life.
  • Interferes with the organic anion transporter (OAT).
  • Can interfere with penicillins, weak acids, NSAIDs, methotrexate, zidovudine, and lorazepam.

Rasburicase

  • Recombinant urate oxidase given parenterally to reduce uricosuric acid in hyperuricemia (e.g., tumor lysis syndrome).
  • Half-life is 8 hours; hypersensitivity reactions may occur.
  • Can produce hemolysis in G6PD deficiency.

Pegloticase

  • Pegylated uricase given intravenously every two weeks.

Drugs with Uricosuric Properties

  • Include amlodipine, losartan, atorvastatin, and fenofibrate.
  • Losartan can inhibit URAT1 (transporter).

Drugs with Anti-Uricosuric Action

  • Loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics produce hyperuricemia.

URAT1 (SLC22A12)

  • Specific urate transporter involved in uric acid reabsorption.
  • SNPs in URAT1 might explain some cases of hyperuricemia.

Lesinurad

  • URAT1 inhibitor approved in 2015/16.
  • Administered orally with lots of water.
  • Given with allopurinol or Febuxostat to avoid kidney failure.
  • Was withdrawn from the market for commercial reasons, but safety concerns likely played a role.
  • AR882 is another URAT1 inhibitor in phase 3 clinical trials.

Drugs and Dialysis

  • Dialysis can change the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs.
  • Monitor dialysis patients for clinical efficacy and toxicity.
  • Drug effect can indicate dialysis effectiveness.
  • Dialyzability is related to drug dosage.

Determinants of Drug Dialysis

  • Molecular size.
  • Protein binding.
  • Volume of distribution.
  • Water solubility.
  • Plasma clearance (metabolism vs. excretion).

Molecular Weight

  • Hemodialysis uses synthetic membranes with fixed pore sizes, and drug movement depends on molecule size vs. pore size.
  • Peritoneal dialysis is more permissive.

Protein Binding

  • Protein binding reduces dialyzability, but uremia can decrease protein binding.

Volume of Distribution

  • High volume of distribution decreases protein dialyzability.

Plasma Clearance

  • High hepatic or metabolic clearance reduces the impact of dialysis.

Dialysis Membrane

  • Dialysis data is based on specific membranes.
  • Changes in membrane technology can affect dialysis characteristics.

Flow Rate

  • This is another factor affecting drug dialysis.

Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs)

  • Very frequent in women and can lead to recurrent infections.
  • Management includes antibiotics, especially for recurrent infections.
  • Long-term antibiotic use can cause GI symptoms.

Na+ Bicarbonate

  • Sodium bicarbonate (baking soda) can be used to make urine more basic.
  • Can impair bacterial attachment to the mucosa.
  • Risk of poisoning and electrolyte imbalance.

Coping with Recurrent UTIs

  • Increase water intake.
  • Avoid bladder irritants like caffeine, alcohol, spicy food, nicotine, carbonated drinks, and artificial sweeteners.

Traditional Remedies

  • Uva Ursi and Goldenseal may help but can cause liver damage and drug interactions.

Cranberry Juice

  • It was determined that there was no real efficacy to the therapy.

Antibiotics

  • The spectrum of drug activity and bacterial sensitivity are important.
  • Adequate drug concentration in urine is necessary.
  • Quinolones, cotrimoxazole, and trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole have been used.
  • Agents that concentrate in urine include Nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin, and methenamine

Treatment for Simple UTIs

  • Include trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim), fosfomycin (Monurol), and nitrofurantoin.
  • Cephalosporins may be used, but fluoroquinolones are not commonly recommended.

Reasons Against Fluoroquinolones

  • Increased bacterial resistance.
  • Relevant side effects.

Treatment for Frequent UTIs

Two Philosophies

  • Full-dose antibiotics at symptom onset.

  • Low-dose antibiotics over long periods (prophylaxis).

  • Post-coital prophylaxis can be used.

  • Hormonal replacement therapy may help reduce relapses in menopause.

Common Drugs

  • Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are used due to high urine concentrations.
  • It is a first choice for uncomplicated UTIs and bacteria resistant to beta-lactamases or fluoroquinolones

Nitrofurantoin

  • It is used for uncomplicated UTIs and prophylaxis due to high urine concentrations and low systemic effects.
  • This drug has poor tissue penetration.
  • Is a first-line agent for uncomplicated UTIs.
  • It has a short half-life (20–60 minutes) and accumulates in the urine.
  • Has a Wide-spectrum activity against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.

Considerations for Kidney Level

  • A decrease in renal function needs an adjustment in Dosage.
  • Issues with liver

Fosfomycin

  • Is given orally or intravenously for multiresistant bacteria.
  • Inhibits UDP-N-acetylglucosamine-3-enolpyruvyl transferase, with a bactericidal effect similar to beta-lactams.
  • Not recommended for children under a certain age.

Beta-lactams

  • Has high concentration in urine to have an antibacterial effect,
  • cephalosporins, can rach good concentration if eliminated in the kidney

Pivmecillinam

  • new drug approved to uncomplicated UTIS .

Cefepime/enme-tazobactam

  • A combination used to treat UTI.

Fluroquinolones

  • Shown increase amount of bacterial resistance and side effect.

General way to treat UTI

  • moxifloxacin helps too reach high concnetration in the urine

Other types

  • Tetracyclines, Macrolides,

Support aganist for gram+

  • add vancomycin for resistance against multbacteria

Uromune

  • A bacteria to treat UTI for three months and has long lasting effect.

SGLT2 inhibitors

  • Can treat with cardiovascular and renal issues
  • Canaglifozin, Dapaglifozin, Empaglifozin, and Bexaglifozin
  • Can side effect the drug
  • Can cause gangrene, osmotic uresis

Sotaglifozin

  • An inhibitor with dual action for both type 1 and 2 diabetes.

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