Genetics of Neurofibromatosis Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary genetic cause of the disease described?

  • Chromosomal abnormalities on chromosome 22
  • Germline mutations in the TP53 gene
  • Mutations in the NF2 gene
  • Loss-of-function mutations in the NF1 gene (correct)
  • Which of the following tumors is NOT typically associated with the disease?

  • Meningiomas
  • Osteosarcomas (correct)
  • Ependymomas
  • Schwannomas
  • What is a hallmark symptom associated with the disease referenced?

  • Bilateral acoustic neuromas
  • Chronic headaches
  • Peripheral nerve sheath tumors
  • Neurofibromas of all types (correct)
  • How frequently do Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumors (MPNST) occur in comparison to NF1?

    <p>1 in 40,000 to 50,000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which genetic defect influences the lack of neurofibromin in neoplastic cells?

    <p>Biallelic defects in the NF1 gene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary target of damage in peripheral neuropathies related to demyelination?

    <p>Axons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pattern of nerve damage is characterized by the degeneration of myelin without affecting the axon itself?

    <p>Acute demyelinating disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What electrophysiologic hallmark is associated with axonal neuropathies?

    <p>Reduction in signal amplitude</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of demyelination, what typically happens to the longest axons during toxic and metabolic insults?

    <p>They are most susceptible to degeneration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the fate of myofibers that are denervated following acute axonal injury?

    <p>They undergo atrophy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After axonal injury, what characteristic is true about the regenerated axons?

    <p>They are shorter and myelinated by fewer Schwann cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a biopsy of a patient with chronic demyelinating disease, which finding would you expect?

    <p>Random segmental degeneration of myelin internodes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical aspect of Alzheimer's disease pathogenesis that remains partially understood?

    <p>The interaction between plaques and tangles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is NOT commonly associated with the progression of Alzheimer's disease?

    <p>Improvement in communication skills</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primary factor contributes to the onset of vascular dementia?

    <p>Disruption of the brain's blood supply</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common cognitive deficit observed in individuals with vascular dementia?

    <p>Difficulty planning and organizing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the clinical manifestations of Alzheimer's disease, which of the following is a late-stage symptom?

    <p>Loss of the ability to ambulate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom might develop in the early stages of vascular dementia?

    <p>Short periods of confusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical female-to-male ratio in young adults with myasthenia gravis?

    <p>2:1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is more likely to be seen in vascular dementia rather than Alzheimer's disease?

    <p>Visual orientation problems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes how vascular dementia can present in an individual?

    <p>Symptoms that vary based on brain areas affected</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of patients with myasthenia gravis have autoantibodies against postsynaptic ACh receptors?

    <p>85%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is most commonly associated with the involvement of extraocular muscles in myasthenia gravis?

    <p>Diplopia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected trajectory of an individual suffering from Alzheimer's disease over 5 to 10 years?

    <p>Becoming progressively disabled and mute</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is myasthenia gravis primarily diagnosed?

    <p>Clinical history and physical findings</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the predominant effect of anti–ACh receptor antibodies in myasthenia gravis?

    <p>Destruction of postsynaptic membranes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In myasthenia gravis, what motor response change is observed during electrophysiologic studies?

    <p>Decrement in muscle response with repeated stimulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes myasthenia gravis from myopathies in terms of muscle involvement?

    <p>Involvement of extraocular muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of tumor is commonly found in approximately 10% of patients with myasthenia gravis?

    <p>Thymoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic manifestation of dermatomyositis?

    <p>Proximal muscle weakness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action of autoantibodies directed against muscle-specific receptor tyrosine kinase?

    <p>Interfering with receptor clustering</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common initial manifestation of multiple sclerosis (MS)?

    <p>Optic neuritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Parkinson's disease?

    <p>Dopamine deficiency in the basal ganglia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of individuals with an episode of optic neuritis may develop multiple sclerosis?

    <p>10% to 50%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of MS, what does the term 'secondary axon loss' refer to?

    <p>Progressive accumulation of neurological deficits</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment approach for Parkinson's disease?

    <p>Restoration of brain dopamine levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which neurological manifestation is commonly associated with spinal cord lesions in MS?

    <p>Loss of bladder control</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What morphological feature is indicative of Parkinson's disease?

    <p>Lewy bodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the relapsing-remitting course of MS is true?

    <p>It usually results in eventual progressive neurological deterioration.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is associated with the involvement of the brainstem in MS?

    <p>Cranial nerve signs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Parkinson's disease is most directly characterized by a deficit in which neurotransmitter?

    <p>Dopamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily distinguishes a coup injury from a contrecoup injury?

    <p>The immobility of the head at the time of impact.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is classified as a transient ischemic event?

    <p>Neurologic symptoms that resolve within 24 hours.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which imaging technique is primarily used to diagnose cerebrovascular accidents (CVA)?

    <p>Computed Tomography (CT)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant consequence of a sudden occlusion of a cerebral artery?

    <p>Focal cerebral ischemia leading to localized tissue infarction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of a cerebrovascular accident?

    <p>Contralateral hemiplegia and hemisensory loss.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor significantly increases the risk of thrombotic strokes?

    <p>Atrial fibrillation and cardiac dysrhythmias.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary pathological mechanism underlying both ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes?

    <p>Alteration in blood flow leading to brain injury.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of osteoblasts in bone tissue?

    <p>Synthesize and regulate mineralization of the matrix</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of synoviocyte is responsible for synthesizing hyaluronic acid and various proteins?

    <p>Type B synoviocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What component of hyaline cartilage primarily helps resist tensile stresses?

    <p>Type II collagen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cytokines are mentioned as being released by various cells and contributing to the degradative processes in joint diseases?

    <p>IL-1 and TNF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of hyaline articular cartilage in synovial joints?

    <p>Protect the articular surface and provide a lubricated surface for movement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is NOT typically associated with ankylosing spondylitis?

    <p>Low back pain that worsens with activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common feature of Ehlers-Danlos Syndromes is characterized by abnormal collagen synthesis?

    <p>Skin hyperextensibility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition typically shows HLA-B27 positivity in approximately 90% of patients?

    <p>Ankylosing spondylitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is most characteristic of Ehlers-Danlos Syndromes?

    <p>Hypermobile joints</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the genetic factors in Ehlers-Danlos Syndromes is true?

    <p>They involve mutations in genes that encode collagen or related proteins.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physical manifestation is commonly observed in individuals with Ehlers-Danlos Syndromes?

    <p>Joint dislocations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which age group is ankylosing spondylitis most frequently diagnosed?

    <p>20s to 30s</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following joints is least likely to be involved in ankylosing spondylitis?

    <p>Fingers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic of both ankylosing spondylitis and Ehlers-Danlos Syndromes?

    <p>Involvement of the hip joints</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism that causes seizures in epilepsy?

    <p>Alteration in membrane potential leading to neuronal hyperactivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which seizure type is characterized by a loss of body tone and might lead to falls?

    <p>Atonic seizure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes complex partial seizures from simple partial seizures?

    <p>Change in consciousness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the hallmark pathologic findings in Alzheimer's disease?

    <p>Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition describes a prolonged series of seizures without recovery?

    <p>Status epilepticus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common trigger for seizures in individuals with epilepsy?

    <p>Flashing lights or loud noises</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes absence seizures?

    <p>They usually manifest as staring spells lasting only seconds.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which risk factor is NOT associated with the development of epilepsy?

    <p>Exposure to sunlight</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the characteristics of myoclonic seizures?

    <p>Multiple jerking movements, either single or several</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of Ewing sarcoma patients are typically younger than 20 years of age?

    <p>80%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of Ewing sarcoma as seen in radiographs?

    <p>Destructive lytic tumor with moth-eaten margins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which gene is predominantly involved in Ewing sarcoma tumors?

    <p>EWSR1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of cells characterizes the malignant bone tumor known as Ewing sarcoma?

    <p>Primitive round cells without obvious differentiation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with Ewing sarcoma?

    <p>Rapid bone growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which demographic is affected more often by Ewing sarcoma?

    <p>Caucasian descent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pattern is characteristic of the periosteal reaction in Ewing sarcoma?

    <p>Laminated or onion-skin fashion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which bones is Ewing sarcoma most commonly found?

    <p>Diaphysis of long tubular bones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the age range for the typical presentation of Ewing sarcoma?

    <p>5 - 25 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common presenting symptom of Ewing sarcoma?

    <p>Localized tenderness and swelling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does Paget disease have on bone matrices?

    <p>Thickens but disorganizes and softens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is the most serious complication associated with Paget disease?

    <p>Sarcoma development</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What initial phase characterizes the progression of Paget disease?

    <p>Excessive bone resorption by osteoclasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic feature is commonly associated with Paget disease seen on radiographs?

    <p>Enlarged bones with thick, coarsened cortices</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected serum level profile in individuals affected by Paget disease?

    <p>Normal serum calcium and phosphate with elevated alkaline phosphatase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function after an injury?

    <p>Loss of consciousness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes a coup injury from a contrecoup injury?

    <p>Location of impact on the brain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors is crucial for diagnosing a traumatic brain injury (TBI)?

    <p>Time of injury</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pupil reflex change early after a brain injury might indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

    <p>Dilation of one pupil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the absence of a corneal reflex indicate in a brain-injured person?

    <p>Severely impaired brain function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9 to 12?

    <p>Moderate brain injury</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of intracranial injury is characterized by a localized collection of blood within the cranium?

    <p>Intracranial hematoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of active vitamin D in the body?

    <p>Raising serum calcium and phosphate levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition develops specifically in growing children due to defective bone mineralization?

    <p>Rickets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is not typically associated with osteomalacia in adults?

    <p>Knock knee deformity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common dietary deficiency can lead to vitamin D deficiency, potentially resulting in osteomalacia?

    <p>Deficient calcium and vitamin D intake</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a physiological response triggered by low serum calcium levels due to vitamin D deficiency?

    <p>Increased secretion of parathyroid hormone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the difference between myelomeningocele and meningocele?

    <p>Myelomeningocele involves CNS tissue extension through vertebral defects, while meningocele involves only meningeal extrusion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which anatomical areas might significant deformation occur as a result of rickets?

    <p>Occipital and parietal bones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary pathogenic mechanism involved in spina bifida?

    <p>Primary bony defects caused by abnormal axial mesoderm development.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by a decrease in serum calcium, phosphate, and an increase in alkaline phosphatase?

    <p>Osteomalacia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which region of the body do myelomeningoceles most frequently occur?

    <p>Lumbosacral region</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best characterizes the clinical features associated with spina bifida?

    <p>Motor and sensory deficits occur primarily in the lower extremities.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of prolonged vitamin D deficiency in adults?

    <p>Bone softening</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements correctly describes the differences in bone conditions between osteomalacia and rickets?

    <p>Rickets affects growing bones while osteomalacia affects already developed bones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true regarding the ethnic prevalence of neural tube defects?

    <p>The frequency varies widely among different ethnic groups.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What non-dietary factor commonly contributes to vitamin D deficiency?

    <p>Limited exposure to sunlight</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes anencephaly?

    <p>It leads to the absence of most of the brain and calvarium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) is primarily affected?

    <p>Both upper and lower motor neurons are affected.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common complication associated with myelomeningocele due to infection risk?

    <p>Superimposed infection of the spinal cord.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor contributes to the recurrence rate of neural tube defects in subsequent pregnancies?

    <p>A previous pregnancy with a neural tube defect increases risk.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the typical progression of joint involvement in hematogenous osteomyelitis?

    <p>Usually progresses from small joints to larger joints</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of pannus formation in rheumatoid arthritis?

    <p>It leads to erosion of articular cartilage and bone erosion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of osteoporosis, what differentiates it from osteopenia?

    <p>Osteoporosis significantly increases fracture risk due to severe osteopenia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common radiographic finding in rheumatoid arthritis?

    <p>Joint effusions and juxta-articular osteopenia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a consequence of recurrent vertebral fractures in osteoporosis?

    <p>Loss of height and spinal deformities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true about the initial symptoms of hematogenous osteomyelitis in children?

    <p>Malaise, fatigue, and generalized musculoskeletal pain are common</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In osteoporotic patients, which regions are most commonly affected by fractures?

    <p>Thoracic and lumbar regions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical manifestation of chronic rheumatoid arthritis affecting the hand?

    <p>Flexion-hyperextension deformities like swan-neck and boutonnière</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical feature is typically seen in patients with chronic arthritis?

    <p>Progressive joint enlargement and decreased range of motion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by a decrease in bone mass without yet being severe enough to increase fracture risk?

    <p>Osteopenia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the best timing for making a TBI diagnosis to ensure accuracy?

    <p>Within the first 24 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition reflects a significant indicator of altered brain function?

    <p>Change in level of consciousness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes a contrecoup injury compared to a coup injury?

    <p>Injury occurs on the opposite side of impact</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does an absence of the corneal reflex indicate?

    <p>Severely impaired brain function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by a localized collection of blood within the cranium?

    <p>Intracranial hematoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pupil reflex abnormality could indicate potential brain herniation?

    <p>Unequal pupil size or shape</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of injury results from a loss of consciousness during a fall?

    <p>Frontal or occipital impact</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant complication associated with Paget disease that affects the prognosis?

    <p>Sarcoma transformation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the bone characteristics in Paget disease?

    <p>Pagetic bone is enlarged with thick, coarsened cortices</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels in Paget disease indicate what about the bone activity?

    <p>Increased osteoblast activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does Paget disease typically progress over time?

    <p>Slowly progressive with alternating phases of bone resorption and formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which geographic and demographic trend is associated with Paget disease?

    <p>Relatively common among Caucasians in Western countries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition develops after repeated head trauma and is characterized by tau-containing neurofibrillary tangles?

    <p>Chronic traumatic encephalopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the loss of visual field on the paralyzed side following a cerebrovascular accident?

    <p>Homonymous hemianopsia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which intervention should be initiated during the acute phase of recovery from motor deficits?

    <p>Active/passive range of motion exercises</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of posttraumatic hydrocephalus?

    <p>Obstruction of CSF resorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common sensory disturbance may occur in conjunction with motor paralysis after a stroke?

    <p>Visual impairment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term is used to describe the phenomenon of elevated intracranial pressure resulting from brain injury?

    <p>Cerebral edema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What neurological event is characterized by paroxysmal abnormal or excessive electrical discharges?

    <p>Seizure disorder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical manifestation of chronic traumatic encephalopathy observed in brain imaging?

    <p>Atrophy with enlarged ventricles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What facilitates the rehabilitation process for patients recovering from motor deficits?

    <p>Maintaining body alignment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of seizure is characterized by a series of seizures with no recovery period?

    <p>Status epilepticus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common manifestation of generalized seizures that involves loss of consciousness?

    <p>Tonic-clonic seizures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT recognized as a risk factor for developing seizures?

    <p>Age at onset</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary pathological feature of Alzheimer's disease?

    <p>Accumulation of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of seizures, what is the term for the subjective sense of an impending seizure?

    <p>Aura</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of seizure involves no alteration in consciousness and can have motor or sensory symptoms?

    <p>Simple partial seizures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes atypical absence seizures?

    <p>Accompanied by myoclonic jerks and automatism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the role of tau protein in Alzheimer's disease?

    <p>It aggregates to form neurofibrillary tangles intracellularly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the altered state of consciousness following an epileptic seizure called?

    <p>Postictal state</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which seizure type is characterized by muscle jerking without a loss of consciousness?

    <p>Myoclonic seizures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primary dysfunction results from the presence of anti-ACh receptor antibodies in myasthenia gravis?

    <p>Degradation and aggregation of ACh receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical manifestation is most indicative of myasthenia gravis as compared to other myopathies?

    <p>Ptosis and diplopia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which age group is the female-to-male ratio for myasthenia gravis predominantly 2:1?

    <p>Young adults</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic finding on electrophysiologic studies for diagnosing myasthenia gravis?

    <p>Decrement in muscle response with repeated stimulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What abnormality is approximately found in 10% of patients with myasthenia gravis?

    <p>Thymoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mechanism is primarily attributed to autoantibodies against muscle-specific receptor tyrosine kinase?

    <p>Disruption of ACh receptor trafficking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary impact of postsynaptic membrane alterations due to anti-ACh receptor antibodies?

    <p>Decreased response of myofibers to ACh</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom commonly occurs in patients with antibodies against muscle-specific receptor tyrosine kinase?

    <p>Focal muscle weakness in specific muscle groups</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of muscle weakness is typically observed in dermatomyositis?

    <p>Proximal muscle weakness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What fundamental difference distinguishes myasthenia gravis from typical myopathies regarding muscle involvement?

    <p>Myasthenia gravis involves extraocular muscles more commonly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Disease of the Peripheral and Central Nervous System

    • Missing slides cover cellular structure, diffuse axonal injury, spinal cord injury, and vascular malformations
    • Key topics emphasized include Guillain-Barre Syndrome, Trigeminal Neuralgia, Bell's palsy, Carpal tunnel/compression neuropathies, Myasthenia Gravis, Muscular Dystrophies, and Neurofibromatosis type 1 and type 2.
    • Topics also covered include Cerebral Edema, Increased ICP, Neural tube defects and folate, assessing brain injury

    Cranial Nerve Function

    • Axons are the primary target of damage in peripheral neuropathies over time
    • Damage may outpace repair, leading to progressive loss of axons
    • Toxic and metabolic insults often cause "dying-back" damage
    • Electrophysiologic hallmark of these neuropathies is reduced signal amplitude.

    Demyelination

    • Schwann cells and their myelin sheaths are the targets in demyelinating disorders
    • Myelin degrades in a random pattern, causing discontinuous damage
    • Regeneration forms shorter, thinner myelin sheaths

    Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)

    • Can result in skull fractures, parenchymal injury, and vascular injury
    • Magnitude and location of damage depends on force, object shape, head motion during impact, and whether the injury is blunt or penetrating
    • TBI diagnosis is usually made within 24 hrs of injury
    • Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess level of consciousness via eye opening, verbal response, and motor response, with higher scores indicating better consciousness

    Skull Fractures

    • A displaced skull fracture occurs when fractured bone displaces into the cranial cavity further than the thickness of the bone
    • Resistance varies depending on the thickness of the cranial bones
    • Symptoms can be in lower cranial nerves and cervical spinal cord, including orbital and mastoid hematoma or CSF leakage and infection
    • Usually caused by impact to the skull's occiput or sides of the head

    Concussion

    • Mild TBI common in military personnel and athletes with no evidence of structural injury
    • Symptoms include altered consciousness, loss of consciousness for under 30 minutes, and no brain damage on CT scan
    • Symptoms: headache, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, blurred vision, cognitive and emotional disturbances
    • Can lead to postconcussive symptoms with cognitive impairment due to repetitive injuries or chronic traumatic encephalopathy.

    Contusion

    • Damage from transmitted kinetic energy resulting in brain bruising and laceration (tearing)
    • Trauma to the brain surface by a blow typically produces a coup injury on the point of contact and a contrecoup injury on the opposite side of the brain
    • Hemorrhage may extend into the subarachnoid space resulting in a coup injury, on the side of impact, or a contrecoup injury, on the opposite side of impact

    Cerebrovascular Disease and Stroke

    • Stroke is acute neurologic signs from vascular cause lasting more than 24 hours
    • Ischemic strokes, caused by reduced blood flow, are most common
    • Hemorrhagic strokes, result from ruptured blood vessels
    • Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, smoking, and advancing age
    • Symptoms vary by location of the stroke and can include hemiplegia, hemisensory loss, or visual field blindness

    Intracranial Hemorrhage

    • Common cause is usually a ruptured saccular aneurysm, with bleeding into the subarachnoid space
    • Hypertension, recreational drug use and acute alcohol intoxication can also be factors
    • Subarachnoid hemorrhages typically occur in the 5th decade of life and are slightly more common in females.
    • Characterized by severe headache and loss of consciousness
    • Subsequent ischemic damage from vasospasm is possible

    Vascular Malformations

    • Can be in the form of arteriovenous malformations(AVMs) or cavernous malformations (CM)
    • AVMs are tangled networks of vascular channels with high blood flow due to arteriovenous shunting and CMs are distended, loosely organized channels.
    • CM lesions are more common bilaterally and are most commonly found in the cerebellum, pons and subcortical areas

    Stroke Sequence

    • Motor deficits include flaccidity or paralysis and usually occur contralateral to the side of the stroke
    • Sensory disturbances occur in the same locations as motor paralysis which may involve neglect or visual impairment.
    • Sensory loss involves the same side of each eye causing homonymous hemianopsia

    Epilepsy

    • Characterized by recurrent, paroxysmal, excessive cortical electrical discharges.
    • Seizures can involve a portion of the brain, leading to localized symptoms, or encompass the whole brain (generalized).
    • Types of seizures include absence (especially in children), myoclonic (brief jerks), atonic (sudden loss of muscle tone), and tonic-clonic (grand mal)

    Dementia

    • Alzheimer's disease is the most common type of dementia, increasing with age.
    • Characterized by amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles of abnormal proteins accumulating in specific brain regions, leading to progressive memory loss, impairment of judgment and behavior changes
    • Vascular dementia results from damaged brain blood vessels and reduced oxygen.
    • Symptoms include difficulty with memory, thinking, and behavior, reading, and writing, loss of interest, and personality changes

    Edema

    • Vasogenic edema is a result of blood-brain barrier disruption
    • Cytoxic edema is a result of neuronal injury, glial cells or endothelial cells damaging their cell membranes
    • Both affect the ventricles which could lead to herniation

    Hydrocephalus

    • Results from excessive cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricular system
    • Impaired CSF flow or resorption which eventually expands the ventricles, increasing intracranial pressure
    • In infants, head enlargement occurs prior to suture closure.

    Multiple Sclerosis

    • Autoimmune disorder causing demyelination of brain and spinal cord white matter.
    • Characterized by periods of neurologic deficits which can include visual loss, pain, fatigue, coordination difficulty, muscle weakness, numbness and memory problems.

    Parkinson's Disease

    • Associated with a loss of dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra, affecting the basal ganglia
    • Causes motor impairment, such as tremors, muscle rigidity, and slow movement
    • Often presents with a characteristic shuffling gait (but not always)
    • About 10-15% of individuals with the disease eventually develop dementia

    Spinal Bifid

    • Midline malformations that involve the neural tissue, meninges and sometimes overlying bones or soft tissue.
    • Defects can be a flat, disorganize segment or sometimes an asymptomatic bony defect (spina bifida occulta).
    • Can be myelomeningocele (extension from the neural tube), encephalocele (part of the brain extending through the skull) and sometimes meningocele

    Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

    • Progressive neuromuscular disorder characterized by damage to upper and lower motor neurons, often caused by a toxic protein accumulation.
    • The disease causes damage resulting in muscle weakness and denervation, symptoms can vary but usually start with muscle weakness of the hands which worsens over time including issues with swallowing, speaking, and breathing

    Bell's Palsy

    • Idiopathic facial nerve paralysis
    • Rapid onset of unilateral facial weakness
    • Symptoms typically resolve on their own in a few weeks

    Trigeminal Neuralgia

    • Characterized by sudden, brief, and excruciating facial pain, in one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve.

    Inflammatory Neuropathies

    • Conditions broadly categorized as immune-mediated diseases causing peripheral nerve inflammation
    • Guillain-Barré syndrome, chronic inflammatory demmyelating neuropathy, and Herpes Zoster are some examples of this category.

    Compression Neuropathies

    • Result from chronic pressure on a peripheral nerve.
    • Examples include carpal tunnel syndrome (median nerve compression at the wrist), ulnar nerve entrapment (at the elbow), and peroneal nerve entrapment (at the knee).

    Myasthenia Gravis

    • Autoimmune neuromuscular junction disorder resulting in muscle weakness.
    • Characterized by fluctuating weakness that worsens with use, affecting extraocular muscles frequently, and often accompanied by thymic abnormalities.

    Muscular Dystrophy

    • Group of inherited muscle disorders causing progressive muscle damage
    • Symptoms include muscle weakness and often times muscle enlargement (pseudohypertrophy)
    • Various forms including Duchenne muscular dystrophy, Becker muscular dystrophy, and limb-girdle muscular dystrophy

    Schwannomas

    • Benign nerve sheath tumors involving Schwann cell differentiation.
    • May be located in the cerebellopontine angle (affecting hearing and balance) and elsewhere; affecting the spine or cranial nerves
    • Tumors primarily cause symptoms from compression
    • Common genetic association with neurofibromatosis.

    Neurofibromatosis Type 1 and Type 2

    • Are inherited disorders that lead to tumors growing along the nerves or in other parts of the body
    • Neurofibromatosis type 1 characterized by a number of cutaneous lesions and an increased risk of several types of tumors, while NF2 is characterized by acoustic neuromas and other intracranial tumors

    Huntington's Disease (HD)

    • Inherited disorder characterized by a progressive movement disorder and dementia.
    • Results from repeated repeats in the huntingtin gene leading to an accumulation of abnormal proteins that affect the brain cells.
    • Symptoms appear typically in the fourth or fifth decades and are characterized by progressive, involuntary movements and cognitive decline.

    Osteomyelitis

    • Bone infection
    • Occurs when bacteria enter the bone tissue, either through the bloodstream, open fractures or penetrating injuries
    • May also present with fever, malaise, and pain

    Osteoarthritis

    • Degenerative joint disease
    • Gradual breakdown and damage of articular cartilage
    • Symptoms: pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion, commonly affecting weight-bearing joints like the knees and hips

    Rheumatoid Arthritis

    • Autoimmune disorder that primarily targets joints
    • Results in chronic inflammation and destruction of cartilage and bone.
    • Often presents with fatigue, stiffness, and joint pain, typically affecting joints symmetrically.

    Osteoporosis

    • Bone disease characterized by decreased bone density and increased risk of fractures
    • Associated with age and hormonal changes, particularly in postmenopausal women.
    • Symptoms often do not appear until later in life and may include back pain, fractures, loss of height etc.

    Gout

    • Arthropathy characterized by acute attacks of painful inflammation, frequently localized to a single joint
    • Caused by excess uric acid, forming needle-shaped urate crystals in the joints and surrounding tissues.

    Paget's Disease

    • Progressive bone remodeling disorder
    • Characterized by excessive bone turnover
    • Results in abnormally thick, but weakened, bones

    Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS)

    • Hereditary connective tissue disorders characterized by stretchy skin, hypermobile joints and possible fragile blood vessels
    • May involve ligaments, tendons, or blood vessels

    Ewing Sarcoma

    • Malignant bone tumor, particularly affecting children and young adults
    • Characterized by a lytic bone lesion often located in the shaft of long bones and by a periosteal reaction creating "onionskin" layers around the tumor

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    Test your knowledge on the genetic causes and tumor associations of Neurofibromatosis. This quiz will cover hallmark symptoms, the frequency of tumors related to the disease, and the genetic defects involved. Ideal for students studying genetics or related fields.

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