Medical Questions (PDF)

Green=not sure Yellow=sure 432. The following are features of Membrano-Proliferative GN except: a) Hypercellular Glomeruli b) Thickened Basement Membranes c) Basement Membrane Spikes d) Accentuated Lobular Pattern e) Presents as Nephrotic or Nephritic Syndrome. The...

Green=not sure Yellow=sure 432. The following are features of Membrano-Proliferative GN except: a) Hypercellular Glomeruli b) Thickened Basement Membranes c) Basement Membrane Spikes d) Accentuated Lobular Pattern e) Presents as Nephrotic or Nephritic Syndrome. The most frequent outcome of Acute Diffuse Glomerulonephritis is: a) Progression to Rapidly Progressive GN b) Progression to Acute Renal Failure c) Progression to Chronic Renal Failure d) Complete Recovery on Conservative Therapy e) Progression to Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis 436. Which of the following is a feature of Henoch-Schonlein Syndrome: a) Diffuse Cellularity of Glomeruli b) Diffuse Thickening of Basement Membrane c) Crescent Formation d) Mesangial Depostion of IgA e) Tram Track appearance of Basement Membrane 442. Which of the following does not cause Acute Diffuse Tubular Necrosis: a) Shock b) Septicemia c) Extensive Burns d) Transfusion with Hepatitis B infected blood e) Post-Partum Hemorrhage v 486. Which of the following is a cause of Surgically Treatable Hypertension: a) Diabetes Mellitus b) IgA Nephritis c) Fibromuscular Dysplasia of Renal Artery d) SLE Nephritis e) Goodpasture Syndrome 487. Which of the following can arise as a complication of using Ampicillin and is associated with Eosinophilia: a) Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis b) Interstitial Nephritis c) IgA Nephropathy d) Acute Tubular Necrosis 820. Causes of Nephrotic Syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Diabetes Mellitus b) SLE  c) Malaria d) Viral Hepatitis e) Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis 821. The following are true about Primary Biliary Cirrhosis EXCEPT: a) Common in Females b) Present with Pruritis c) Jaundice develops early in the course d) Associated with Antimitochondrial Antibodies e) Alkaline Phosphatase is Elevated 822. The most frequent Malignant Thyroid Tumor in the young is: a) Papillary Carcinoma b) Follicular Carcinoma c) Medullary Carcinoma d) Anaplastic Carcinoma e) Lymphoma 823. Diabetic Microngiopathy can lead to all of the following EXCEPT: a) Retinopathy b) Nephropathy c) Neuropathy d) Myocardial Infarction e) None of the Above 824. Causes of Hypocalcemia include EXCEPT: a) Granulomatous Disease b) Hypoparathyroidism c) Renal Failure d) Vitamin D Deficiency e) None of the Above 488. Which of the following will give rise to Lipiduria: a) Ascending Pyelonephritis b) Nephritic Syndrome c) Nephrotic Syndrome d) Obstructive Uropathy e) Renal Infarction 489. A 3 year old child with a solid 10cm Right Renal Mass is most likely having: a) Hydronephrosis  b) Renal Cell Carcinoma c) Transitional Cell Carcinoma d) Wilm's Tumor e) Papillary Necrosis 490. Which of the following is associated with Hyperplastic Arteriosclerosis and Fibrinoid Necrosis: a) Diabetes Mellitus Type II b) Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis c) Albort's Syndrome d) Malignant Hypertension e) Analgesic Abuse 491. Which of the following Renal Changes is most likely to improve following a course of Corticosteroid Therapy: a) Glomerular Crescents b) Fusion of Bodocyte Food Processes c) Patchy Tubular Necrosis d) Hyperplastic Arteriosclerosis e) Mesangial Immune Complex Deposition 492. Which of the following is a feature of Membranous Glomerulonephritis: a) Rapid Onset b) Red Blood Cell Casts c) Oliguria d) Heavy Proteinuria e) Hypertension 493. Which of the following is a diagnostic feature of Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis: a) Insidious Onset b) Leukocyte Cast in Urine c) Polyuria d) Crescent Formation e) Wireloob Appearance 494. Which of the following is (are) a feature of Malignant Hypertension: a) Hyperplastic Arteriosclerosis b) Crescent Formation c) Fibrinoid Necrosis d) A & B e) A & C 495. Which of the following is a feature of Membranous Glomerulonephritis: a) Smokey Red Urine  b) Red Blood Cell Casts c) Oliguria d) Albuminuria e) Hypertension 496. Which of the following is not a feature of Diffuse Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis: a) Hypertension b) Peri-Orbital Oedema c) Granular Cast in Urine d) Fusion of Podocyte Food Processes e) Immune Complex Deposition 497. Low Serum Complement, Hypercellular Glomerulis and Subepithelial Immune Deposits are characteristically seen in: a) Alport's Syndrome b) Minimal Change Disease c) Interstitial Nephritis d) Post Streptococcal GN e) IgA Nephropathy 498. Mesangial Deposits of IgA are characteristically seen in: a) Alport's Syndrome b) Minimal Change Disease c) Interstitial Nephritis d) Post Streptococcal GN e) IgA Nephropathy 499. The expression Nodular Glomerulosclerosis is used to denote: a) A Pattern of Diabetic Glomerular Change b) Changes due to Malignant Hypertension c) Advanced Pyelonephritis d) Thin Membrane Disease e) Ischemic Tubular Necrosis 500. Basement Membrane Spikes are characteristically seen in: a) Minimal Change Disease b) Idiopathic Membranous GN c) Crescent GN d) Post Streptococcal GN e) Alport's Syndrome 501. Which Glomerular Disease is associated with C-ANCA: a) Type I RBGN b) Type II RBGN  c) Type III RBGN d) IgA Nephropathy e) Post-Streptococcal GN 502. Antiglomerular Basement Membrane Antibodies are characteristically seen in: a) Type I RBGN b) Type II RBGN c) Type III RBGN d) IgA Nephropathy e) Post-Streptococcal GN 503. Which of the following is not a feature of Mesangial Cells: a) Phagocytic Activity b) Ability to Proliferate c) Metaplasia to Endothelial Cells d) Laying down Mesangial Matrix e) Secretion of Chemical Mediator 504. Pyonephrosis is a known complication of: a) Interstitial Nephritis b) Acute Pyelonephritis c) Acute Tubular Necrosis d) Post Streptococcal GN e) RPGN 505. Thyroidization is a feature of: a) Chronic Pyelonephritis b) Renal Osteodystrophy c) Secondary Metaplasia d) Hyperuricemia 506. Attenuation & Lamination of the Basement Membrane is seen in: a) Membranous GN b) Membrano-Proliferative GN c) Alport's Syndrome d) Kimmel-Steil Wilson Sclerosis e) IgA Nephropathy 507. Which of the following is associated with Fever, Purpuric Rash, Abdominal Colic & Proteinuria in children: a) Henoch-Schoen Lein Disease  b) Nephroblastoma c) Chronic Pyelonephritis d) Interstitial Nephritis e) Minimal Change Disease 508. The following are features of the early stages of Ischemic Tubular Necrosis except: a) Azotemia b) Oliguria c) Hypokalemia d) Metabolic Acidosis e) Hypotension 514. Which of the following is associated with Hepatic Angiosarcoma: a) Benzene b) Radon c) Cyclophosphamide d) Abestos e) Vinyl Chloride 515. Asthma is most closely associated with: a) Hypertrophy of Mucus Glands b) Eosinophil Chemotactic Factor c) Serine Elastase d) ADH e) Complement Fixation 517. A 3 month-old baby develops Azotemia following a Massive Gastroenteritis. Your most likely diagnosis is: a) Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis b) Tubular Necrosis c) Systemic Lupus Nephritis d) Goodpasture's Syndrome 518. In the absence of smoking, Coal Worker Pneumoconiosis (CWP) does not predispose to: a) PMF (Progressive Pulmonary Fibrosis) b) Pulmonary Tuberculosis c) Bronchogenic Carcinoma d) Emphysema e) Chronic Bronchitis 519. The most prevalent Occupational Pneumoconiosis is: a) Anthracosis b) Silicosis c) Abestosis d) Byssinosis e) Bagassosis 520. The mechanism of cell and tissue injury in Silicosis is through: a) Inactivation of Cytochrome System b) Destruction of Mitochondria c) Mutation in Nuclear Genes d) Denaturation of Membrane Protein e) Recruitment of Polymorphs 521. Egg-Shell Calcification is characteristically seen in: a) Anthracosis b) Silicosis c) Asbestosis d) Byssinosis e) Bagassosis 522. The following are true about Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma except: a) Commonest Tumor of Childhood in some parts of Africa b) It is associated with infection by Epstein Barr Virus c) Radical Surgery is the standard treatment d) Metastasize the Cervical Lymph Node e) Commonest Tumor in some parts of China 523. Which of the following is not a known risk for Carcinoma of the Larynx: a) Tobacco Smoker b) Alcohol c) Irradiation d) HPV e) EB Virus 524. In Chronic Bronchitis, cigarettes smoking is not a factor in which of the following: a) Squamous Metaplasia b) Smooth Muscle Hyperplasia c) Interference with Ciliary Action d) Direct Damage to Airway Epithelium e) Inhibits Bronchiolar and Alveolar Leukocytes 525. Bronchi in patients suffering from Chronic Bronchitis will most likely show: a) Ulceration of Mucosa b) Squamous Metaplasia c) Hypertrophy of Mucus Glands d) Both A & B e) Both B & C 526. Which of the following is not a complication of Chronic Bronchitis:  a) Squamous Metaplasia of Bronchial Epithelium b) Cor-Pulmonale c) COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) d) Pulmonary TB e) Heart Failure 527. Microscopic Examination of Sputum from an Asthmatic will show: a) Many Eosinophils b) Curschman Spiral c) IgE Antibodies d) Both A & B e) Both B & C 532. Following Myocardial Infarction due to Thrombosis in a Coronary Artery and management by Streptokinase (a thrombocytic agent), which of the following is likely to happen in myocardium: a) Apoptosis b) Free Radical Injury c) Heterophagoctytosis d) Squamous Metaplasia e) Accumulation of Cytokeratins 533. A 65 year old man has had Congestive Heart Failure for the past year. His Blood Pressure is 125/85 and is Afebrile. Chest X-Ray shows Left Ventricular Hypertrophy. Which of the following diseases is he most likely to have: a) Alcoholic Cardiomyopathy b) Calcified Bicuspid Aortic Valve c) Tricuspid Valve Endocarditis d) Aortic Dissection e) Amyloidosis 534. A 35 year old man who has Infective Endocarditis, which of the following laboratory findings is most likely to be present: a) Positive Urine Screen for Opiates b) Elevated Anti-Streptolysin O (ASO) c) Increased Urinary Free Catecholamines d) Elevated Coxsackie B Viral Titer e) Rising Creatine Kinase (CK) in Serum 535. A Button-Hole Mitral Valve is most likely associated with: a) Marfan's Syndrome b) Congenital Heart Disease  c) Rheumatic Heart Disease d) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus e) Atrial Myxoma 536. A 12 year old child who lives in a mud hut in Northeastern Brazil presents to the clinic in Congestive Heart Failure. On physical examination, she has Right Conjuctival Oedema, Preauricular Lymphadenopathy and Exophthalmos. The most likely etiology for these findings is: a) Idiopathic Dilated Cardiomyopathy b) Chagas Disease c) Endomyocardial Fibroelastosis d) Toxoplasmosis e) Beriberi 537. A 44 year old previously healthy man had the sudden onset of Severe Dyspnea. A Chest X- Ray shows Pulmonary Atelectasis involving all of the Right Lung. This is most likely to have resulted from: a) Aspiration of Foreign Body b) Pulmonary Embolism c) Squamous Cell Carcinoma d) Penetrating Chest Trauma e) Bronchioectasis 538. A 5 week old baby was brought to the hospital because of difficulty of breathing and occasionally turning blue. There is a Pansystolic Murmer. Which of the following Congenital Cardiac Anomalies is most likely to be present: a) Hypertrophic Subaortic Stenosis b) Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome c) Coarctation of the Aorta d) Ventricular Septal Defect e) Bicuspid Aortic Valve 539. Which of the following is associated with Myocarditis: a) Anti-Streptolysin O Titer of 1:512 b) Total Serum Cholesterol of 537 mg/dl c) Coxsackie B Serologic Titer of 1:160 d) Blood Culture Positive for Streptococcus, viridans group e) ANCA Titer of 1:80 540. Which of the following is not true about Carcinoma of the Nasopharynx: a) Common in children in Africa b) Common in adults in Southern China c) Is associated with EB Virus  d) Is usually treated by Chemotherapy e) Is associated with Lymphoid Tissue 541. Which of the following is not associated with Carcinoma of the Larynx: a) Tobacco Smoking b) Irradiation c) HPV d) EBV e) Alcohol 542. Which of the following is most likely to develop in a patient who has Congenital Ventricular Septal Defect when he becomes 20 years old: a) Left Atrial Dilation b) Mitral Valve Prolapse c) Pulmonary Hypertension d) Myocardial Infarction e) Cardiac Tamponade 543. A 66 year old man has had Increasing Malaise for the past year. On physical examination, Ausculation of the chest reveals a Friction Rub. Laboratory Studies show Serum Urea Nitrogen of 100 mg/dl and Creatinine of 9.8 mg/dl. Which of the following forms of Pericarditis is he most likely to have: a) Fibrinous b) Hemorrhage c) Purulent d) Serous e) Constrictive 544. Which of the following is most likely to give a Hemorrhagic Pleural Effusion: a) Autoimmune Disease b) Chronic Renal Failure c) Rheumatic Fever d) Metastatic Carcinoma e) Acute Myocardial Infarction 545. Which of the following Cardiovascular Lesions is most likely to be found in a man who died after several months illness of Disseminated Malignancy: a) Tear in Ascending Aortic Intima b) Occlusive Coronary Atheromatous Plaques c) Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy d) Epicardial Metastases e) Small Mitral Platelet-Fibrin Thrombi 546. One of the following is not a Tumor Marker: a) (AFP) Alpha Fetoprotein b) (CEA) Carcinoembryonic Antigen  c) (PGI2) Prostacyclin d) (PSA) Prostate Specific Antigen e) (HCG) Chorionic Gonadotrophic Hormone 547. A Patient with Kartagener's Syndrome is at great risk of developing: a) Adenocarcinoma of the Lung b) Bronchiectasis c) Lymphangiectasis d) Pleural Plaques e) Pneumocytosis Carinii Pneumonia 548. Bronchiectasis may produce or lead to the following except: a) Hemoptysis b) Brain Abscess c) Amyloidosis d) Foul-Smelling Breath e) Bronchogenic Carcinoma 549. The first histopathologic stage of Lobar Pneumonia is: a) Resolution b) Organization c) Grey Hepatization d) Red Hepatization e) Congestion and Edema 550. All of the following are true of Bronchopneumonia except: a) Characteristically undergoes stages of Congestive Hepatization and Resolution b) Generally is the type to occur in the Infant and Geriatric Population c) Main histologic feature is Patchy Consolidation of Lung d) Predisposing Factors include Surgery, Debilitation and a Compromised Immune System e) Usually affects both Lungs 561. The most serious complication of Portal Hypertension is: a) Caput Medusa b) Ascites c) Hypoalbuminemia d) Oesophageal Varices e) Hypernatraemia 598. Patients with Cushing’s can present with all of the following EXCEPT: a) Moon Face b) Impaired GTT c) Thinning of the Skin  d) Hypopigmentation e) Hypertension 599. A common cause of Secondary Hyperaldosteronism is: a) Congestive Cardiac Failure b) Pituitary Adenoma c) Adrenal Adenoma d) Tuberculosis of the Adrenal Gland e) None of the Above 600. In Hyperaldosteronism: a) There is a Low Potassium and a High Urinary Sodium b) The Potassium concentration is High in Serum and Low in Urine c) The Potassium concentration is Low in Serum and High in Urine d) The Serum Calcium is Increased e) The Blood Glucose is Low 601. Actions of Parathyroid Hormone: a) Increased Osteoclastic Resorption b) Increased Excretion of Calcium by the Urine c) Inhibits Vitamin D d) Increased Reabsorption of Sodium in the Kidney e) None of the Above 606. In Grave’s Disease one would least likely expect: a) Goitre b) Increased Sweating c) Increased Metabolic Rate d) Increased TSH e) Tremors 607. Which of the following impairs hydrolysis of Triglycerides to Fatty Acids: a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Cortisol d) Growth Hormone e) Oxytocin 608. High Potassium diet will cause Increased Excretion of Potassium in the Urine through: a) Increased Secretion of Potassium by the Distal & Collecting Tubules b) Decreased Reabsorption of Potassium by the Proximal Tubules c) Decreased Potassium Reabsorption by the Loop of Henle d) Decreased Aldosterone Secretion e) Increased GFR 609. Intracellular and Extracellular Fluids have a similar: a) Potassium ion concentration b) Sodium ion concentration c) Chloride concentration d) Colloid Osmotic Pressure e) Total Osmolality 610. Which of the following does NOT predispose to Gastric Carcinoma: a) Infection with H. Pylori b) Cigarette Smoking c) Hypochlorhydria d) Pyloric Stenosis e) Smoked & Salted Foods 611. Which of the following is NOT seen in Celiac Disease: a) Atrophy of Villi b) Epitheloid Granuloma c) Loss of Microvillous Brush Border d) Elongated Crypts e) Infiltration of Lamina Propria by Plasma Cells and Lymphocytes 612. Which of the following would give rise to an Eczematous Scaling of the Nipple in a 40 year old Female: a) Galactocele b) Paget’s Disease of the Breast c) Fat Necrosis d) Fungal Infection e) Inflammatory Carcinoma 613. Which of the following Benign Bone Tumors is most likely to become Malignant: a) Osteochondroma b) Osteoblastoma c) Enchondromatosis d) Chondroblastoma e) Brown Tumor of Bone 614. Which of the following is NOT a known complication of Duodenal Ulcers: a) Bleeding  b) Malignant Transformation c) Perforation d) Obstruction e) Pyloric Stenosis 615. The following are features of Primary Osteoporosis EXCEPT: a) Bone is normally Mineralized b) More common in Old Females c) Affects only Long Bones of Extremeties d) Can cause Microfractures 616. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Osteogenesis Imperfecta: a) Caused by a Deficiency of Type I Collagen b) Inherited as Autosomal Dominant c) Only affects Long Bone d) Type II is associated with Multiple Fractures in Utero & its Fatal e) Patients have Blue Sclera 617. Squamous Carcinoma of the Oesophagus is associated with the following EXCEPT: a) High Incidence in Blacks b) Alcoholism c) Tobacco Usage d) H. Pylori Infection e) Plummer-Vinsion Syndrome 618. A large breast malignant tumor with rich lymohoid tissue is most likely a: a) Infiltrating Ductal Carcinoma b) Paget’s Disease of the Breast c) Medullary Carcinoma d) Lobular Carcinoma e) Cystosarcoma Phyllodes 619. Which of the following is an important histological feature of Phyllopes Tumors: a) Stromal Cellularity b) Size of the Tumor c) Patient Age d) Location within the Breast e) Mammographi Appearance 620. Which of the following is a feature of Osteoarthritis: a) Loss of Articular Hyaline Cartilage b) Synovitis c) Underlying Osteomyelitis of Bone d) Bone Marrow Fibrosis  e) Crystal Deposition 621. Which of the following Ovarian Tumors is more associated with Endometrial Hyperplasia: a) Serous Cystadenoma b) Mucinous Cystadenoma c) Brenner Tumor d) Dysgerminoma e) None of the Above 622. Which of the following Ovarian Tumors histologically resembles Testicular Seminoma: a) Serous Cystadenoma b) Mucinous Cystadenoma c) Granulosa Cell Tumor d) Brenner Tumor e) Dysgerminoma 623. Which of the following Metabolic Bone Diseases can be complicated by Malignancy: a) Osteogenesis Imperfecta b) Osteitis Deformans c) Achondroplasia d) Osteoporosis e) Osteopetrosis 624. Which of the following is associated with Arteriovenous Shunts: a) Syphilitic Mesoaortitis b) Portal Hypertension c) Paget’s Disease of the Bone d) Oesophageal Varices e) Cavernous Hemangioma 625. The following are features of Achondroplasia EXCEPT: a) There is reduced proliferation of chondrocytes b) Inherited as Autosomal Dominant c) 80% of cases are New Mutations d) Associated with Short Life Span e) Trunk is relatively normal 626. The following are associated with Mallory-Weiss Syndrome (oesophageal laceration) EXCEPT: a) Severe Retching b) Alcoholism c) Excessive Vomiting d) Haematemesis e) Squamous Carcinoma 627. Which of the following is most likely to give rise to Osteoblastic Secondaries & an Elevated Alkaline Phosphatase: a) Adenocarcinoma of Colon b) Oat Cell Carcinoma of Lung c) Infiltrating Ductal Carcinoma of the Breast d) Renal Cell Carcinoma e) Adenocarcinoma of Prostate 628. The following are features of Autoimmune Gastritis EXCEPT: a) Auto Antibodies to Gastric Parietal b) Association with Hashimoto Thyoiditis c) Gastric Mucosal Atrophy d) Hyperacidity e) Intestinal Metaplasia 629. Which of the following is NOT associated with Barrett’s Oesophagus: a) Gastrointestinal Bleeding b) Reflux Oesophagitis c) Keratinizing Squamous Carcinoma d) Long History of Heart Burn e) Epithelial Dysplasia 630. Which of the following is NOT associated with Acute Gastritis: a) Severe Stress b) Shock c) Excessive Alcohol Consumption d) Crohn’s Disease e) Excessive use of Aspirin 631. Which of the following is the most common in the age group 40-50 years: a) Osteosarcoma b) Chondrosarcoma c) Ewing Sarcoma d) Giant Cell Tumor e) Osteoid Osteoma 632. Which of the following breast malignant tumors has a prominent Fibrous Tissue component: a) Schirrhous Carcinoma b) Lobular Carcinoma c) Medullary Carcinoma d) Tubular Carcinoma e) Paget’s Disease 633. Which of the following Breast Malignant Tumors can be Bilateral: a) Schirrhous Carcinoma b) Lobular Carcinoma c) Medullary Carcinoma d) Tubular Carcinoma e) Paget’s Disease 634. Which of the following tumors is known to have Amyloid Stroma: a) Renal Cell Carcinoma b) Parathyroid Adenoma c) Pheochromocytoma d) Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid e) Anterior Pituitary Adenoma 635. Which of the following is associated with Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia: a) Phenylalanine Transferase Deficiency b) Galactose-1-Uridyl Transferase Deficiency c) Glucose-6-Phosphatase Deficiency d) 21-Hydroxylase Deficiency e) Iodine Peroxidase Deficiency 636. The following are risk factors for Colo-Rectal Cancer EXCEPT: a) Low Fibre Diet b) Familial Polyposis Coli c) Intestinal Amoebiasis d) High Cholesterol Intake e) Obesity 637. Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for Cervical Squamous Carcinoma: a) Obesity b) Diabetes Mellitus c) Multiple Pregnancies d) Many Sex Partners e) Oral Contraceptives 638. Which of the following is associated with secretion of VMA (Vanillmandelic Acid): a) Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia b) Conn’s Syndrome c) Hodgkin’s Lymphoma d) Neuroblastoma e) Adrenal Cortical Adenoma 639. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Appendiceal Carcinoids: a) Can be Asymptomatic b) Can be detected incidentally c) No remarkable Pleomorphism or Mitotic Activity d) Can Metastasize to the Liver e) Always cause Carcinoid Syndrome 640. The following are features of Ulcertaive Colitis EXCEPT: a) Well Defined Epitheloid Granuloma b) Pseudopolyps c) Crypt Abscesses d) Ulcers along Long Axis of Colon e) Completely Normal Serosal Surface 641. The following are features of Crohn’s Disease EXCEPT: a) Skip Areas b) Transmural Inflammation c) Non-Caseating Granuloma d) Megacolon e) Cobblestone Appearance 642. Cervical Squamous Carcinoma will arise in: a) Exo-Cervix b) Endocervical Glands c) Endocervix d) Transformation Zone e) Cervical Polyp 643. Which of the following will cause Brown Tumor of the Bone: a) Arsenic Poisoning b) Irradiation c) Parathyroid Hyperplasia d) Cyclophosphamide e) Fibrous Dysplasia 644. Which of the following is NOT true about Diverticular Disease (colonic diverticulosis): a) Most common is Sigmoid Colon b) Risk Factor for Carcinoma c) Occurs alongside Taeni coli d) There is focal weakness in the Colonic Wall 645. Which of the following is NOT true about Retroperitoneal Fibrosis:  a) Causes Obliteration of the Ureters b) Encircles Abdominal Aorta c) Shows a Prominent Lymphocyte Infiltrate d) Reported following administration of Methysergide & other medicine e) Develops into well differentiated Fibrosarcoma 646. Which of the following is NOT an Extraintestinal manifestation of Crohn’s Disease: a) Polyarthritis b) Ankylosing Spondylitis c) Cholecystitis d) Erythema Nodosum e) Uveitis 647. Which of the following is associated with Maternal DES (diethylstilbestrol) Exposure: a) Vaginal Adenosis b) HCG (human gonadotropin) c) Alpha-Fetoprotein d) Lichen Sclerosis e) Condyloma Acuminata 648. The MOST common Malignant Epithelial Tumor of the Ovary is: a) Serous Cystadenocarcinoma b) Mucinous Cystadenocarcinoma c) Endometriod Carcinoma d) Brenner Tumor e) Dysgerminoma 649. Chronic Endometritis is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: a) Frequently presents with Menometorrhagia b) Most cases are associated with Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) c) Presence of Plasma Cells is necessary to establish the diagnosis d) Cytomegalovirus is the most common causative agent 650. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component of Cirrhosis of the Liver: a) Fibrosis b) Nodules of Regenerating Liver Cells c) Active (acute) Inflammatory Process with Piece Meal Necrosis d) Distortion of Entire Liver Architecture e) Distortion of Intrahepatic Blood Flow 651. Crohn’s Disease (regional enteritis) is associated with each of the following Extraintestinal manifestations EXCEPT:  a) Pernicious Anemia b) Uveitis c) Ankylosing Spondylitis d) Rheumatic Carditis e) Erythema Nodosum 652. Which of the following has the Highest Malignant Potential: a) Simple (cystic) Endometrial Hyperplasia b) Adenomatous Endometrial Hyperplasia c) Endometrial Polyp d) Submucosal Fibroid e) Uterine Adenomyosis 653. Which of the following is likely to occur as a complication of Severe Ante-Partum Hemorrhage: a) Bilateral Adrenal Hemorrhage b) Subacute Thyroiditis c) Hydatidiform Mole d) Pituitary Necrosis e) Benign Fibroids 654. Which of the following diseases is likely to be complicated by Malignancy:except a) Familial Polyposis Coli b) Crohn’s Disease c) Ulcerative Colitis d) Chronic Duodenal Ulcer e) H. Pylori Gastritis 655. Which of the following Uterine Lesions has a greatest potential to evolve into carcinoma: a) Simple Hyperplasia b) Complex Hyperplasia with Atypia c) Submucosal Fibroid d) Intramural Fibroid 656. Which of the following is MOST likely to have a Malignant Potential: a) Fibroadenoma b) Phyllodes Tumor c) Both A & B d) Neither A nor B 657. All of the following GI diseases have been shown to be associated with an increased incidence of Malignancy EXCEPT: a) Achalasia  b) Celiac Sprue c) Whipple’s Disease d) Crohn’s Disease (regional enteritis) e) Ulcerative Colitis 658. In Chronic Idiopathic Ulcerative Colitis, which of the following is/are usually found: a) Fistula-in-Ano b) Linear Serpiginous Ulcers c) Both A & B d) Neither A nor B 659. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of Crohn’s Disease as compared with Ulcerative Colitis: a) Tends to occur in Young Adults b) Tends to involve the Mucosa continuously c) Involves the Colon Wall Transmurally d) May occur in both the Large & Small Intestine e) Increases the probability of developing cancer 660. Which of the following is the commonest cause of Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: a) Rupture of Berry Aneurysm b) Rupture of Vascular Malformation c) Blood Dyscrasia d) Polyarteritis Nodosa e) Tertiary Syphilis 661. Increased Maximal Gastric Acid Output is seen in: a) Pernicious Anemia b) Gastric Carcinoma c) Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome d) Aging e) None of the Above 662. Which of the following is NOT true about Cystic Fibrosis: a) It affects GIT, Respiratory Tract & Reproductive Tract b) Leads to Viscid Mucus Secretion c) Associated with Squamous Metaplasia d) There is a defect in Epithelial Calcium Transport e) Associated with Bronchiectasis 663. Prion Protein (PrP) is associated with: a) Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy b) -Antitrypsin Deficiency c) Cystic Fibrosis d) Neuro-Fibromatosis e) Paget’s Disease of the Bone 664. Which of the following is NOT true about CSF in Acute Bacterial Meningitis: a) Fluid is Turbid b) High Neutrophil Count c) High Protein Level d) High Sugar Level e) Culture is used for Identification of Organism 665. Negri Bodies (Cytoplasmic Inclusions) are seen: a) Hepatitis B viral infection b) Visceral Leishmaniasis c) Rabies d) Mad Cow Disease e) Whipple Disease 666. Which of the following is least likely to be complicated by Colorectal Carcinoma: a) Familial Adenomatous Polyposis Coli b) Villous Adenoma c) Tubular Adenoma d) Hyperplastic Polyps e) Ulcerative Colitis 667. A Localized White Plaque on the Oral Mucosa with Atrophic or Dysplastic Epithelium and an Inflammatory Infiltrate is most likely: a) Diptheria b) Leukoplakia c) Oral Candidiasis d) Mucosal Leishmaniasis e) Iron Deficiency Anemia 668. A single 6 month old ulcer on the lateral side of the tongue of an adult male is most likely: a) Candidiasis b) Leukoplakia c) Secondary Syphilis d) Squamous Carcinoma e) Mucosal Leishmaniasis 669. Which of the following is NOT associated with Sjorgen’s Syndrome: a) Autoimmune Aetiology b) Affects Salivary and Lacrimal Glands c) Associated with Hypergammaglobulinemia d) Can develop into Epithelial Carcinoma e) Associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis(sicca syndrome) 670. Which of the following is associated with Salivary Gland Calculi:  a) Sjogren’s Syndrome b) Mumps c) Salivary Gland Carcinoma d) Suppurative Parotitis e) Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma 671. The following are true about Pleomorphic Salivary Gland Adenoma EXCEPT: a) Arise most commonly in Parotids b) Well Circumscribed but have extension in adjacent tissues c) Composed of epithelial and mesenchymal elements& myxoid d) Commonly (more than 50%) become Malignant e) Most Common Salivary Gland Tumor 673. Which of the following is NOT true about Plummer-Vinson Syndrome: a) Transverse Folds of Mucosa of Oesophagus b) Associated with Megaloblastic Anemia c) More common in Females d) Increased Incidence of Carcinoma e) Can be visualized by Radiologist during Barium Swallow 674. Barrett’s Esophagus is: a) Metaplasia of Oesophageal Squamous Epithelium b) A Web formed of Folded Mucosa c) A Pulsion Diverticulum d) In-Situ Carcinoma of the Oesophagus e) Oesophageal Candidiasis 675. Which of the following is true about Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis: a) Commonly affects Females b) Usually presents at age 5 years c) Obstruction is caused by Hamartoma of Mucosa d) The Pyloric Muscle is greatly thickened e) Predispose to Chronic Peptic Ulcer 676. Which of the following is NOT a Gastric Mucosa Protection mechanism: a) Mucus Secretion b) Bicarbonate secretion c) Bacterial Flora d) Epithelial Barrier e) Prostaglandin 677. Macrovesicular Steatosis in the Liver is most characteristically associated with: a) Wilson’s Disease b) Chronic Alcoholism c) Hepatitis B Infection  d) Autoimmune Hepatitis e) Secondary Biliary Cirrhosis 678. Antimitochondrial Antibodies are most likely used for the diagnosis of: a) Microscopic Polyarteritis Nodosa b) Celiac Disease c) Primary Biliary Cirrhosis d) Pernicious Anemia e) Crohn’s Disease 679. In Primary Hemochromatosis, Iron is deposited in the following tissues EXCEPT: a) Liver b) Myocardium c) Neurons d) Pancreas e) Endocrine Glands 680. Hepatitis B Vaccination will show the following marker: a) HBs-Ab b) HBsAb + HBcAb- c) HBe Ab d) HBc Ab e) All of the Above 681. Which of characteristically associated with Cholestasis: a) Halothane b) Acetaminophen c) Methyldopa d) Chlorpromazine e) Tetracycline 681. Hepatic Angiosarcoma is associated with: a) Vinyl Chloride b) Arsenic c) Thorotrast d) All of the Above e) None of the Above 682. Which of the following is NOT a Risk Factor for Hepatocellular Carcinoma: a) Hepatitis B b) Hepatitis C c) Saxitoxin d) Cirrhosis e) Alcoholism 683. The following Paraneoplastic Syndrome are associated with Hepatocellular Carcinoma EXCEPT: a) Hypoglycemia b) Hyperglycemia c) Gynaecomastia d) Raised Levels of HCG e) DIC 684. Ground-Glass Hepatocytes are seen in: a) Wilson’s Disease b) Hemochromatosis c) Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis d) Hepatitis B Infection e) Halothane Toxicity 685.Which of the following is true about Ulcerative Colitis: a) Inflammation is Transmural b) The disease is characterized by Skip Lesions c) Affects all parts of GIT d) Crypt Abscesses are frequently seen e) Non-Caseating Granulomas are seen 686. Estimation of which of the following is used for the diagnosis of Carcinoid Syndrome: a) Urinary 5HIAA b) Urinary VMA c) Urinary Amino Acids d) Urinary Serotonin e) Urinary Gastrin 687. Which of the following is true about Crohn’s Disease: a) Inflammation is Transmural b) Only affects Small & Large Intestine c) Commonly complicated by Malignancy d) Is not a cause of Malabsorption e) Is not associated with Extraintestinal Lesions 688. Gastric Lymphoma is a known complication of: a) Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome b) Autoimmune Gastritis c) Gastric Crohn’s Disease d) H. Pylori associated Gastritis e) Peutz-Jegher Syndrome 689. The following are features of Crohn’s Disease EXCEPT: a) Skip Lesions b) Deep Fissures c) Granuloma Formation d) Fistula e) High Incidence of Malignancy 689.Which of the following bears the highest risk of Malignant Complication: a) Crohn’s Disease b) Familial Polyposis Coli c) Ulcerative Colitis d) Celiac Disease e) Villous Adenoma of Rectum 690. String Sign in Radiology is seen in: a) Carcinoma of Oesophagus b) Achalasia c) Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis d) Crohn’s Disease e) Hirschsprung Disease 830. Which of the following would give rise to an Arrhythmia and Sudden Death in a 20 year old male: a) Rheumatic Heart Disease b) Viral Myocarditis c) Systemic Lupus Erythematous d) Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy e) Diabetes Mellitus 831. Which of the following is a cause of death 48 hours following a Myocardial Infarction: a) Constrictive Pericarditis b) Cardiac Arrhythmia c) Hepatic Necrosis d) Thromboembolism e) Myocardial Rupture 832. Which of the following is associated with Carcinoma of the Head of the Pancreas: a) Dilated Cardiomyopathy b) Non-Bacterial Thrombotic Endocarditis c) Acute Fibrinous Pericarditis d) Endocardial Fibrosis e) Acute Myocardial Infarction 833. Which of the following will give rise to a small scarred contracted kidney:  a) Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease b) Arterial changes with Diabetes Mellitus c) Vascular Disease with Hyperlipidemia d) Malignant Hypertension e) Monckeberg’s Sclerosis 834. Which of the following will give rise to Lipiduria: a) Ascending Pyelopnephritis b) Nephritic Syndrome c) Nephrotic Syndrome d) Obstructive Uropathy e) Renal Infarction 840. Which of the following can arise as a complication of using Drugs: a) Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis b) Interstitial Nephritis c) IgA Neuropathy d) Acute Tubular Necrosis e) Nodular Glomeulosclerosis 841. Which of the following will show an Elevated Plasma Renin except: a) Diabetes Mellitus b) Renal Vein Thrombosis c) Fibromuscular Dysplasia of Renal Artery d) Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Pupura e) Polyarteritis Nodosa 842. Which of the following would give an Hb of 20.5 g/dL: a) Hydronephrosis b) Renal Cell Carcinoma c) Renal Calculi d) Enlarged Multicystic Kidneys on Abdominal Ultrasounds e) Prostatic Carcinoma 843. Which of the following most likely to Fibrinous Pericarditis in a 17 year old boy: a) Autoimmune Disease b) Chronic Renal Failure c) Rheumatic Fever d) Metastatic Carcinoma e) Acute Myocardial Infarction 849. Inhalation of which of the following will increase the risk for Bronchogenic Carcinoma in Smokers:  a) Cotton Fibers b) Silica Dust c) Fumes with Iron Particles d) Asbestos Crystals e) Berryllium 850. Which of the following can arise as a complication of Aspiration of Vomitus: a) Squamous Cell Carcinoma b) Lung Abscess c) Chronic Bronchitis d) Bronchiectasis e) Bronchopulmonary Sequestration 851. Which of the following is a known complication of Asbestosis: a) Adenocarcinoma b) Bronchiectasis c) Lymphangiectasis d) Pleural Plaques e) Pneumocystic carnii Pneumonia f) Pneumothorax 852. Which of the following is associated with Panacinar Emphysema: a) Decreased Serum Ceruloplasmin b) Increase Sweat Chloride c) Elevated Blood Ethanol d) Decreased Serum Alpha-1-Antitrypsin e) Positive Urine Opiates 853. Which of the following is the most frequent risk factor of Anaplastic Small Cell Carcinoma: a) Silicosis b) Radon Gas Exposure c) Smoking d) Asbestosis e) Passive Smoking 870. Which of the following is Not a Pathologic Feature of Classic Polyarteritis Nodosa: a) Fibrinoid Necrosis of Media & Intima b) Polymorph and Eosinophil Infiltration c) Granuloma Formation d) Aneurysm and Nodularity e) Healing by Fibrosis 871. Which of the following is most likely to give a Communicating Hydrocephalus in a 13 month old child: a) Hemophilus influenza Meningitis b) Forking of the Aqueduct of Sylvius  c) Epidural Hematoma d) Ruptured Berry Aneurysm e) Glioblastoma Multiforme 872. In a Cross Static Needle Biopsy, Small Crowded Glands lined by cells having Prominent Nucleolis are feasture of: a) Adenocarcinoma of the Prostate b) Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia c) Chronic Prostatitis d) Metastatic Carcinoma e) Infarction of Prostate 873. In a 28 years old male, which of the following would give rise to an Enlarged Left Testis and Serum Elevated B-HCG and AFP: a) Choriocarcinoma b) Embryonal Carcinoma c) Seminoma d) Yolk Sac Tumor e) Leydig Cell Tumor 874. The Source of Bleeding of an Extradural Hematoma is: a) Bridging Veins b) Cavernous Sinus c) Great Vein of Galen d) Middle Meningeal Artery e) Inferior Cerebellar Artery 875. Which of the following is Not True abou Transmural Myocardial Infarction: a) Affects full or nearly full thickness of Ventricular Wall b) Extends beyond the Distribution of a Single Coronary Artery c) Associated with Chronic Atherosclerosis d) Associated with Occlusive Thrombosis e) Associated with ECG Changes 876. Fibrous Intimal Thickening of the Right Ventricle and Tricuspid Valve is seen in: a) Rheumatic Heart Disease b) Drug Addicts c) Infective Endocarditis d) Carcinoid Heart Disease e) Dilated Cardiomyopathy 877. The Source of Hemorrhage in a Complicated Atheroma Plaque is: a) The Vessel Lumen because of Rupture of Fibrous Cap b) Neovascularization at Shoulder of Plaque  c) Rupture of Vasa Vasora d) Both A & B e) Both B & C 878. The etiology of Thromboangitis Obliterans is believed to be: a) Hypercoaguable State b) Autoimmunity c) Direct Endothelial Injury or Hypersensitivity to Tobacco d) Infection by Chlamydia e) A form of Syphilitic Vasculitis 879. Which of the following are features of Variant Angina: a) Occurs at Rest b) Due to Coronary Artery Spasms c) Responds to Vasodilators d) All of the Above e) Only A & B 880. The following are features of an Acute Gastric Ulcer EXCEPT: a) Found Anywhere in the Stomach b) Usually Multiple c) Usually Small, Less than 1 cm d) Adjacent Mucosa is not remarkable e) Heals with Fibrosis 881. Which of the following is an unlikely cause of Acute Diffuse Tubular Necrosis: a) Shock b) Septicemia c) Extensive Burns d) Transfusion with Compatible Hepatitis B infected blood e) Post-Partum Hemorrhage 882. Which of the following is a feature of Henoch-Schonelin Syndrome: a) Diffuse Cellularity of Glomeruli b) Diffuse Thickening of Basement Membrane c) Crescent Formation d) Mesangial Depostion of IgA e) Tram-Track Appearance of Basement Membrane 883. The most significant criteria for the histological diagnosis of Barrett’s Esopgahus: a) Presence of Lamina Propria Papillae in the Upper 1/3rd of Epithelim b) Neutrophil Inflammatory Infiltrate c) Presence of Goblet Cells d) Hyperkeratosis and Acanthosis of Squamous Epithelium  e) All of the Above 884. The Histiological Components of Pleomorphic Salivary Gland Adenoma are: a) Glandular Structures b) Solid Nests of Epithelial Cells c) Foci of Cartilagenous Metaplasia d) Mayxomatous Stroma e) All of the Above 885. White Plaques in the Oral Cavity of 3 days duration in a Child 8 months old are most likely: a) Snail Track Ulcers b) Mucosal Leishmaniasis c) Burkitt’s Lymphoma d) Oral Candidiasis e) Bullous Pemphagoid 886. In Parathyroid Hyperplasia there is: a) Fat Cell Hyperplasia b) Oxyphil Cell Hyperplasia c) Chief Cell Hyperplasia d) C-Cell Hyperplasia e) All of the Above 887. The commonest cause of Cushing’s Syndrome is: a) Pituitary Adenoma b) Adrenocortical Adenoma c) Adrenocortical Hyperplasia d) Exogenous Steroids e) Adrenal Carcinoma 888. Conn’s Syndrome is an Aldosterone Secreting: a) Medullary Adenoma b) Medullary Carcinoma c) Adrenocortical Hyperplasia d) Adrenocortical Adenoma e) Adrenocortical Carcinoma 889. A Paraganglioam is: a) Occurs near the Wrist Joints b) Of Chromaffin Origin c) Seen in Adrenal Medulla d) A & B e) A & C 890. A Craniopharyngioma consists of:  a) Squamous Cells b) Glial Cells c) Schwan Cells d) Acidophils e) Neuronal Cells 891. Which of the following is a Pathologic finding in Alzheimer’s Disease: a) Atrophy of Caudate Nucleus and Gliosis b) Wallerian Degeneration and Gliosis c) Substantia Nigra Depigmentation and Loss of Neurone d) Neurofibrillary Tangles and Neuritic Plaques e) Anterior Horn Cells Loss 893. Goodpasture’s Syndrome is most closely associated with: a) Subepithelial Deposits b) Fusion of Foot Processes c) Peripheral Linear IgG Deposits d) Basement Membrane Spikes e) IgA Deposits 894. Acute Gram Negative Septicemia can cause: a) Hypertension b) Acute Tubular Necrosis c) Chronic Renal Failure d) Nephrotic Syndrome e) Nephritic Syndrome 895. Which of the following can cause serious complications when Infection occurs during Pregnancy: a) HAV b) HBV c) HCV d) HDV e) HEV 896. The Role of Cigarette Smoking in the pathogenesis of Chronic Bronchitis is through the following EXCEPT: a) Interfers with Ciliary Action b) Inhibits Ability of Alveolar Leukocytes to Clear Bacteria c) Causes Squamous Metaplasia of Epithelium d) Inhibits secretion of Protective Mucus 897. Parakeratosis and Munro Micro-Abscesses are seen in: a) Acne Vulgaris b) Psoriasis c) Subacute Dermatitis d) Lichen Planus e) Mycosis Fungoide 898. Gastric Signet Cell Carcinoma metastasizing to both ovaries is: a) Pseudomyxoma Peritonei b) Brenner’s Tumor c) Meig’s Syndrome d) Krukenberg Tumor e) Stroma Ovarii 899. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Secondary Biliary Cirrhosis: a) Cholestasis b) Bile Lakes c) Periportal Fibrosis d) High Level of Antimitochondrial Antibody e) High Level of Alkaline Phosphatase 900. Which of the following is most associated with Hepatocellular Carcinoma: a) HAV b) HBV c) HCV d) HDV e) HEV 901. Which of the following is (are) morphological features of Chronic Bronchitis: a) Hypertrophy of Submucosal Glands in Large Bronchi b) Increase of Goblet Cells in Small Bronchi c) Increase of Goblet Cells in the Terminal Ducts d) A & B e) All of the Above 902. Liquefaction Degeneration of the Basal Layer and Saw-Tooth Appearance of Epiderma- Dermal Function is seen in: a) Psoriasis b) Acne Vulgaris c) Junctional Nevus d) Lichen Planus e) Pemphigus 903. All of the following are present in Stein-Leventhal Syndrome EXCEPT: a) Anovulation b) Fibrotic Cortex of the Ovary c) Corpora Luteum d) Menstrual Irregularities e) Infertility 904. The following are features of Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis EXCEPT: a) Inflammation and Obliteration of the Bile Ducts b) Granuloma Formation c) Associated with Ulcerative Colitis d) Predominantly affects Males e) Jaundice and high Alkaline Phosphatase 905. Which of the following is NOT True about Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma: a) A common Tumor of Young Adults in parts of Africa b) Associated with HPV c) Has a prominent lymphoid tissue component d) Can present as Cervical Lymphadenopathy e) Good response to Radiotherapy 906. Which of the following is NOT True about Medullary Carcinoma of the Thyroid: a) Secretes Calcitonin b) Has Amyloid Depositis c) Arises from Parafollicular C-Cells d) Contains Psammoma Bodies(its in papillary and serous ovarian tumar) e) Can be Familial 907. Which of the following is associated with Arthritis: a) Lichen Planus b) Pemphigus c) Dermatitis Herpetiforms(Associated with CELIAC DISEASE) d) Psoriasis e) Lentigo Maligna 908. All of the following are True about Renal Cell Carcinoma EXCEPT: a) Tumor secretes Erythropoietin b) Originates from Glomeruli c) Often associated with Polycythemia d) Invades Renal Vein e) The Cell appears Clear in most cases 909. Which Cells are responsible for the Destruction of Hepatitis B Infected Hepatocytes: a) Plasma Cells  b) Activated Macrophages c) Multinucleated Giant Cells d) CD8 T Cells e) Langerhans Cells 910. Which of the following Cells secrete Surfactant: a) Macrophages b) Alveolar Endothelial Cells c) Type I Alveolar Pneumocytes d) Type II Alveolar Pneumocytes e) Bronchial Neuroendocrine Cells 911. Histologic Criteria for the Diagnosis of Follicular Carcinoma of the Thyroid are: a) Trabecular Growth Pattern b) Capsular Invasion c) Vascular Invasion d) B & C e) All of the Above 912. Renal Papillary Necrosis is often associated with: a) Post Streptococcal GN b) Urinary Schistosomiasis c) Diabetes Mellitus d) Quinine Therapy e) All of the Above 913. Which of the following indicates Immunity to Hepatitis B following an Infection: a) HBsAb (IgG) b) HBeAb c) HBcAb (IgG d) A & B e) A & C 914. The following are features of Allergic Rhinitis EXCEPT: a) Sensitivity to Pollen Allergens b) IgA Mediated Immune Reaction c) Mucosal Oedema d) Mucus Secretion e) Prominent Eosinophilic Infiltrate 915. Ground Glass Nuclei are characteristically seen in: a) Granulosa Cell Tumor b) Meningioma c) Signet Ring Cells of Gastric Mucosa d) Carcinoid Tumors e) Papillary Carcinoma of the Thyroid 751. Which of the following Bone Tumors has the Best Prognosis: a) Osteogenic Sarcoma b) Chondrosarcoma c) Myeloma d) Ewing’s Sarcoma e) Giant Cell Tumor 752. Cytoplasmic Negri Bodies are seen in: a) HIV Meningoencephalitis b) Mad Cow Disease c) Poliomyelitis d) Rabies e) EBV Encephalitis 753. Brown Tumor of the Bone is a Histopathologic Feature of: a) Paget’s Disease of the Bone b) Osteomalacia c) Osteopetrosis d) Hyperparathyroidism e) Osteogenesis Imperfecta 754. Which of the following is likely to be associated with a Flattened Gastric Mucosa with No Acute Ulceration: a) Diet high in Nitrites b) Hyperchlorahydria c) Hypoparathyroidism d) Menetrier Disease(there is hypertrophy of the rugea) e) Autoantibodies to Parietal Cells 755. Which of the following is a major factor for Atherosclerosis: a) High Carbohydrate Intake b) Obesity c) Physical Activity d) Cigarette Smoking e) Post-Menopausal Oestrogen Deficiency 756. Which of the following Cardiac Valves are most likely to be affected in Rheumatic Heart Disease: a) Aortic and Tricuspid b) Mitral and Pulmonary c) Aortic and Pulmonary  d) Mitral and Tricuspid e) Mitral and Aortic 757. The pathogenesis of which of the following is associated with conformation change in Prion Protein from -helix to a β-Pleated Sheet Isoform: a) Parkinsonism b) Alzheimer’s Disease c) Multiple Sclerosis d) Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy e) Sydenham’s Chorea 758. Crypt Abscesses, Fissures, Serpentine Ulcer & Granulomas are seen in: a) Intestinal Schistosomiasis b) Intestinal Amoebiasis c) Crohn’s Disease d) Ulcerative Colitis e) Enteric Fever 759. Which of the following Gynaecological Neoplasms is associated with HPV (Human Papilloma Virus): a) Choriocarcinoma(tropho balstic diseases) b) Uterine Leiomyoma c) Ovarian Teratoma(gentetic factors) d) Mucinous Cystadenoma e) Carcinoma of Vulva 760. Carcinoma of the Cervix Uteri most commonly arises in: a) The Ectocervix b) The Endocervix Surface c) The Endocervical Glands d) The Transformation Zone e) None of the Above 761. Paget Disease of the Nipple is: a) Squamous Carcinoma b) Malignant Melanoma of Nipple Skin c) Oedematous Dermatitis of the Nipple d) Intraepithelial spread of Breast Carcinoma e) Foreign Body Giant Cell Reaction 762. The most important factor in the aetiology of Female Breast Cancer is: a) Prolonged use of Contraceptive Pill b) Early Marriage c) Cigarette Smoking d) Strong Maternal History  e) Strong Paternal History 763. The Increased Incidence of Subdural Hematoma in elderly patients following minor head trauma is due to: a) Advanced Atherosclerosis of Blood Vessels b) Osteoporosis of Skull Bone resulting in Fracture c) Abnormalities in Coagulation System d) Protein C Deficiency e) Brain Atrophy with Increased space for movement of Bridging Veins 764. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Hashimoto Thyroiditis: a) A common cause of Hypothyroidism b) An Autoimmune Destruction of the Thyroid Gland c) More common in Young Males d) Infiltration of Thyroid by Plasma Cells & Lymphocytes e) The Follicular Epithelial cells have abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm (Hurthle Cells) 765. -Antitrypsin Deficiency is associated with: a) Neonatal Hepatitis b) Liver Cirrhosis c) Panacinar Emphysema d) B and C e) All of the Above 766. Which of the following is a morphologic feature of Rheumatoid Arthritis: a) Suppurative Inflammation b) Increased Osteoblastic and Osteoclastic Activity c) Pannus Formation d) Herbeden Nodes e) Urate Tophi 767. Which of the following Large Intestinal Polyps carries the highest risk for cancer: a) Tubular Adenoma smaller than 1cm in Diameter b) Schistosomal Inflammatory Polyp c) Hyperplastic Polyp d) Sessile Villous Adenoma larger than 4cm in Diameter e) Juvenile Polyp 768. CSF Examination showed Turbid Colour w/ Low Sugar and High Protein. The most likely cause is: a) Viral Meningitis b) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage  c) Bacterial Meningitis d) Cerebrovascular Syphilis e) Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy 769. The following histologic patterns are seen in Fibrocystic Disease of the Breast EXCEPT: a) Adenosis b) Epithelial Hyperplasis c) Paget Cell d) Apocrine Metaplasia e) Fibrosis 770. Endocrine Amyloidosis is associated with: a) Papillary Carcinoma of Thyroid b) Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid c) Follicular Carcinoma of Thyroid d) Anaplastic Carcinoma of Thyroid e) Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis 771. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Meningioma: a) Predominantly Benign Tumors b) Compress Underlying Structures c) Preferentially Metastasize to Vertebrae(goes subarchnoid) d) Contains Psammona Bodies e) Commonly arise in Parasagital Convexity 772. The following are features of Acoustic Neuroma EXCEPT: a) Patient presents with Tinnitus and Hearing Loss b) Attached to Eighth Cranial Nerve c) Causes Local Compression of Adjacent Nerve d) Cells of Origin are Neurons (shwan cells) e) Have Autoni A and Autoni A Growth Patterns 773. Parakeratoisis and Munro Micro Absceus are seen in: a) Atopic Dermatitis b) Sebarrhoeic Dermatitis c) Lichen Planus d) Psoriasis e) Pemphigus Vegetans 774. Seronegative Arthritis is associated with: a) Atopic Dermatitis b) Sebarrhoeic Dermatitis c) Lichen Planus d) Psoriasis  e) Pemphigus Vegetans 775. Acantholysis (lysis of intracellular adhesion sites) resulting in Blister formation as seen in: a) Acne Vulgaris b) Psoriasis c) Pemphigus d) Lichen Planus e) Mycosis Fungoides 776. Liquefaction Degeneration of Basal Layer with Saw-Tooth appearance & a Band-Like Inflammatory Infiltrate are seen in: a) Pemphigus Vegetans b) Dermatitis Herpetiformis c) Lichen Planus d) Psoriasis e) Bullous Pemphigoid 777. The most common Primary Malignant Brain Tumor is: a) Astrocytoma-Glioblastoma Multiforme b) Eperdymona c) Medulloblastoma d) Oligodendroglioma e) Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumor 778. Epidural Hematoma are commonly the result of Bleeding from: a) Ruptured Bridging Vein b) Arteriovenous Malformation c) Middle Meningeal Artery Damage d) Rupture of Hypertensive Microaneurysm e) Rupture of a Berry Aneurysm 779. The following is NOT TRUE about Crohn’s Disease: a) Transmural Involvement of Bowel b) Non-Caseating Granulomas c) Formation of Fistula d) Cobblestone appearance of Mucosa e) The disease is limited to the Terminal Ileum 780. Which of the following is associated with Ulcerative Colitis: a) Primary Biliary Cirrhosis b) Secondary Biliary Cirrhosis c) Hepatic Adenoma d) Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis e) Hepatic Granuloma 781. The most important histological feature for the diagnosis of Chronic Hepatitis is: a) Kupffer Cell Hyperplasia b) Interface Hepatitis (piece meal necrosis) c) Mallory Bodies d) Sanded Nuclei e) Steatosis 782. The following CSF Findings: Low Glucose, High Protein & High Neutrophil Count are characteristically seen in: a) Meningococcal Meningitis b) Tuberculous Meningitis c) Viral Encephalitis d) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage e) All of the Above 783. In Classic Acute Viral Hepatitis, there is: a) Kupffer Cell Hyperplasia b) Bridging Necrosis of Hepatocytes c) Neutrophil Infiltrate in the Portal Tract(Lymphocyte) d) Both A & B e) Granuloma Formation 784. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Primary Biliary Cirrhosis: a) A High Serum Alkaline Phosphatase b) Presence of Antimitochondrial Antibodies c) Commoner in Males d) Affects Medium-Sized Intrahepatic Ducts e) Both B & C 785. Which of the following is True about Mallory Bodies: a) They are swollen Mitochondria b) Diagnostic of Alcoholic Hepatitis c) Seen in Primary Biliary Cirrhosis d) Both B & C e) None of the Above 786. Osteogenic Sarcomas can arise as a complication of: a) Osteopetrosis b) Osteomalacia c) Brown Tumor of Bone d) Paget’s Disease of Bone e) Rickets 787. Which of the following morpholgic features are NOT SEEN in Ulcerative Colitis:  a) Non-Caseating Granulomas b) Pesudopolyps c) Toxic Megacolon d) Crypt Abscesses e) Infiltration of Lamina Propria by Mononuclear Inflammatory Cells 788. The Ovarian Tumor most commonly associated with Endometrial Adenocarcinoma is: a) Serous Cystadenocarcinoma b) Mucinous Cyst Adenoma c) Brenner’s Tumor d) Granulosa Cell Tumor e) Gonadoblastoma 789. Primary Biliary Cirrhosis is best diagnosed by: a) Antimitochondrial Antibodies b) Antimicrosomal Antibodies c) Anti-Neutrophilic Cytoplasmic Antibodies d) Plasma Ceruloplasmin Level e) Liver Biopsy stained for Iron 790. Which of the following is not a probable consequence of Hyperparathyroidism: a) Bone Fracture b) Pancreatitis and Diabetes Mellitus c) Muscle Tetani d) Kidney Stones e) Duodenal Ulcer 737. Crypt Abscesses, Pseudopolyps and Broad-Based Ulcer are seen in: a) Intestinal Schistosomiasis b) Intestinal Amoebiasis c) Crohn’s Disease d) Ulcerative Colitis e) Enteric Fever 738. Which of the following Cardiac Lesions is most likely to develop in a patient who has advanced Carcinoma of the Pancreas: a) Dilated Cardiomyopathy b) Non-Bacterial Thrombotic Endocarditis c) Acute Fibrimous Pericarditis d) Endocardial Fibrosis e) Obstruction of Right Outflow Tract 739. Which of the following risk factors for Atherosclerosis is controllable: a) Increasing Age  b) Male Gender c) Cigarette Smoking d) Family History e) Genetic Abnormalities 740. Blue Sclerae seen in Osteogenesis Imperfecta is due to: a) Deposition of Copper Salts b) Decrease in Collagen content and Translucency of Sclera c) Increased Melanin Pigment in Irish d) Mucoid Degeneration of Sclera e) Deposition of Bile Pigment 741. Which of the following has the highest risk for Colo-Rectal Carcinoma: a) Ulcerative Colitis b) Crohn’s Disease c) Familial Polyposis Coli d) Non-Familial Polyposis e) Diverticulosis 742. Which of the following Bone Tumors gives rise to pain which is relieved by Aspirin: a) Osteoblastoma b) Osteochondroma c) Chondromyxoid Fibroma d) Osteoid Osteoma e) Endochondroma 743. Which of the following is a risk factor for Testicular Malignancy: a) History of Mumps Infection b) Testicular Atrophy c) Infertility d) Cryptorchidism e) Oestrogen Therapy 744. Which of the following is NOT true about Spontaneous Intracerebral Hemorrhage: a) Common in middle to late adult life b) Vascular malformation is the most common cause c) Associated with Hypertension d) Old Hemorrhage show Cavity Destruction of the Brain e) Reactive Astrocytes are seen at the Periphery of the Lesion 745. Which of the following would give a Dilated Left Atrium: a) Essential Hypertension b) Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy c) Mitral Valve Stenosis d) Aortic Aneurysm e) Carcinoid Syndrome 746. Mosaic Pattern under Polarized Light is seen in: a) Paget’s Disease of the Bone b) Osteomalacia c) Osteopetrosis d) Hyperparathyroidism e) Osteogenesis Imperfecta 747. Which of the following is NOT strogly associated with Smoking: a) Thromboangitis Obliterans b) Atherosclerosis c) Type B- Chronic Gastritis d) Renal Cell Carcinoma e) Impotence 748. Which of the following Antibodies is associated with Primary Biliary Cirrhosis: a) Antimitochondrial Antibodies b) Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies c) Antinuclear Antibodies d) Anti-Smooth Muscle Receptor Antibodies e) Anti-Basement Membrane Antibodies 749. Which of the following Malignant Tumors is associated with Human Papilloma Virus (HPV): a) Squamous Cell Carcinoma b) Adenocarcinoma c) Clear Cell Carcinoma d) Lymphoma e) Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor 695. Inhalation of which of the following is associated with Pleural Mesothelioma: a) Cotton Fibers b) Silica Dust c) Fumes with Iron Particles d) Asbestos Crystals e) Beryllium 696. All of the following recur in Renal Transplant EXCEPT: a) Focal Glomerulonephritis b) Membranoproliferative Glomeurlonephritis Type II c) IgA Nephropathy d) Lipoid Nephrosis 697. All of the following are true of Renal Cell Carcinoma EXCEPT: a) The Tumor Cell secretes Erythropoietin b) It originates from the Glomeruli c) The Tumor Cells are Rich in Glycogen d) The Tumor is often associated with Polycythemia e) Commonly invades the Renal Vein 698. A Diabetic Patient with Nodular Glomerulosclerosis will present clinically with: a) Hematuria b) Flank Pain c) Nephrotic Syndrome d) Nephritic Syndrome e) Anuria 699. Which of the following is true in Henoch-Schonlein Purpura: a) Serum IgA level is Elevated b) Serum IgM level is Elevated c) Serum IgE level is Elevated d) Serum IgG level is Elevated e) Serum Complement C3 is Elevated 700. Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome is most closely associated with: a) Moldy Hay b) Pigeon Fancier’s Disease c) Surfactant Deficiency d) Bronchial Obstruction e) Cystic Fibrosis 701. Sarcoidosis is most closely associated with: a) Hemoptysis b) Asteroid Bodies c) Hematemesis d) Excessive Surfactant e) Acute Glomerulonephritis 702. In Bronchiectasis one commonly see: a) Chronic Productive Cough b) Hemoptysis c) Lower Lobe Disease predominantly d) Grossly Abnormal Bronchograms e) All of the Above 703. Cavitary Disease at the Apex of the Lung suggests a Diagnosis of: a) Pancoast Tumor b) Pneumococcal Pneumonia c) Hypersensitivity Pneumonia d) Secondary Tuberculosis e) Bronchogenic Carcinoma 704. The following are known risk factors for aetiology of Breast Carcinoma EXCEPT: a) Positive Family History b) Ophorectomy before age of 35 years c) Early Menarche d) Late Menopause e) Hormone Replacement Therapy 705. Which of the following Thyroid Lesions shows Psammoma Bodies: a) Medullary Carcinoma b) Follicular Carcinoma c) Papillary Carcinoma d) Anaplastic Carcinoma e) Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis 706. Which of the following is the most common Testicular Tumor: a) Seminoma b) Embryonal Carcinoma c) Choriocarcinoma d) Mature Teratoma e) Leydig Cell Tumor 707. Which of the following cells has the most significant role in the pathogenesis of Rheumatoid Arthritis: a) CD4 T-Helper Cells b) CD8 T Cells c) NK Cells (natural killer) d) Mast Cells e) Polymorph Neutrophils 708. The following Hepatitis B serologic markers HBsAg Negative, HBsAb Positive, HBcAb Positive indicate: a) Carrier State b) Post Infection Immunity c) Vaccination Immunity d) Active Chronic Hepatitis  e) Acute Viral B Hepatitis 709. Non-Caseating Granulomas are seen in all of the following EXCEPT: a) Crohn’s Disease b) Ulcerative Colitis c) Primary Biliary Cirrhosis d) Temporal Arteritis e) Sarcoidosis 710. Which of the following Maternal Conditions is most associated with Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome: a) Hyperemisis Gravidarum b) Iron Deficiency Anemia c) Folate Deficiency d) Gestational Diabetes e) Systemic Lupus Erythematous 711. Which of the following Auto Antibodies is associated with Microscopic Polyarteritis Nodosa: a) Antimitochondrial Antibodies b) Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibody c) Antinuclear Antibody d) Anti Smooth Muscle Receptor Antibody e) Anti Basement Membrane Antibody 712. Which of the following Ovarian Tumors is associated with Struma Ovary: a) Serous Cystadenoma b) Granulosa Cell Tumors c) Dysgerminoma d) Choriocarcinoma e) Mature Cystic Teratoma 713. Which of the following Malignant Tumors is most likely to be found in the Jejunum: a) Squamous Cell Carcinoma b) Adenocarcinoma c) Clear Cell Carcinoma d) Lymphoma e) Fibrosarcoma 714. Which of the following most likely arise as a complication of Gastric Adenocarcinoma: a) Barret Mucosa b) Cushing Syndrome c) Krukenberg Tumor d) Oesophageal Varices e) Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis 715. Which of the following Bone Lesions is associated with Café-au-Lait Skin Pigmentation and Endocrinopathy: a) Osteomalacia b) Osteopetrosis c) Osteogenesis Imperfecta d) Polystitic Fibrous Dysplasia e) Anuerysmal Bone Cyst 716. A 50 year old Non-Smoker Female was diagnosed as having Lung Malignancy. Which of the following Histologic Types of Lung Cancer is she most likely having: a) Squamous Cell Carcinoma b) Small Cell Carcinoma c) Carcinoid Tumor d) Adenocarcinoma e) Mesthelioma 717. Which of the following is helpful in diagnosing Prostatic Carcinoma: a) Corpora Amylacea b) Psammoma Bodies c) Foci of Infarction d) Peri-Neural Invasion e) All of the Above 718. Which of the following Ovarian Tumors is associated with Endometrial Hyperplasia and Endometrial Carcinoma: a) Serous Cystadenoma b) Granulosa Cell Tumors c) Dysgerminoma d) Choriocarcinoma e) Mature Cystic Teratoma 719. Which of the following is pathognomonic of Rheumatic Fever in an Aschoff Body: a) Foci of Fibrinoid Degeneration b) Lymphocytes c) Plasma Cells d) Anitschow Cells e) Multinucleated Giant Cells 720. Which of the following Arterial Diseases is characterized histiologically by a Granulomatous Inflammatory Reaction with Multinucleated Giant Cells: a) Atherosclerosis b) Thromboangitis Obliterans c) Temporal Arteritis d) Polyarteritis Nodosa e) Kawasaki Syndrome 721. Which of the following is NOT a morphologic feature of Acute Viral B Hepatitis:  a) Ground Glass Hepatocytes b) Sanded Nuclei c) Cholestasis d) Bile Duct Proliferation e) Kupffer Cell Hyperplasia 722. Which of the following is associated with Ulcerative Colitis: a) Acute Pancreatitis b) Fistula Formation c) H. pylori associated Gastritis d) Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis e) Primary Biliary Cirrhosis 723. Which of the following autoantibodies is associated with Hyperthyroidism: a) Antimitochondrial Antibodies b) Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibody c) TSH- Receptor Stimulating Antibody d) TSH- Receptor Blocking Antibody e) Anti-Smooth Muscle Receptor Antibody 724. 24 Hours after a patient had a Myocardial Infarction, which of the following complications will he most likely experience: a) Constrictive Pericarditis b) Cardiac Arrhytmia c) Thromboembolism d) Myocardial Rupture e) Floppy Mitral Valve 725. 80 year old male suffering from Left Ventricular Failure is most likely having as an underlying cause: a) Acute Rheumatic Fever b) Dilated Cardiomyopathy c) Mitral Valve Stenosis d) Calcific Aortic Stenosis e) Infective Endocarditis 726. Which of the following Ovarian Tumors has a prominent lymphocytic component and resembles Testicular Seminoma: a) Granulosa Cell Tumor b) Dysgerminoma c) Brenner Tumor d) Mucinous Cystadenoma e) Papillary Adenocarcinoma 727. Which of the following has the worst long term prognosis: a) Hepatitis A  b) Hepatitis B c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis D e) Hepatitis E 728. Paget Disease of the Nipple is most associated with: a) Lobular Carcinoma in Situ b) Ductal Carcinoma in Situ (DCIS) c) Invasive Lobular Carcinoma d) Intraductal Papilloma e) Mammary Duct Ectasia 729. Which of the following Primary Bone Tumors has a differential diagnosis of Lymphoma and Secondary deposit from Neuroblastoma: a) Osteogenic Sarcoma b) Chondrosarcoma c) Multiple Myeloma d) Giant Cell Tumor e) Ewing Sarcoma 730. Estimation of level CEA (Carcino-Embryonic Antigen) is most helpful in: a) Diagnosis of Pre-Invasive Colo-Rectal Cancer b) Diagnosis of Metastatic Colo-Rectal Carcinoma c) Post-Surgical Follow-up of Colo-Rectal Cancer(also in medullary carcinoma in the thyroid) d) Malignant Change in Ulcerative Colitis e) Malignant Change in Crohn’s Disease 731. Visual Disturbances and Weak Upper Extremity Pulse are signs of: a) Goodpasture Disease b) Kawasaki Disease c) Polyartritis Nodosa d) Takayasu Disease e) Thromboangitis Obliterans 732. Cobble-Stone appearance is seen in: a) Ulcerative Colitis b) Ischemic Colitis c) Crohn’s Disease d) Non-Familial Polyposis e) Diverticulitis 733. Which of the following is not considered as a factor of Myocardial insult leading to Dilated Cardiomyopathy:  a) Coxsackie Virus B Infection b) Pregnancy c) Alcohol Abuse d) Thyrotoxicosis e) Thiamine Deficiency 734. Carbonic Anhydrase II Deficiency is associated with: a) Paget Disease of Bone b) Osteomalacia c) Osteopetrosis d) Hyperparathyroidism e) Osteogenesis Imperfecta 735. Cerebellar Tonsillar Herniation is a serious complication of Raised Intracranial Pressure because: a) Causes Papilloedema b) Causes Cranial Nerve Palsy c) Leads to Non-Communicating Hydrocephalus d) Causes Brain Stem Compression 736. Flask-Shaped Ulcers are seen in: a) Intestinal Schistosomiasis b) Intestinal Amoebiasis c) Crohn’s Disease d) Ulcerative Colitis e) Enteric Fever 556. Endarteritis Obliterans is most closely associated with: a) Mycotic Aneurysm b) Atherosclerotic Aneurysm c) Dissecting Aneurysm d) Syphilic Aneurysm e) Berry Aneurysm 553. Which of the following is not a complication of Myocardial Infarction: a) Mural Thrombosis b) Arrhythmia c) Mitral Stenosis d) Dresseler's Syndrome e) Cardiogenic Shock 554. Krukenberg Tumor of the Ovary is an example of: a) Lymphatic Spread b) Vascular Spread c) Transcolomic Spread d) Intraductal Spread e) Transluminal Spread 482. Which of the following is the most significant finding on Microscopic Analysis of Urine for a patient suffering from Acute Pyelonephritis: a) Hyaline Cast b) Oval Fat Bodies c) Red Blood Cells d) White Blood Cell Casts e) Triple Phosphate Crystals 401. The secretion of Parathyroid Hormone is controlled by the concentration of: a) Extracellular Ionized Calcium b) Calcium bound to Citrate c) Calcium bound to Plasma Proteins d) Calcium inside the Bone Matrix e) None of the Above 387. The main source of Androgens in males is: a) Adrenal Cortex b) Adrenal Medulla c) Testis d) Anterior Pituitary e) Supra Renal Gland 388. The test for investigation of Adrenal Hypofunction is: a) Low Dose Dexo Methasone Test b) Synacthen Test c) Insulin Test d) Glucose Tolerance Test e) None of the Above 389. In Addison's Disease: a) Hypertension b) Gain of Weight c) Bruises d) Hyperpigmentation e) Hyperglycemia 390. Causes of Secondary Adrenal Hypofunction: a) Autociuvene Adrenalitis b) T.B of Adrenals c) Adrenal Ectomy d) Pituitary Tumors e) Meningo-Coccal Septicemia 391. Concerning Addison's Disease: a) There may be Hypotension b) Plasma Renin is low c) There is Hyponatremia d) A and B e) A and C 392. Which of the following is a feature of Cardiovascular Syphillis? a) Dissecting Aortic Aneurysm b) Mitral Stenosis c) Hemopericardium d) Mycotic Aneurysm of the Thoracic Aorta e) Angina Pectoris 381. Early Features of Pituitary Failure include: a) TSH Deficiency b) Growth Hormone Deficiency c) Thyroxine Deficiency d) Cortisol Deficiency e) ACTH Deficiency 382. Excess Growth Hormone in Adults causes: a) Giantisim b) Acromegally c) Dwarfism d) Hypoglycemia e) Has No Effects 383. Excessive Growth Hormone leads to the following except: a) Excessive Sweating b) Greasy Skin c) Acne d) Decreased Head Circumference e) Diabetes Mellitus 384. Physiological Hyperprolactinemia can be caused by the following except: a) Stress b) Sleep c) Suckling d) Prolactinoma e) Pregnancy