Genetics Day 1
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Genetics Day 1

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Questions and Answers

What genetic risk is associated with the patient from the genetic testing?

  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Emphysema (correct)
  • Huntington's disease
  • Hemophilia
  • What lifestyle factor is noted regarding the patient?

  • He has never smoked.
  • He smokes cigars. (correct)
  • He exercises frequently.
  • He is a vegetarian.
  • Why might the patient be reluctant to share genetic information with his wife?

  • He thinks the information is not important.
  • He is unsure how she will react. (correct)
  • He is not concerned about the risks.
  • He believes the tests are unreliable.
  • Which condition is NOT mentioned as a potential risk from the genetic testing?

    <p>Diabetes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible consequence of the patient being overweight?

    <p>Increased risk of colon cancer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the patient's overall health condition?

    <p>He is relatively healthy but has some risk factors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What encompasses the details of ancestry and predictions of future health?

    <p>Your genome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What proportion of the human genome is made up of protein coding sequences?

    <p>1.5%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    From where is mitochondrial DNA inherited?

    <p>Only from the mother</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the estimated number of genes in the human genome?

    <p>25,000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes tolerated SNPs?

    <p>They are found in non-coding regions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is used to identify SNP variations?

    <p>Amplifying and hybridizing DNA probes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organ is most commonly affected by mitochondrial DNA-related diseases?

    <p>Skeletal muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the size of the human mitochondrial genome?

    <p>16.5 kb</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was the cost and coverage of sequencing the human genome in 2024?

    <p>$500 with 30-50x coverage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which population groups were identified using genome-wide SNPs from Qatari genomes?

    <p>Q1 Arab, Q2 Persian, Q3 African.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of human genetic diseases is attributed to mitochondrial DNA?

    <p>1%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do genes play in cellular function?

    <p>Tell cells how to function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do copy number variations (CNVs) include?

    <p>Insertions and deletions of DNA segments.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does inbreeding in the Qatari population compare to that in European populations?

    <p>Qataris have a lower inbreeding coefficient.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of promoters in gene expression?

    <p>They control which genes are expressed in specific tissues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of DNA sequences do unrelated humans share?

    <p>99.9%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary contributor to human heterozygosity?

    <p>Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many known variant sites are there in the NCBI database?

    <p>40 million</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process results in thousands of different protein types from genes?

    <p>Alternative splicing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a SNP?

    <p>A variant of a single nucleotide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are copy number variants?

    <p>Variants of 1 kb to several Mb in length</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do epigenetic controls like methylation do?

    <p>They can turn genes on and off.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of genetic variation includes whole chromosomes?

    <p>Chromosomal variants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of histone modifications in gene regulation?

    <p>They influence the physical structure of DNA.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the probability that the woman is a heterozygous carrier for a cystic fibrosis mutation?

    <p>1/2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the probability that a child will be affected with Phenylketonuria PKU if his/her mother is a heterozygous carrier?

    <p>1/256</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If persons III-1 and III-2 mate, what is the probability that their offspring will be affected by PKU?

    <p>1/36</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of inheritance does Phenylketonuria (PKU) follow?

    <p>Autosomal recessive</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What consequence does untreated PKU have on affected children?

    <p>Severe mental retardation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Assuming II-1 and II-5 are homozygous normal, which genetic state influences III-1 and III-2's offspring?

    <p>Both being heterozygous</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many ways can the offspring inherit a recessive disorder from heterozygous parents?

    <p>4</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a pedigree analysis, which individual is affected by PKU?

    <p>II-3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a heterozygous state indicate about an individual concerning autosomal recessive disorders?

    <p>They are a carrier for the disorder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What component in genetics is essential for calculating the probability of inheriting a recessive disorder?

    <p>Parental genotype</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What forms the base pairing in DNA according to Watson-Crick model?

    <p>Adenine pairs with Thymine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about DNA base pairing is correct?

    <p>Guanine and Cytosine form three hydrogen bonds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does Chargaff’s rule state regarding DNA composition?

    <p>A + G = T + C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What element is consistently found in the structure of DNA bases?

    <p>Nitrogen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pair characterizes the structure of DNA based on base pairing principles?

    <p>Purine with Pyrimidine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who are credited with the development of the molecular model of DNA?

    <p>James Watson and Francis Crick</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of methyl guanine methyl transferase (MGMT)?

    <p>To reverse the methylation of guanine bases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of repair does base excision repair (BER) primarily target?

    <p>Damage caused by endogenous events</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a disadvantage of base excision repair (BER)?

    <p>It involves a complex mechanism of action</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following functions does nucleotide excision repair (NER) serve?

    <p>Repair of DNA distortions caused by bulky adducts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process allows the generation of multiple peptides from the same mRNA due to the use of different start codons?

    <p>Leaky scanning</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which elongation factor is responsible for translation accuracy in prokaryotes?

    <p>EF-Tu</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process does base excision repair (BER) NOT include?

    <p>Incorporation of new nucleotides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What enzyme system is associated with nucleotide excision repair (NER) in prokaryotes?

    <p>Uvr excinuclease system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism allows for fast protein synthesis by coupling GTP hydrolysis?

    <p>Codon-anticodon interaction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What phenomenon occurs when tRNA slips on the ribosome leading to a frameshift?

    <p>tRNA slippage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bases are typically recognized by base-specific DNA glycosylases in BER?

    <p>8-oxoguanine and uracil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many amino acids can eukaryotic ribosomes incorporate per second during protein synthesis?

    <p>2-6</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key mechanism involved in base excision repair (BER)?

    <p>Base flipping mechanism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of recycling factors in translation termination?

    <p>To prevent initiation on downstream start codons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of messenger RNA (mRNA) in the process of transcription?

    <p>To carry coded information from DNA to ribosomes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes RNA from DNA chemically?

    <p>RNA uses uracil instead of thymine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which event occurs during transcription?

    <p>RNA is synthesized from a DNA template</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does co-transcriptional translation occur in cells?

    <p>RNA is translated before transcription is complete</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes RNA’s typical structural form?

    <p>RNA is usually found as a single-stranded molecule</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)?

    <p>To catalyze the formation of peptide bonds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During RNA processing, what is the significance of RNA splicing?

    <p>To remove introns from the pre-mRNA molecule</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the process of transcription primarily concerned with?

    <p>Synthesis of RNA from DNA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is essential for the synthesis of RNA during transcription?

    <p>DNA template</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these components is NOT involved in the transcription process?

    <p>Transfer RNA (tRNA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Case Overview

    • 35-year-old investment banker with routine health examination, presenting no significant health issues.
    • Lifestyle factors: cigar smoking, 15 lbs overweight, infrequent exercise.
    • Engaged in genetic testing through a saliva sample for predictive analysis.

    Consumer Predictive Genetic Testing

    • Identified increased risk for several conditions:
      • Emphysema
      • Coronary artery disease
      • Allergy to penicillin-type antibiotics
      • Colon cancer
      • Early onset Alzheimer's
    • Patient expresses concern about sharing genetic information with wife and seeks guidance.

    Importance of Patient’s Genome

    • Patient's genome reveals ancestry and potential health risks.
    • Mutations may indicate possible diseases and responses to treatments, diet, and medications.
    • The genome acts as a guide for disease prevention and healthcare customization.

    Human Nuclear Genome

    • Composed of approximately 3.1 billion DNA letters across 2 sets of 23 chromosomes from each parent.
    • Encodes about 25,000 genes responsible for cellular functioning.
    • Protein-coding sequences constitute only 1.5% of the entire genome.

    Mitochondrial Genome

    • Contains 16.5 kb of DNA, encoding essential components for oxidative phosphorylation and protein synthesis.
    • Inherited exclusively from the mother and linked to ~1% of genetic diseases, affecting high-energy-use organs.

    Gene Counting and Expression

    • Estimated 25,000 genes contribute to human traits.
    • Various mechanisms such as epigenetics and alternative splicing enable diverse protein production.
    • Promoters and regulatory elements influence gene expression in specific tissues.

    Genetic Diversity

    • Unrelated humans exhibit 99.9% shared DNA.
    • Human diversity includes approximately 10 to 15 million single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) arising from evolution.

    Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs)

    • Polymorphic variations in DNA sequences potentially affecting protein function.
    • Two categories:
      • Tolerated SNPs: typically do not alter function.
      • Deleterious SNPs: can disrupt protein function, impacting health.

    Genome Sequencing Costs and Accessibility

    • Cost of sequencing the human genome has drastically decreased from 2.3billion(2001)toapproximately2.3 billion (2001) to approximately 2.3billion(2001)toapproximately500 (2024).
    • Advances in technology have reduced the time for sequencing to 1-3 days and increased coverage.

    Copy Number Variations (CNVs)

    • Submicroscopic genetic variations that can influence gene expression and phenotypic outcomes.
    • CNVs include deletions, insertions, duplications, and other complex changes.

    Genetic Variation and Disease Risk

    • Genetic disorders can be monogenic or complex, involving multiple genes.
    • Common monogenic disorders include cystic fibrosis and hereditary hemochromatosis.

    Modifier Genes

    • Genes that influence the relationship between other genes and their expression, contributing to phenotype variations.

    Complex, Multigenic Disorders

    • Disorders like cardiovascular diseases, diabetes, and certain cancers arise from the interaction of multiple genes.

    Genetic Alleles in Complex Disorders

    • Low prevalence, high penetrance alleles like BRCA1/2 and HNPCC increase the risk of specific cancers.
    • High prevalence, low penetrance alleles such as APC and Factor V Leiden can elevate risks for certain health conditions.

    Alzheimer’s Disease

    • Involves both high and low prevalence genetic factors in its manifestation and progression.

    Cystic Fibrosis Carrier Probability

    • Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive disorder; both parents must carry the mutation for a child to be affected.
    • Probability of being a carrier for a woman with a niece affected by CF is 1 in 4, or 25%, assuming the affected niece's parents are both carriers.

    Phenylketonuria (PKU) Overview

    • Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive condition characterized by metabolism errors in phenylalanine, leading to severe intellectual disabilities if untreated.
    • A known heterozygous carrier mother has a probability of 25% for each child to inherit the PKU disorder.

    Genetic Probability Calculations

    • The formula for genetic inheritance probability in autosomal recessive conditions:
      • For a mother's heterozygosity (P): 1 (mother) x 1/4 (child probability) = 1/4 chance of child being affected.
    • Further calculations for different scenarios can yield probabilities such as 1 in 256 for certain offspring combinations.

    Pedigree Analysis and Inheritance

    • Pedigree must be assessed to determine inheritance modes: dominant, recessive, or linked traits.
    • Affected individuals can be represented; homozygous normal individuals can be assumed based on pedigree notation (e.g., II-1 and II-5).
    • Example calculations for III-1 and III-2 mating:
      • Both heterozygous (1/2 x 1/2) yield a 1/4 chance for affected children, contextualizing genetic ratio implications.

    Probability of Offspring Affected

    • If both III-1 and III-2 are heterozygous carriers, the offspring have a calculated probability of being affected:
      • Using the formula 1/4 (affected children probability) x 1/3 (heterozygous probability) results in 1/36 chance for an affected offspring.

    Conclusion

    • Understanding probabilities in genetic counseling is crucial for assessing risks and guiding patients in potential genetic outcomes for their children.

    Base Pairing and DNA Structure

    • Base pairing follows Watson-Crick rules: A pairs with T (2 hydrogen bonds) and G pairs with C (3 hydrogen bonds).
    • A constant width in DNA is maintained by pairing a purine (A, G) with a pyrimidine (T, C).
    • Chargaff's rule states that the amount of adenine (A) plus guanine (G) equals thymine (T) plus cytosine (C).
    • DNA was structurally modeled by James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953.
    • Methylation of guanine can be reversed by the enzyme MGMT, critical for DNA repair.

    DNA Repair Mechanisms

    • Excision repair types include Base Excision Repair (BER), Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER), and Mismatch Repair (MMR).
    • BER addresses damage from endogenously occurring events, such as oxidative damage and deaminations.
    • Key steps in BER include damage recognition, incision, removal, gap filling, and ligation.
    • BER is energetically inexpensive but requires specificity provided by DNA glycosylases.

    Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER)

    • NER is used for repairing bulky DNA adducts that distort the helix, offering flexibility in response to environmental damage.
    • In prokaryotes, NER is carried out by the Uvr excinuclease system.

    Central Dogma of Molecular Biology

    • Central dogma describes the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to protein.
    • RNA, differing from DNA by containing ribose sugar and uracil (U) instead of thymine (T), exists as a single strand.
    • Transcription involves synthesizing mRNA from DNA, while translation converts mRNA to peptides in the cytoplasm.

    Transcription and Translation

    • Transcription occurs in the nucleus, resulting in the formation of mRNA.
    • Translation involves the decoding of mRNA into polypeptides, utilizing tRNA and ribosomes.
    • Co-transcriptional translation is observed where translation occurs simultaneously with transcription.

    Variability in Translation

    • Some viruses utilize leaky scanning, tRNA slippage, and other mechanisms to generate multiple peptides from one mRNA strand.
    • Proofreading during translation is maintained by elongation factors which ensure accuracy by driving the process and hydrolyzing GTP.

    Ribosome Function and Antibiotic Interaction

    • Multiple ribosomes can simultaneously translate a single mRNA (polyribosome) for efficient protein synthesis.
    • Common antibiotics and toxins target prokaryotic ribosomes, inhibiting processes such as tRNA-mRNA interactions and peptide bond formation:
      • Aminoglycosides (e.g., streptomycin) bind to small ribosomal subunits.
      • Chloramphenicol inhibits peptide bond formation at the peptidyl transferase center.
      • Tetracycline blocks tRNA-mRNA interactions.
      • Macrolides bind the large subunit, preventing peptide bond formation.
      • Ribosome inactivating proteins like Shigella toxin and ricin disrupt rRNA GTPase interactions.

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