Genetics of Quantitative Traits
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Questions and Answers

What is currently the method of choice for delivering DNA into cells in gene therapy?

  • Adenoviruses (correct)
  • Particle bombardment
  • Electroporation
  • Direct injection
  • Which strategy helps to ensure that the correct cells are targeted in gene therapy?

  • Ex vivo gene therapy (correct)
  • Direct injection into blood
  • In vivo gene therapy
  • Electroporation
  • What effect can the immune response have on transgene expression in gene therapy?

  • Permanent expression of transgene
  • Reduction in transgene expression (correct)
  • No effect on transgene expression
  • Enhanced transgene expression
  • Which promoter type is utilized to restrict gene expression to specific tissues?

    <p>Tissue-specific promoters (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential outcome can result from exaggerated immune responses to gene therapy vectors?

    <p>Lethality of the gene therapy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of using adenoviruses in gene therapy trials?

    <p>Development of immunity against the adenovirus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following challenges is associated with direct injection as a method of gene delivery?

    <p>Inefficiency that depends on the targeted tissue (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can insulators be beneficial in gene therapy?

    <p>Mitigate inappropriate gene expression (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was a significant risk associated with the transgene insertion during the gene therapy trial?

    <p>Disruption of a tumor-suppressor gene (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication did Jesse experience after participating in the gene therapy trial?

    <p>Massive immune reaction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was the cause of Leber congenital amaurosis (LCA)?

    <p>Mutations in a single gene important for vision (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the RPE65 gene in Leber congenital amaurosis?

    <p>Mutations in both copies are necessary for the disease. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which outcome did the gene therapy trial for SCID X-linked show for most of the boys involved?

    <p>Most boys developed a functional immune system (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was a consequence of the transgene insertion into the LMO2 gene in the gene therapy trial?

    <p>Enhanced expression of the LMO2 protein (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical manifestation is often associated with Leber congenital amaurosis?

    <p>Total blindness by age 30-40 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why might a previous infection sensitize the immune system to the adenovirus vector in gene therapy?

    <p>It causes an immune response that recognizes the vector as a threat. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the primary components targeted by gene therapy in treating vision loss?

    <p>Retinal ganglion cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of incorporating optogenetic components into retinal ganglion cells?

    <p>To enable the ganglion cells to respond to light (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which innovative device processes visual information similar to the normal function of the retina?

    <p>Glasses with an onboard computer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant limitation of gene therapy when photoreceptors are compromised?

    <p>The therapy may not provide a lasting solution (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of retinal prosthetics is currently developing in gene therapy?

    <p>Integrating viral delivery with optogenetic components (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the outcome of a maternal mutation in Drosophila?

    <p>The female will be sterile. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of cancer cell characteristic indicates a potential for immortality?

    <p>Uncontrolled growth. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a unique feature of gap genes in Drosophila segmentation?

    <p>They affect the entire segment of the embryo. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does a mutation in proto-oncogenes have?

    <p>It can convert them to oncogenes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes tumor suppressor genes?

    <p>They require two mutations for loss of normal function. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process is primarily responsible for the genomic instability seen in cancer cells?

    <p>Defects in gene repair mechanisms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In somatic gene therapy, what type of cells are targeted?

    <p>Somatic cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was the primary target for gene therapy in the first trial for SCID?

    <p>Adenosine deaminase (ADA) gene. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which evidence supports the multi-hit model of cancer?

    <p>Cancers are often found to be clonal descendants of one cell. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the ADA substrate in T cells when there is a defect in the ADA gene?

    <p>It accumulates and becomes toxic. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes the gap genes from pair-rule genes in Drosophila?

    <p>Pair-rule genes create two segments at a time. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which gene is classified as a proto-oncogene?

    <p>RAS oncogene. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of bicoid in Drosophila embryonic development?

    <p>Represses the expression of hunchback. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of a successful somatic gene therapy protocol for SCID?

    <p>Harvesting and reinfusing lymphocytes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of X inactivation in females, particularly concerning gene expression?

    <p>Some genes on the inactivated X chromosome may still be expressed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by having an extra chromosome 21?

    <p>Down syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In relation to genealogical studies, what does the term 'deletion loop' refer to?

    <p>A portion of a chromosome that is deleted and paired with its homologous chromosome. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process is most likely to lead to phenotypic changes due to a gene imbalance?

    <p>Duplication (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary risk associated with chorionic villi sampling?

    <p>Higher rates of miscarriage due to procedural risks. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In genetic terms, what does the concept of 'pseudodominance' imply?

    <p>An allele appears dominant when the corresponding recessive allele is deleted. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might happen during nonreciprocal translocations?

    <p>Genetic material is lost from one chromosome and added to another without exchange. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements regarding inversions is true?

    <p>Inversions can prevent viable gamete production if they involve breakpoints within genes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic outcome of a Robertsonian translocation?

    <p>Loss of the shorter chromosome end. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which stage of prenatal development is amniocentesis generally performed?

    <p>Second trimester (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does unequal crossing over contribute to genetic variation?

    <p>By causing variations in gene copy number. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the potential effect of deletions on gene expression?

    <p>Haploinsufficiency due to gene imbalance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of a balancer chromosome in genetic studies involving Drosophila?

    <p>To prevent recombination and maintain the homozygous state. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does broad sense heritability (H2) indicate about phenotypic variation?

    <p>It measures the genetic variation in phenotype across the population. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about narrow sense heritability (h2) is accurate?

    <p>High h2 indicates that offspring phenotypes can be predicted from parental phenotypes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of using quantitative trait loci (QTL) mapping?

    <p>To identify specific genes responsible for traits in individuals. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does a missense point mutation differ from a silent mutation?

    <p>It replaces one amino acid with another. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic defines transposable elements in a genome?

    <p>They can move from one genomic location to another. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of dominance effects (Vd) on predictability in phenotypes?

    <p>They introduce variability that complicates predictions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In McClintock's experiment with corn, what role did the Ac element play?

    <p>It caused breakage of chromosome 9. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which classification of mutation replaces one base pair with another without altering the protein function?

    <p>Silent mutation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a LOD score of 3 or greater signify in genetic mapping?

    <p>Strong evidence of association between traits and genetic markers. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do induced mutations differ from spontaneous mutations?

    <p>Induced mutations are caused by external agents like chemicals or radiation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of mutation is characterized by a base pair change that results in a premature stop codon?

    <p>Nonsense mutation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of frameshift mutations?

    <p>Insertion or deletion of base pairs causing a shift in the reading frame. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mechanism is common to both retrotransposons and DNA transposons?

    <p>They are surrounded by repeat sequences that facilitate their movement. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the C value paradox refer to in genetics?

    <p>Genome size does not correspond to the organism's phenotypic complexity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flashcards

    Broad-Sense Heritability (H²)

    The proportion of phenotypic variation in a population or family that is due to genetic variation.

    Narrow-Sense Heritability (h²)

    The proportion of phenotypic variation due to additive genetic variation.

    Quantitative Trait Loci (QTL)

    Specific regions of a chromosome that influence a quantitative trait.

    Recombinant Inbred Lines (RILs)

    Inbred lines derived from a cross between two inbred parents, each showing variation in desired trait, creating variation within progeny.

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    Base Substitution Mutation

    A mutation where one nucleotide base is replaced by another.

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    Deletion Mutation

    A mutation in which one or more nucleotides are removed from a DNA sequence.

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    Insertion Mutation

    A mutation where one or more nucleotides are added to a DNA sequence.

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    Silent Mutation

    A mutation that does not change the amino acid sequence of the protein.

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    Missense Mutation

    A mutation that changes the amino acid sequence of the protein.

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    Nonsense Mutation

    A mutation that creates a premature stop codon.

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    Frameshift Mutation

    A mutation that shifts the reading frame of the genetic code.

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    Euploidy

    Having a complete set of chromosomes.

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    Aneuploidy

    Having an abnormal number of chromosomes.

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    Polyploidy

    Having more than two complete sets of chromosomes.

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    Monosomy

    Having one fewer than the normal number of chromosomes.

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    Trisomy

    Having one more than the normal number of chromosomes.

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    Down Syndrome

    A genetic disorder caused by trisomy of chromosome 21.

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    Klinefelter Syndrome

    A genetic condition affecting males, characterized by an extra X chromosome (XXY).

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    Genomic Hybridization (microarray)

    A technique used to detect duplications or deletions in a genome.

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    Nuchal Translucency

    An ultrasound measurement used in prenatal screening.

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    Chorionic Villus Sampling

    A prenatal diagnostic test performed to sample placental tissue

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    Deletion

    A type of chromosome mutation where a segment of DNA is lost.

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    Deletion Loop

    A loop-like structure that forms during meiosis in individuals with a chromosome deletion.

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    Duplication

    A type of chromosome mutation where a segment of DNA is repeated.

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    Unequal Crossing Over

    A meiotic error that leads to unequal exchange of genetic material.

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    Inversion

    A type of chromosome mutation where a segment of DNA is reversed.

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    Translocation

    A type of chromosome mutation where a segment of DNA is moved to a different location.

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    Robertsonian Translocation

    A type of translocation where material is exchanged between acrocentric chromosomes.

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    Polytene chromosomes

    A type of chromosome that has undergone multiple replication.

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    Balancer Chromosome

    A chromosome used in genetic experiments to prevent recombination.

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    Optogenetics

    A technique that uses light to control genetically modified cells, allowing for targeted manipulation of neural activity.

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    Retinal Ganglion Cells

    Neurons in the retina that receive signals from photoreceptor cells and transmit information to the brain.

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    Retinal Prosthetics

    Artificial implants designed to restore vision in people with retinal degeneration.

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    How does gene therapy restore vision?

    By delivering genes that express light-sensitive proteins in retinal ganglion cells, enabling them to respond to light signals.

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    What is the role of glasses in this technology?

    Glasses equipped with cameras and processors create visuals and transmit them as light patterns to stimulate retinal ganglion cells.

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    What is the biggest risk of gene therapy with viral vectors?

    A major risk is the immune reaction to the viral vector, potentially leading to inflammation, sensitization, and even death. The body's immune system might recognize the vector as foreign and mount an uncontrolled response.

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    What is the issue with transgene insertion during gene therapy?

    The transgene can insert into a functional gene, potentially disrupting its function. This can lead to problems like activation of proto-oncogenes or inactivation of tumor-suppressor genes, increasing the risk of cancer.

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    IL2 receptor gamma deficiency

    A genetic disorder causing severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) where the immune system cannot properly develop due to the malfunctioning of the IL2 receptor gamma protein.

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    Ex vivo gene therapy

    A gene therapy approach where cells are removed from the body, genetically modified, and then returned to the patient.

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    What is the main issue with the gene therapy trial in France?

    The gene therapy caused a leukemia-like condition in some patients because the transgene inserted into the LMO2 gene, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation.

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    Leber congenital amaurosis (LCA)

    An inherited form of blindness caused by mutations in genes crucial for the visual system's function. It leads to severe visual impairment during childhood and usually complete blindness by middle age.

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    What is the gene typically mutated in Leber congenital amaurosis?

    The RPE65 gene is a common target of mutations in LCA. It's necessary for retinal pigment epithelium function vital for vision.

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    Candidate gene approach

    A strategy in genetic research where scientists focus on specific genes suspected to be involved in a particular disease, based on their function or previous studies.

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    Maternal mutation in Drosophila

    A mutation in the maternal genome of a Drosophila fly that causes the female to be sterile, but does not affect her own survival.

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    Zygotic mutation in Drosophila

    A mutation in the zygote's genome that leads to the death of the Drosophila embryo.

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    Gap genes

    Genes in Drosophila that are responsible for defining large regions of the embryo's body plan, affecting entire segments.

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    Pair-rule genes

    Genes in Drosophila that are expressed in every other segment, establishing the alternating pattern of segments.

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    Segment polarity genes

    Genes in Drosophila that are expressed in bands within each segment, defining the anterior-posterior axis of individual segments.

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    Bicoid protein

    A maternally provided protein in Drosophila that is concentrated at the anterior end of the embryo and plays a role in defining head structures.

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    Nanos protein

    A maternally provided protein in Drosophila that is concentrated at the posterior end of the embryo and helps define tail structures.

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    Hunchback protein

    A maternally provided protein in Drosophila that is initially uniformly distributed but then becomes concentrated anteriorly due to bicoid protein.

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    Caudle protein

    A maternally provided protein in Drosophila that is initially uniformly distributed but then becomes concentrated posteriorly due to nanos protein.

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    Reporter gene

    A gene that can be used to visualize the expression of another gene by producing a detectable product.

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    Hox genes

    Genes that control the development of specific body structures along the anterior-posterior axis of Drosophila.

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    Autocrine stimulation

    A characteristic of cancer cells where they stimulate their own growth, unlike normal cells.

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    Contact inhibition

    A property of normal cells where they stop growing when they come into contact with other cells.

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    Genomic instability

    A hallmark of cancer cells where mutations occur frequently in their DNA, leading to abnormal growth.

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    Metastasis

    The spread of cancer cells from a primary tumor to other parts of the body.

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    Gene Therapy Challenges

    The process of using genes to treat or prevent disease faces many hurdles, including delivering genes efficiently and safely into target cells, ensuring proper gene expression, and managing potential immune responses.

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    Viral Vectors

    Modified viruses are often used to deliver therapeutic genes into cells. They are efficient at inserting genes into target cells, but potential risks include immune responses and uncontrolled gene integration.

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    Electroporation

    A technique where a brief electrical shock is applied to cells, creating temporary holes in their membranes, allowing therapeutic genes to enter. However, this method can damage cells.

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    Problems with Transgene Expression

    Ensuring that the therapeutic gene is expressed in the correct cells at the right time and level is crucial for successful gene therapy. Issues like improper expression, insufficient levels, or off-target expression can arise.

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    Immune Responses to Gene Therapy

    The immune system can attack the viral vectors or the cells expressing the therapeutic gene, potentially reducing the effectiveness of therapy or causing severe side effects.

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    Adenovirus in Gene Therapy

    Adenoviruses, known for causing common colds, are widely used as vectors for gene delivery. However, they trigger immune responses in most people, limiting their long-term effectiveness in gene therapy applications.

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    Lethality of Gene Therapy

    In some cases, gene therapy can lead to serious complications, even death. This emphasizes the importance of careful monitoring and understanding the complex interplay of genes, immune responses, and therapy outcomes.

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    Study Notes

    Additive

    • depends on the number of alleles present
    • phenotypic effect can be 0, 1, or 2
    • frequency is highest in the middle (bell curve)
    • additive inheritance: contributions of each locus add up without interaction
    • no dominance/epistasis

    Genetic origins of a quantitative trait

    • Hypothesis 1: segregation of alleles at many loci; small, equal, and additive effects
    • Hypothesis 2: few genes; large additive effects
    • Polygenic: only genetics contribute to variation
    • Multifactorial: genetics and environmental factors influence variation

    Environmental modifications

    • phenotype = genotype + environment
    • example: Siamese cat fur color (temperature affects enzyme function)
    • incomplete dominance: heterozygote phenotype is distinct from either homozygous

    Quantitative Traits

    • genotype affects traits affected by multiple loci with additive effects
    • example: complementation, law of segregation, linkage
    • individual phenotypes are masked by environment; quantitative trait locus (QTL)
    • affected by environment

    Lecture 13

    • how much of variation in phenotype is due to genetics vs environment?
    • P= G + E (phenotype)
    • Vp = Vg + Ve (variation)
    • Vg/Vp (heritability)
      • how much phenotype variation is attributable to genetic variation
    • Broad Sense heritability (H²)= Vg/Vp
      • H² =1 if all due to genotype
      • H² =0 if all due to environment
    • H² is not predictive; tells why

    Lecture 14

    • H² tells if phenotype is likely due to genotype in a specific family/population
    • H² does not predict progeny's phenotype based on parents'
    • Vp = Vg + Va + Vd + Vi
      • Va - additive effects (predictive)
      • Vd - dominance effects (not predictive)
      • Vi - epistatic effects (not predictive)
    • narrow-sense heritability (h²) = Va / Vp
      • h²=1 if all due to additive effects
      • h²=0 if nothing due to additive effects
    • h² tells if phenotype of individual is predictable based on family
    • h² does not tell if genes/alleles affect other families

    Lecture 15

    • More inbreeding = less heterozygosity
    • candidate genes in QTL are identified by fine-mapping
    • recombinant chromosomes (NILs) fine-map QTL to single gene
    • expression of the candidate gene examined using PCR
    • protein sequence analyzed for function

    Mutations

    • Mutations affecting phenotype are rare
    • forward mutation (WT to mutant allele)
    • reverse mutation (mutant to WT)
    • classifications:
      • base substitution
      • transition
      • transversion
      • deletion
      • insertion
      • indels
      • inversion
      • reciprocal translocation

    Lecture 16

    • Point mutations (silent, missense)
    • Ratio of synonymous/non-synonymous mutations measures selection strength (some mutations are favored over others in evolution)
    • nonsense mutations: stop codon replacement
    • frameshift mutations: insert/delete base pairs changing reading frame
    • intragenic suppressor mutations
    • Mutations outside the coding sequence (splice donor/acceptor site mutations)
    • large mRNA/RNA results in slower northern/western blots
    • loss of function alleles - typically recessive (null or hypomorphic)
    • gain of function mutations (hypermorphic or neomorphic)

    Lecture 17

    • Chromosomal packaging: nucleosomes
    • Heterochromatin: tightly packed
    • Chromatin remodelling: altering chromatin structure
    • X chromosome inactivation: one X chromosome inactivated in females, hereditary
    • Euploidy, polyploidy, aneuploidy (chromosome number variations)
    • Nondisjunction: errors in chromosome segregation in meiosis/mitosis
    • Monosomy, trisomy, nullisomy, tetrasomy
    • Pathogenesis: development of unfertilized egg into embryo (without fert.); usually lethal

    Lecture 18

    • Polyploidy: additional sets of chromosomes (autopolyploids: same species; allopolyploids: different species)
    • Tetraploid meiosis (new ratio 1:4:1)
    • Meiotic nondisjunction: both sets of a chromosome go into one cell
    • Monosomy, trisomy, nullisomy, tetrasomy, etc. genetic disorders
    • Prenatal testing: screening (not diagnostic) in first trimester; diagnostic tests (chorionic villi sampling, amniocentesis)
    • Fetal testing; look for abnormal karyotypes; screening of biochemical/molecular disorders
    • Polytene chromosomes: model structure allowing visualization of banding patterns
    • Deletions: x-rays, intragenic (small), multigenic (many), haploinsufficiency
    • Deletion loop
    • Pseudodominance

    Lecture 19

    • Differences in phenotypes due to epigenetics
    • Epigenetics: heritable modifications in gene function (not due to base sequence changes)
    • Molecular mechanisms:
      1. DNA methylation (CpG islands = gene repression)

    Lecture 20

    • Gene therapy: correcting diseased phenotype by introducing/correcting genes in body cells
    • somatic gene therapy: does not change germline (sperm/egg cells)
    • Proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes - gain/loss of function mutations
    • Oncogenes: promote cell growth (dominant); TS genes: inhibit growth (recessive)
    • Examples of mutations: mutating receptor kinases in oncogenes, RB (tumor suppressor)

    Lecture 21

    • Gene therapy protocol, effects of ADA deficiency (severe combined immunodeficiency, SCID)
    • vectors
      • adeno-associated virus
      • adenovirus
      • herpes
      • retrovirus
    • challenges of gene therapy: correct cells targeted, appropriate expression levels for time, consequences of immune responses to vector/transgene products

    Lecture 22

    • Somatic gene therapy

    Lecture 23

    • Risks of gene therapy: transgene integration into functional genes, consequences
    • Gene therapy trial (France): SCID X-linked

    Lecture 24

    • Abnormal eye disorders
    • RPE65 mutations
    • Animal model of LCA
    • Human clinical trials; RPE65 gene therapy

    Lecture 25

    • future of gene therapy: prosthetics & optogenetics
    • developing gene therapy targeting retinal ganglion cells
    • mimicking retina's normal visual processing

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    Description

    This quiz explores the principles of additive inheritance and the genetic origins of quantitative traits. It examines how multiple alleles contribute to phenotypic variation, as well as the impact of environmental factors on genotype expression. Test your understanding of concepts like polygenic traits and incomplete dominance.

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