Glomerulonephritis and Hypertension Quiz

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Membrano-Proliferative GN?

  • Hypercellular Glomeruli
  • Accentuated Lobular Pattern
  • Crescent Formation (correct)
  • Thickened Basement Membranes

The most frequent outcome of Acute Diffuse Glomerulonephritis is:

  • Complete Recovery on Conservative Therapy (correct)
  • Progression to Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis
  • Progression to Rapidly Progressive GN
  • Progression to Chronic Renal Failure

Which of the following features is characteristic of Henoch-Schonlein Syndrome?

  • Tram Track appearance of Basement Membrane
  • Diffuse Thickening of Basement Membrane
  • Crescent Formation
  • Mesangial Deposition of IgA (correct)

Which of the following does NOT contribute to Acute Diffuse Tubular Necrosis?

<p>Transfusion with Hepatitis B infected blood (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is associated with surgically treatable hypertension?

<p>Fibromuscular Dysplasia of Renal Artery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following can be a complication of using Ampicillin and is related to Eosinophilia?

<p>Interstitial Nephritis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Causes of Nephrotic Syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:

<p>Malaria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about Primary Biliary Cirrhosis is NOT true?

<p>Pruritis is rare (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Cardiovascular Lesion is most likely found in a man who died after several months of Disseminated Malignancy?

<p>Epicardial Metastases (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not considered a tumor marker?

<p>(PGI2) Prostacyclin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Kartagener's Syndrome is at great risk of developing which condition?

<p>Bronchiectasis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is associated with Arteriovenous Shunts?

<p>Cavernous Hemangioma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is the first histopathologic stage of Lobar Pneumonia?

<p>Congestion and Edema (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Achondroplasia?

<p>Short Life Span (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT associated with Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?

<p>Keratinizing Squamous Carcinoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All of the following are true of Bronchopneumonia except?

<p>Characteristically undergoes stages of Congestive Hepatization (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which malignant tumor is most likely to give rise to Osteoblastic Secondaries?

<p>Adenocarcinoma of Prostate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most serious complication of Portal Hypertension?

<p>Oesophageal Varices (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Patients with Cushing’s Syndrome can present with all of the following EXCEPT?

<p>Hypopigmentation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is NOT associated with Barrett’s Oesophagus?

<p>Gastrointestinal Bleeding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT associated with Acute Gastritis?

<p>Leukemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A common cause of Secondary Hyperaldosteronism is?

<p>Congestive Cardiac Failure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tumor is most common in the age group 40-50 years?

<p>Giant Cell Tumor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Breast Malignant Tumor can be bilateral?

<p>Lobular Carcinoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely cause of pulmonary atelectasis involving all of the right lung?

<p>Aspiration of Foreign Body (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What congenital cardiac anomaly is most likely present in a 5 week old baby with a pansystolic murmur and difficulty breathing?

<p>Ventricular Septal Defect (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which serologic finding is most likely associated with myocarditis?

<p>Coxsackie B Serologic Titer of 1:160 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about carcinoma of the nasopharynx is not true?

<p>Is usually treated by Chemotherapy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is least likely to be associated with carcinoma of the larynx?

<p>EBV (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is most likely to develop in a patient with a congenital ventricular septal defect at the age of 20?

<p>Pulmonary Hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with increasing malaise and a friction rub, what form of pericarditis is most likely?

<p>Fibrinous (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is most likely to lead to a hemorrhagic pleural effusion?

<p>Metastatic Carcinoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which change is most likely seen in the bronchi of patients with Chronic Bronchitis?

<p>Hypertrophy of Mucus Glands (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not typically a complication associated with Chronic Bronchitis?

<p>Asthma Exacerbation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is most likely found in the microscopic examination of sputum from an asthmatic patient?

<p>Many Eosinophils (A), Curschman Spiral (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a myocardial infarction managed with Streptokinase, which condition is most likely in the myocardium?

<p>Ischemic Injury (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is most likely in a 65-year-old man with Congestive Heart Failure and Left Ventricular Hypertrophy?

<p>Hypertensive Heart Disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with Infective Endocarditis, which laboratory finding is most likely present?

<p>Presence of Blood Cultures (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A Button-Hole Mitral Valve is often associated with which condition?

<p>Rheumatic Heart Disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The symptoms of Right Conjunctival Oedema and Exophthalmos in a child likely indicate which condition?

<p>Chagas Disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which complication is most likely associated with Severe Ante-Partum Hemorrhage?

<p>Bilateral Adrenal Hemorrhage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diseases is least likely to be complicated by Malignancy?

<p>Chronic Duodenal Ulcer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Uterine Lesion has the highest potential to develop into carcinoma?

<p>Complex Hyperplasia with Atypia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tumor is most likely to have malignant potential?

<p>Phyllodes Tumor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following GI diseases is least associated with increased incidence of Malignancy?

<p>Celiac Sprue (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which complication is most typically found in Chronic Idiopathic Ulcerative Colitis?

<p>Both A &amp; B (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic is most distinctive of Crohn’s Disease in comparison to Ulcerative Colitis?

<p>Involves the Colon Wall Transmurally (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of Subarachnoid Hemorrhage?

<p>Rupture of Berry Aneurysm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What happens to the mucus glands in chronic bronchitis?

In chronic bronchitis, the mucus glands in the bronchi enlarge, leading to excessive mucus production, which contributes to the characteristic cough and airway obstruction.

What is squamous metaplasia in the bronchi?

Squamous metaplasia in bronchi is a change in the lining of the airways, where the normal ciliated columnar epithelium is replaced by squamous epithelium. This is often a response to chronic irritation, like smoking.

What is Cor pulmonale?

Cor pulmonale is a condition where the right ventricle of the heart becomes enlarged due to high pressure in the pulmonary arteries (pulmonary hypertension). This can occur as a complication of chronic lung diseases like chronic bronchitis.

What is the role of eosinophils in asthmatic sputum?

Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that increases in number during allergic reactions, including asthma. They are often found in the sputum of asthmatic patients.

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What are Curschman spirals?

Curschman spirals are spiral-shaped mucus casts found in the sputum of asthmatic patients. These are formed by tightly coiled mucus plugs in the bronchi.

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What is the role of Streptokinase in myocardial infarction?

Streptokinase is used to dissolve blood clots (thrombolysis). After myocardial infarction, it can help restore blood flow, but may lead to cell death (apoptosis) in the affected area.

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What is alcoholic cardiomyopathy?

Alcoholic cardiomyopathy is a heart muscle disease caused by excessive alcohol consumption. It weakens the heart muscle, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath, fatigue, and fluid retention.

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What is a buttonhole mitral valve?

A buttonhole mitral valve is a condition where the mitral valve, which regulates blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes thickened and stiff. It often occurs due to rheumatic heart disease.

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What is NOT a feature of Membrano-Proliferative GN?

Membrano-proliferative GN is characterized by hypercellular glomeruli, thickened basement membranes, basement membrane spikes, and an accentuated lobular pattern. It can present as either nephrotic or nephritic syndrome.

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What is the most common outcome of ADGN ?

The most common outcome of Acute Diffuse Glomerulonephritis (ADGN) is complete recovery with conservative therapy.

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What is a characteristic feature of Henoch-Schonlein Syndrome?

Henoch-Schonlein purpura is a systemic vasculitis that affects small blood vessels, predominantly in the skin, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys. The presence of IgA deposition in the mesangium is a characteristic feature of this condition.

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What does NOT cause Acute Diffuse Tubular Necrosis?

Acute Diffuse Tubular Necrosis (ATN) is a kidney injury that results from damage to the tubular cells, often caused by toxins, ischemia, or other insults. Transfusion of hepatitis B-infected blood, while a serious medical concern, is not a direct cause of ATN.

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What is a surgically treatable cause of hypertension?

Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD) of the renal artery is a condition that affects the arteries of the kidneys. It can cause narrowing of the arteries, which can lead to hypertension (high blood pressure) because of reduced blood flow to the kidneys. This can often be surgically treated.

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What can be a complication of Ampicillin, associated with eosinophilia?

Ampicillin is a type of antibiotic. Interstitial nephritis is a type of kidney inflammation that can be a side effect of certain medications, including ampicillin, and is often associated with eosinophilia (an increase in a type of white blood cell).

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What is NOT a cause of Nephrotic Syndrome?

Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine (proteinuria), low levels of protein in the blood (hypoalbuminemia), high cholesterol levels, and swelling (edema). While many conditions can cause nephrotic syndrome, viral hepatitis is not directly associated with its development.

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What is TRUE about Primary Biliary Cirrhosis?

Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is a chronic liver disease that is characterized by autoimmune destruction of the bile ducts within the liver. It is more common in women and can develop in stages. One of the defining features of PBC is the presence of antimitochondrial antibodies.

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Pituitary Necrosis (in Severe Ante-Partum Hemorrhage)

A rare but serious complication of severe bleeding during pregnancy, potentially caused by blood loss and decreased blood flow to the pituitary gland.

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Familial Polyposis Coli (FPC)

A condition characterized by a cluster of polyps throughout the colon, known for its high risk of developing colon cancer, particularly in individuals with a family history.

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Complex Hyperplasia with Atypia (in Uterus)

A type of precancerous growth in the uterine lining, characterized by abnormal cell growth, increasing the risk of developing endometrial cancer.

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Phyllodes Tumor

A rare but potentially aggressive tumor of the breast, often mimicking a fibroadenoma, but with a higher risk of malignancy compared to ordinary fibroadenomas.

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Ulcerative Colitis

A chronic inflammatory disease of the digestive tract, typically affecting the entire colon, characterized by continuous inflammation and ulceration of the lining.

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Crohn's Disease (Regional Enteritis)

A chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, characterized by transmural inflammation, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the intestinal wall, with potential for fistulas and abscesses.

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Rupture of Berry Aneurysm

The most common cause of sudden bleeding within the space surrounding the brain, often leading to severe headaches and neurological complications.

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Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

A rare condition characterized by excessive acid production in the stomach, leading to ulcers and other complications.

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What condition is associated with Arteriovenous Shunts?

Arteriovenous shunts are abnormal connections between arteries and veins, bypassing capillaries. They can be caused by various conditions, including Cavernous Hemangioma. This is a benign tumor filled with blood vessels and found in the liver, brain, and skin. The other options are associated with other diseases.

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What is NOT a feature of Achondroplasia?

Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder causing dwarfism with short limbs and a relatively normal trunk. It's autosomal dominant, meaning a single copy of the mutated gene is enough to cause it. New mutations account for 80% of cases, meaning the mutation arises spontaneously. It's not associated with a short lifespan.

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Which condition is NOT linked to Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?

Mallory-Weiss Syndrome is characterized by tears in the esophagus due to forceful vomiting or retching. It's associated with alcoholism, but squamous carcinoma is NOT a feature. Squamous carcinoma is a type of cancer that can affect the esophagus, but it's not directly related to Mallory-Weiss Syndrome.

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What is most likely to lead to Osteoblastic Secondaries with elevated Alkaline Phosphatase?

Osteoblastic secondaries are cancerous tumors in the bone that cause an increase in bone formation, leading to elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. Prostate cancer is more likely to cause osteoblastic secondaries, leading to elevated alkaline phosphatase levels.

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Which of these is NOT a feature of Autoimmune Gastritis?

Autoimmune gastritis is a condition where the immune system attacks the stomach lining. It's characterized by autoantibodies to gastric parietal cells, which produce stomach acid. The condition is associated with Hashimoto thyroiditis, a thyroid autoimmune disorder. Hyperacidity, excessive stomach acid production, is NOT a feature of autoimmune gastritis. Instead, the condition leads to gastric mucosal atrophy, thinning of the stomach lining.

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What is NOT related to Barrett's Oesophagus?

Barrett's esophagus is a condition where the lining of the esophagus changes due to chronic acid reflux. It's associated with GERD, long history of heartburn, and dysplastic changes, but keratinizing squamous carcinoma is NOT a feature. While Barrett's esophagus is a risk factor for esophageal cancer, the most common type in this condition is adenocarcinoma, not squamous carcinoma.

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Which condition is NOT linked to Acute Gastritis?

Acute gastritis is an inflammation of the stomach lining that can be caused by severe stress, shock, excessive alcohol consumption, and excessive aspirin use. Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease and not directly associated with acute gastritis.

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Which type of bone tumor is most common in the age group 40-50 years?

Giant cell tumors are benign tumors that typically affect people aged 20-40. Osteosarcoma is a bone cancer, and it's typically found in people aged 10-20. It's important to note that giant cell tumors are NOT related to a specific age group.

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What Cardiovascular lesion is likely seen in a man who died from disseminated malignancy?

Metastases to the pericardium, a covering over the heart, are a common finding in disseminated malignancies. This is because cancer spreads through the bloodstream and the pericardium is a good location for these cells to lodge.

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What is NOT a tumor marker?

Alpha fetoprotein (AFP), Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), Prostate specific antigen (PSA), and Chorionic gonadotrophic hormone (HCG) are all tumor markers used to monitor and detect specific cancers.

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What is a patient with Kartagener's Syndrome at risk of developing?

Kartagener's Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects cilia, hair-like structures that help move mucus. This can lead to infections and problems clearing airways, eventually causing bronchiectasis.

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What is NOT a possible complication of Bronchiectasis?

While Hemoptysis, Brain Abscess, Foul-Smelling Breath, and Bronchogenic Carcinoma are all possible complications of Bronchiectasis, Amyloidosis is not. Amyloidosis is a disease caused by the buildup of abnormal proteins in the body, and is not directly related to Bronchiectasis.

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What is the first histopathologic stage of Lobar Pneumonia?

The first stage of Lobar Pneumonia is Congestion and Edema. This is characterized by blood vessel dilation, fluid buildup, and inflammation within the lung tissue.

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What statement is FALSE about Bronchopneumonia?

Bronchopneumonia is characterized by patchy consolidation of lung tissue, affecting both lungs. Unlike Lobar Pneumonia, it does not typically undergo distinct stages like Congestive Hepatization and Resolution.

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What is the MOST serious complication of Portal Hypertension?

Oesophageal Varices, which are enlarged veins in the esophagus, are the most serious complication of Portal Hypertension. They can rupture and cause life-threatening bleeding.

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What symptom is NOT present in patients with Cushing’s Syndrome?

Patients with Cushing’s syndrome can present with Moon Face, Impaired Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT), Thinning of the Skin, and Hypertension. However, they have increased pigmentation due to excess ACTH, not hypopigmentation.

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What is the most likely cause of complete right lung atelectasis?

Pulmonary atelectasis is the collapse of lung tissue. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including aspiration of a foreign body, pulmonary embolism, squamous cell carcinoma, penetrating chest trauma, and bronchiolectasis. In this scenario, the most likely cause is aspiration of a foreign body because it is the only option that can cause a complete collapse of an entire lung.

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What is the most likely cause of a pansystolic murmur in a 5-week-old baby?

A pansystolic murmur is a heart murmur that is heard throughout the entire cardiac cycle, meaning it's present during both systole (when the heart is contracting) and diastole (when it's relaxing). The most likely cause of pansystolic murmur in a 5-week-old baby is a ventricular septal defect (VSD). A VSD is a hole between the two ventricles of the heart, allowing blood to flow from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, resulting in the murmur.

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What is the most likely indicator of myocarditis?

Myocarditis is an inflammation of the heart muscle. It can be caused by a variety of viruses, including Coxsackie B virus. A Coxsackie B serologic titer of 1:160 is a strong indicator of a recent Coxsackie B virus infection, making it the most likely to be associated with myocarditis.

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Which of the following is NOT true about carcinoma of the nasopharynx?

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a cancer that originates in the nasopharynx, the upper part of the throat behind the nose. It's commonly associated with the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and is found more frequently in Southern China and children in Africa. Treatment typically involves a combination of therapies, including radiation and chemotherapy.

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Which of the following is NOT associated with carcinoma of the larynx?

Carcinoma of the larynx is a cancer that originates in the larynx, the voice box. It's linked to several risk factors, including tobacco smoking, alcohol consumption, and exposure to radiation. While HPV can be a risk factor for head and neck cancers, it's not as strongly associated with laryngeal cancer as the others.

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Which of the following is most likely to develop in a patient with congenital VSD who becomes 20 years old?

A congenital ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a hole in the wall between the two ventricles of the heart. Over time, this can lead to increased pressure in the pulmonary arteries (pulmonary hypertension) due to the continuous flow of blood from the left to the right ventricle. This increased pressure can put strain on the lungs.

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What type of pericarditis is most likely in a 66-year-old man with increasing malaise, a friction rub, and elevated creatinine levels?

Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, the sac that surrounds the heart. Constrictive pericarditis is a chronic condition characterized by a thickened and fibrotic pericardium, restricting the heart's ability to fill properly. The presence of a friction rub, increased urea nitrogen, and creatinine levels are strong indicators of this type of pericarditis.

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What is the most likely cause of a hemorrhagic pleural effusion?

A hemorrhagic pleural effusion is the accumulation of blood in the space between the lung and the chest wall (pleural space). Metastatic cancers, particularly those of the lung, breast, or ovary, are known to spread to the pleura and cause hemorrhagic effusions. This is due to the abnormal blood vessels and the fragility of these vessels in the cancer.

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Study Notes

Membrano-Proliferative GN

  • Features EXCEPT thickened basement membranes, include hypercellular glomeruli, and accentuated lobular pattern
  • Most frequent outcome of Acute Diffuse Glomerulonephritis is progression to chronic renal failure
  • Henoch-Schönlein Syndrome features include diffuse thickening of the basement membrane, and crescent formation
  • Acute Diffuse Tubular Necrosis is not caused by transfusion with Hepatitis B infected blood
  • Surgically treatable hypertension causes include fibromuscular dysplasia of renal artery

Hypertension

  • Surgically treatable hypertension causes include fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal artery
  • Other causes include diabetes mellitus, IgA nephritis, SLE nephritis, and Goodpasture syndrome

Glomerulonephritis

  • Membrano-Proliferative GN features exclude hypercellular glomeruli, and accentuated lobular pattern
  • Acute Diffuse Glomerulonephritis most frequent outcome is progression to chronic renal failure

Other Medical Conditions

  • Causes of Nephrotic Syndrome exclude SLE
  • Diabetic microangiopathy excludes myocardial infarction
  • Hypocalcemia causes exclude granulomatous disease
  • Lipiduria causes include nephrotic syndrome
  • Right Renal Mass (10cm) in 3-year-old is likely renal cell carcinoma
  • Corticosteroid therapy likely improves glomerular crescents, and patchy tubular necrosis
  • Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis diagnostic feature is leukocyte casts in urine

Thyroid

  • Papillary carcinoma is most frequent malignant thyroid tumor in young adults
  • Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC) is common in females and presents with pruritus
  • PBC is associated with Antimitochondrial Antibodies and elevated alkaline phosphatase

Diabetic Microangiopathy

  • Chronic Microangiopathy causes retinopathy, neuropathy, and nephropathy.
  • Other causes include diabetic microangiopathy, myocardial infarction, and neuropathy

Other Diseases

  • Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis has eosinophilia as a complication of using Ampicillin
  • Interstitial Nephritis is another complication of using Ampicillin
  • Causes of Hypocalcemia include hyperparathyroidism and vitamin D deficiency and Renal Failure
  • Nephrotic syndrome causes include diabetes mellitus and SLE

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