Genetics of Quantitative Traits

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Questions and Answers

What is currently the preferred method for delivering DNA into cells in gene therapy?

  • Particle bombardment
  • Direct injection
  • Electroporation
  • Viral vectors (correct)

Which vector is mentioned as having a common target for the immune system that can reduce transgene expression?

  • Lentivirus
  • Adenovirus (correct)
  • Herpes virus
  • Retrovirus

What is a benefit of ex vivo gene therapy?

  • It targets multiple tissues simultaneously.
  • It has no immune response issues.
  • It allows for random gene integration.
  • It removes cells for editing before reinjection. (correct)

What can be added to a transgene to help prevent inappropriate gene expression?

<p>Insulators (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential risk associated with gene therapy involving adenovirus?

<p>Lethal immune responses (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of diet is often recommended for treating OTC deficiency?

<p>Low-protein diet (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which technique is mentioned as being potentially harmful to cells during DNA transfer?

<p>Electroporation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor plays a crucial role in ensuring that the transgene is expressed at an adequate level?

<p>Strong promoters (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected phenotypic effect of additive inheritance?

<p>A phenotypic effect of 0, 1, or 2 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hypothesis suggests that a few genes can have large additive effects on a quantitative trait?

<p>Hypothesis 2 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the environment play in determining phenotypes?

<p>It modifies the phenotype alongside genotype (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes the phenotype resulting from incomplete dominance?

<p>An intermediate phenotype distinct from both homozygous forms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a quantitative trait locus (QTL) indicate?

<p>Is masked by environmental interactions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of RPE65 in the context of vision?

<p>To assist in the regeneration of visual pigments (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is primarily associated with mutations in the RPE65 gene?

<p>Hereditary retinal degeneration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What was the outcome of the gene therapy trials on Briard dogs with RPE65 mutations?

<p>Electroretinograms showed partial restoration of vision. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In human clinical trials, what was the notable outcome at 12 months after RPE65 gene therapy?

<p>Visual sensitivity improvements were maintained. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What animal model is used to study the effects of RPE65 mutations on vision?

<p>Briard dogs with congenital stationary night blindness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complication did Jesse experience four days after participating in the OTC gene therapy trial?

<p>Massive immune reaction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What was the primary function of the IL2 receptor gamma in the gene therapy trial for SCID X-linked?

<p>Facilitate T-cell activation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What potential outcome can occur if a transgene inserts into a proto-oncogene?

<p>Expression leading to cancer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cellular component was primarily targeted in the gene therapy trial involving CD34+ cells?

<p>Precursor to lymphocytes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gene is noted for its involvement in T-cell lymphoblastic Leukemia as a result of gene therapy?

<p>LMO2 gene (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic symptom of Leber congenital amaurosis (LCA)?

<p>Total blindness by age 30-40 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of experimental approach was suggested for identifying genes involved in Leber congenital amaurosis?

<p>Candidate gene approach (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant challenge associated with gene therapy, as highlighted in the complications experienced by Jesse?

<p>Unexpected immune reactions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the potential effects of deletions on gene expression?

<p>Larger deletions tend to have more severe effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by the presence of an extra chromosome 21?

<p>Down syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor increases the risk of having a child with Down syndrome?

<p>Women becoming pregnant later in life (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of inversion does not include the centromere?

<p>Paracentric inversion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which situation would a deletion mapping approach be most useful?

<p>To locate mutations in genes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of nonreciprocal translocation between chromosomes?

<p>Only one chromosome loses genetic material while another gains it. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern of prenatal screening tests?

<p>To assess the risk of potential genetic diseases (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a Robertsonian translocation typically involve?

<p>Swapping material between two acrocentric chromosomes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes how duplications can arise?

<p>By misalignment during meiosis leading to unequal crossing over. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the potential consequence of an inversion that includes a breakpoint within a gene?

<p>Complete gene loss or inactivation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about microarray analysis is true?

<p>It allows for simultaneous detection of multiple genetic variations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the presence of a balancer chromosome affect Drosophila mutants?

<p>It inhibits recombination, maintaining specific mutations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities is associated with male infertility?

<p>Klinefelter syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is typically assessed during fetal testing?

<p>Presence of abnormal karyotypes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Broad Sense Heritability (H2) indicate about a phenotype?

<p>It reflects how much phenotypic variation is attributable to genetic variation in a population. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of genetic variation is considered predictive?

<p>Additive effects (Va) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true about Nonsense mutations?

<p>They result in premature termination of protein synthesis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Loss of Function mutation typically indicate?

<p>The mutated gene results in no activity or reduced activity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is Narrow Sense Heritability (h2) defined?

<p>Proportion of phenotypic variation due to additive genetic variation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of mutation typically arises without a known mutagen?

<p>Spontaneous mutation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In McClintock's experiment, what is the role of the Ac element?

<p>It activates the Ds element to cause breakage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a frameshift mutation likely to affect?

<p>The sequence of codons downstream of the mutation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines transposable elements in eukaryotes?

<p>They can move from one position to another in the genome. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the importance of using quantitative trait loci (QTL) in genetic mapping?

<p>To identify the genetic basis of complex traits. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes a transition mutation?

<p>A purine is replaced with another purine or a pyrimidine with another pyrimidine. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect can mutations have on biosynthetic pathways?

<p>They can halt the pathway from proceeding to final products. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an example of a gain of function mutation?

<p>A mutation causing a protein to be expressed at inappropriate times. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Additive Inheritance

The combined effect of multiple genes, where the contributions of each gene add up without any interactions.

Quantitative Trait

A trait whose phenotype is determined by the combined effects of multiple genes (polygenic) and/or environmental factors (multifactorial).

Polygenic Inheritance

Several genes influencing a single trait. Variation is based soleley on heredity.

Multifactorial Trait

A characteristic that is influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.

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Incomplete Dominance

A heterozygous genotype results in an intermediate phenotype, unlike either homozygous.

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Broad-sense heritability

The proportion of phenotypic variation in a population or family that is due to genetic variation. It is calculated as Vg/Vp, where Vg is genetic variance and Vp is phenotypic variance.

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Narrow-sense heritability

The proportion of phenotypic variation due to additive genetic variance (Va). Calculated as Va/Vp.

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Quantitative Trait Loci (QTL)

Specific regions on chromosomes that influence a quantitative trait.

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Genetic Mapping

Method to determine the location of genes on a chromosome.

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Recombinant inbred lines (RILs)

A set of inbred lines derived from an initial cross of two different inbred parental lines

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Base Substitution

A type of mutation where one nucleotide base is replaced by another.

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Deletion Mutation

A mutation where one or more nucleotides are removed from a DNA sequence.

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Insertion Mutation

A mutation where one or more nucleotides are added to a DNA sequence.

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Point Mutation

A type of mutation that affects a single nucleotide pair in a DNA sequence.

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Silent Mutation

A type of point mutation that does not change the amino acid sequence of the protein produced.

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Missense Mutation

A mutation that changes one amino acid to another in the protein sequence.

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Nonsense Mutation

A mutation that creates a premature stop codon, shortening the protein.

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Frameshift Mutation

A mutation that shifts the reading frame of the genetic code, altering all subsequent codons and thus the amino acid sequence.

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Spontaneous Mutation

A mutation that occurs without external factors.

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Induced Mutation

A mutation that's caused by exposure to external factors.

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Gene Therapy Challenges

Gene therapy aims to treat diseases by modifying genes. However, there are several challenges to overcome. Getting the desired DNA into the correct cells, ensuring it's expressed properly, and minimizing immune responses are crucial.

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Viral Vectors

Specialized viruses used to deliver therapeutic genes into cells. They offer efficiency and speed but require extensive modifications to ensure safety.

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Ex Vivo Gene Therapy

A method where cells are removed from the body, modified with the therapeutic gene outside the body, and then reintroduced. This allows precise targeting of cells.

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Strong Promoters

DNA sequences that strongly activate gene expression, ensuring the therapeutic gene produces enough of the desired protein to have an effect.

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Tissue-Specific Promoters

DNA sequences that activate gene expression only in specific tissues, ensuring the therapeutic gene works only where it's needed.

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Immune Response to Gene Therapy

The body's immune system can react against the viral vector or the therapeutic gene product, leading to reduced therapeutic effects or even serious health problems.

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OTC Deficiency and Gene Therapy

A genetic disorder where the body can't break down ammonia properly. Gene therapy trials using adenovirus to deliver the correct gene have faced challenges due to the widespread immunity to adenovirus.

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Consequences of Immune Response

Immune responses to gene therapy can lead to reduced therapeutic gene expression, as the immune system attacks the modified cells, and in severe cases, even death.

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RPE65

A gene primarily expressed in retinal pigment epithelium, responsible for producing an isomerase crucial for vision.

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Isomerase

An enzyme that converts a molecule into its isomer. In RPE65's case, it transforms all-trans retinal to 11-cis retinal.

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Retinal Regeneration

The process of converting all-trans retinal back to 11-cis retinal, essential for vision.

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Leber Congenital Amaurosis

A rare inherited eye disorder affecting retinal function, often caused by mutations in genes like RPE65.

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Gene Therapy for LCA

A treatment approach where a functional copy of the RPE65 gene is delivered to the eye using a virus, aiming to restore vision.

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Gene Therapy Risks: Immune Reaction

Gene therapy can trigger a massive immune response, potentially leading to death. This can occur when a patient's immune system is sensitized to the vector used in treatment.

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Gene Therapy Risks: Transgene Insertion

There's a risk that the transgene (therapeutic gene) can insert into a functional gene, disrupting its function and potentially leading to problems like cancer.

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Gene Therapy Success: SCID-X1

Gene therapy successfully treated boys with SCID-X1, a genetic disorder impairing the immune system. However, some patients later developed leukemia.

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SCID-X1 Gene Therapy Leukemia

The leukemia observed in some SCID-X1 patients was caused by the transgene inserting near a gene called LMO2, increasing its expression, leading to uncontrolled cell growth.

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Leber Congenital Amaurosis (LCA)

LCA is a genetic disorder leading to blindness, caused by mutations in genes vital for vision. There is no cure, with blindness progressing over time.

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LCA Causes: Gene Mutations

LCA is caused by mutations in specific genes crucial for vision. For a person to develop LCA, both copies of the gene must be mutated.

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LCA Treatment: Gene Therapy

Gene therapy is being investigated as a potential treatment for LCA, targeting specific genes involved in the disease. However, it's still in the experimental phase.

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LCA Candidate Gene Approach

Researchers use the candidate gene approach to study LCA. This involves focusing on genes suspected to be involved in the disease, based on their functions and potential role in vision.

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X Inactivation Timing

X inactivation, the process of silencing one X chromosome in females, doesn't happen until the 100-cell stage in embryonic development. This means that both X chromosomes are active in the beginning of development.

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Trisomy

A condition where a person has three copies of a particular chromosome instead of the usual two.

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Down Syndrome

Trisomy 21, a genetic disorder caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21.

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Klinefelter Syndrome

A genetic disorder in males caused by an extra X chromosome (XXY).

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Genomic Hybridization

A technique using microarrays to detect duplications or deletions in DNA.

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Prenatal Testing

Tests conducted during pregnancy to assess fetal health and identify potential abnormalities.

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Nuchal Translucency

An ultrasound measurement of the fluid-filled space at the back of the fetal neck, used as part of prenatal screening.

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Chorionic Villi Sampling

A prenatal diagnostic test where a small sample of placental tissue is taken for genetic analysis.

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Amniocentesis

A prenatal diagnostic test where amniotic fluid is collected for genetic analysis.

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Preimplantation Embryo Diagnosis

Genetic screening of embryos before implantation in IVF, allowing for selection of healthy embryos.

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Polytene Chromosome

Giant chromosomes found in some fly species, with multiple copies of DNA that are visible under a microscope.

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Deletion

A type of chromosomal mutation where a portion of a chromosome is missing.

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Deletion Loop

The loop formed when a deleted segment of a chromosome pairs with its homologous chromosome during meiosis.

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Pseudodominance

The expression of a recessive allele due to the deletion of the dominant allele on the homologous chromosome.

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Duplication

A type of chromosomal mutation where a segment of a chromosome is duplicated.

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Study Notes

Additive Effects

  • Additive effects depend on the number of alleles present; a phenotypic effect can be 0, 1, or 2.
  • Frequency is highest in the middle of a Bell Curve graph.
  • Additive inheritance means that the contributions of each locus add up without any interactions or dominance/epistasis.

Genetic Origins of Quantitative Traits

  • Hypothesis 1: Many loci with small equal and additive effects contribute to variation.
  • Hypothesis 2: A few genes with large additive effects influence variations.
  • Polygenic traits are solely influenced by genetics, multiple genes contribute to the trait.
  • Multifactorial traits are influenced by both genes and environmental factors.

Environmental Effects

  • Environmental factors affect traits.
  • Phenotype (observable trait) = Genotype + Environment.
  • E.g. Siamese cats fur color changes due to temperature

Quantitative Traits

  • Variation in traits influenced by genotype and additive effects.
  • Affected by environment and genotype.
  • Individual phenotypic classes can be masked by the environment.

Calculating Heritability

  • Phenotypic variation is attributable to genetic and environmental factors.

  • Calculating broad sense heritability: H² = Vg/Vp (Vg=genetic variation, Vp=total phenotypic variation).

  • Narrow sense heritability: h² = Va/Vp (Va = additive genetic variation).

  • A high H² value (or h²) indicates that environment has minimal impact.

  • Heritability is specific to particular families or populations.

Quantitative Trait Loci (QTL) Mapping

  • Identifying genes responsible for quantitative traits.
  • Genetic mapping and association of markers with traits.
  • Recombinant inbred lines (RILs) are used to identify chromosomes linked to traits.

Mutations

  • Mutations are changes in the DNA sequence that can affect phenotype.
  • Classifications of mutations: base substitutions (transition or transversions), deletions, insertions, inversions, and reciprocal translocations.
  • Forward mutations: wild type → mutant Reverse mutations: mutant allele → wild type alleles.

Molecular Consequences of Mutations

  • Silent (synonymous) mutations: do not change the amino acid sequence of a protein.
  • Missense mutations: change an amino acid sequence of a protein.
  • Nonsense mutations: change a codon to a stop codon, result in a shorter protein.
  • Frameshift: cause a change in the reading frame, resulting in a drastic change in a protein's structure.

Epigenetic Modifications

  • Changes in gene expression, not due to alterations in the DNA sequence.
  • DNA methylation, histone modifications, and non-coding RNA influence gene expression
  • Hertiable changes over generations.
  • Imprinting: genes are expressed differently depending on whether they are inherited from mother or father.

Chromosomal Abnormalities

  • Aneuploidy: having an abnormal number of chromosomes.
  • Monosomy: loss of one chromosome (2n-1).
  • Trisomy: gain of one chromosome (2n+1).
  • Polyploidy: having more than two complete sets of chromosomes. and their impact on phenotype.

Transposable Elements (Transposons)

  • Segments of DNA that can move within a genome.
  • Transposition: occurs in different ways (e.g., retrotransposons which use RNA intermediates).
  • Effects on genomes and phenotype: can affect genes, create mutations, and sometimes be beneficial as they can lead to new variations.
  • Transposons can be studied in model organisms, often involving cytological studies.
  • How they are important in evolution/disease: play a role in evolution and potentially disease.

Somatic Gene Therapy

  • Modification of somatic cells (not germline).
  • Used to treat a wide range of inherited and acquired diseases.
  • How it's related to model organisms, advantages and disadvantages.

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