Gastrointestinal Disorders Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the recommended range for INR maintenance in a patient taking warfarin after mitral valve prosthetics?

  • less than 1.0
  • up to 2.0
  • 3.0-3.5 (correct)
  • 2.0-2.5

Which medication is most likely responsible for causing potassium levels to rise to 6.4 mmol/l in a patient undergoing treatment for hypertension and heart disease?

  • cardiac 10 mg
  • Prestan 10/10 mg
  • hypothiazide 12.5 mg / day
  • veroshpiron 100 mg / day (correct)

Given the symptoms of tightening in the heart and a rapid heart rate with a specific ECG pattern, what is the most likely rhythm disturbance present?

  • Ventricular extrasystole
  • Paroxysmal tachycardia (correct)
  • Atrial extrasystole
  • Sinus arrhythmia

For a 60-year-old patient with hypertension and ischemic heart disease experiencing shortness of breath and palpitations, which treatment is most indicated?

<p>Diuretics (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a 57-year-old man with severe shortness of breath and complete dissociation between P-waves and QRS complexes, what is the most suitable treatment tactic?

<p>Implantation of the pacemaker (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism is most likely to be associated with urinary tract infections?

<p>klebsiyella (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would be considered a dangerous level for INR that should be avoided in patients on warfarin therapy?

<p>more than 5.0 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What class of medication is useful for treating hypertension and preventing arrhythmias in patients with a history of heart disease?

<p>β-blockers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with dull pains in the right lumbar region, painful urination, and cloudy urine after being sick for about a year?

<p>Acute pyelonephritis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory finding is most specific for nephrolithiasis?

<p>Specific gravity 1028 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with hypertension, general weakness, and proteinuria, which condition is most likely based on the presented symptoms?

<p>Exacerbation of chronic glomerulonephritis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is recommended for anti-relapse treatment?

<p>Antibacterial drugs, changing every month (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What finding in urine analysis is characteristic of acute pyelonephritis?

<p>Bacteria +++ (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely route of infection into the kidneys?

<p>Hematogenic (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which syndrome is likely to be the leading diagnosis in Patient M. based on the presented symptoms?

<p>Arterial hypertension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which condition is the development of nephrotic syndrome most characteristic?

<p>Amyloidosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary indicator found in a patient with severe airflow limitation during spirography?

<p>FEV1 / FVC &lt; 70% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunological indicator is specific for differentiating lupus nephritis?

<p>Detection of antibodies to DNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complication is most commonly associated with urolithiasis?

<p>Urinary tract infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is evaluated in the COPD assessment test?

<p>The patient's assessment of the amount of sputum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on the symptoms presented, what is the most likely preliminary diagnosis for the 35-year-old female patient?

<p>Community-acquired pneumonia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most probable cause of the urinary tract condition in the 18-year-old man?

<p>Vesicoureteral reflux (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely pathogen causing pneumonia in a patient taking methotrexate after a viral infection?

<p>Pneumocystis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following blood pressure readings indicates hypertension in Patient M.?

<p>190/120 mm Hg (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory finding is indicative of nephrotic syndrome in the urine analysis?

<p>Protein - 0.99 g/l (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is most directly associated with bronchial obstruction?

<p>Bronchial asthma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with a history of bronchial asthma, which factor is crucial for managing respiratory failure of grade III?

<p>Oxygen supplementation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is most commonly associated with acute bronchitis?

<p>Cough with expectoration (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition can lead to symptoms of dyspnea, cough with scant sputum, and a fear of deterioration?

<p>COPD (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate diagnosis for a 45-year-old man presenting with weakness, pallor, and specific blood findings indicating leukemia?

<p>Chronic myelogenous leukemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 53-year-old man presents with splenomegaly and an abnormal blood profile. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Chronic myeloid leukemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What preliminary diagnosis is most likely for a 65-year-old patient with lymphadenopathy and leukocytosis with absolute lymphocytosis?

<p>Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of anemia is characterized by hyperchromia and megaloblastic type of hematopoiesis?

<p>B12-scarce (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with hypoplastic anemia, what is the most typical finding on a myelogram?

<p>Bone marrow devastation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 55-year-old woman with leukocytosis and lymphocytosis in her hemogram. What disease do these changes most commonly indicate?

<p>Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most characteristic feature of acute myeloblastic leukemia in the context of a 45-year-old patient?

<p>Presence of leukemia myeloblasts (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what condition would you expect to see both lymphocyte infiltration and a negative Heddelson reaction?

<p>Chronic lymphatic leukemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of atrioventricular block is characterized by progressively longer PR intervals until a QRS complex is dropped?

<p>Atrioventricular block of II degree Mobitz 1 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most probable cause of tachyarrhythmia followed by bradycardia in a 75-year-old patient with coronary artery disease?

<p>Weaknesses of the sinus node (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute, fusing T waves with R waves, which arrhythmia is likely observed?

<p>Sinus tachycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of arrhythmia could be reversed by carotid sinus massage, leading to palpitations of 160 beats per minute?

<p>Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of block is indicated by a broadened QRS complex exceeding 0.12 seconds in patients with deformed complexes in leads V1-V2?

<p>Complete block of the right bundle branch (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition corresponds with symptoms such as palpitations and increased heart boundaries in a 25-year-old patient with CRHD?

<p>Chronic heart failure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main characteristic feature on the ECG that suggests a complete block of the left bundle branch?

<p>QRS widening more than 0.12s (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with angina and symptoms of heart problems, what clinical feature might suggest a malfunctioning sinus node?

<p>Intermittent tachycardia with bradycardia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

A type of leukemia characterized by an overproduction of white blood cells, specifically myeloid cells.

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

A type of leukemia characterized by an overproduction of white blood cells, specifically lymphocytes.

B12-Deficient Anemia

A type of anemia caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B12.

Hypoplastic Anemia

A type of anemia characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells due to bone marrow failure.

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Erythremia

An increase in the number of red blood cells in the blood.

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Splenomegaly

A condition characterized by abnormal enlargement of the spleen, often associated with certain blood disorders.

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Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia (AML)

A type of leukemia characterized by a rapid increase in immature white blood cells, specifically myeloblasts.

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Megaloblastic Anemia

A type of anemia characterized by large, immature red blood cells.

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Atrioventricular Block (AV Block)

A heart condition where the electrical signals from the atria (upper chambers) to the ventricles (lower chambers) are delayed or blocked, causing a slower heart rate.

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Second Degree AV Block (Mobitz Type 1)

A type of AV block where some atrial impulses are blocked, but some get through, causing a pattern of dropped beats on the ECG.

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Second Degree AV Block (Mobitz Type 2)

A type of AV block where a consistent number of beats are dropped, leading to a fixed pattern of blocked impulses.

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Third Degree AV Block (Complete Heart Block)

A type of AV block where no electrical signals from the atria reach the ventricles, leading to a complete dissociation of heartbeats.

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First Degree AV Block

A type of AV block where the conduction time from the atria to the ventricles is prolonged, but all electrical signals get through.

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Bundle Branch Block

A heart rhythm disorder where the electrical activity in the ventricles is disrupted, resulting in a deformed QRS complex on the ECG. This is often caused by issues with one of the branches of the bundle branch (a part of the heart's electrical system).

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Brugada Syndrome

A heart condition characterized by abnormal electrical activity in the heart, leading to a rapid heart rate (tachycardia) followed by a slow heart rate (bradycardia).

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Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia (PSVT)

A type of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) where the heart beats very fast (usually 160 beats per minute) and often starts and stops abruptly.

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Nephrotic syndrome

A syndrome characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. This is a clinical manifestation of various kidney diseases.

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Hematogenic

A condition where bacterial infection spreads through the bloodstream to the kidneys.

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Urinary tract infection (UTI)

A common complication of urolithiasis (kidney stones) that involves inflammation of the urinary tract.

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Amyloidosis

A condition causing chronic inflammation of the kidney due to the deposition of amyloid protein in the kidney tissue.

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Polycystic kidney disease

A type of kidney disease characterized by numerous cysts in the kidney.

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Ascending infection

The most likely way bacterial infection can reach the kidneys.

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Kidney failure

A condition where the kidneys are unable to properly filter waste products from the blood, leading to an accumulation of waste in the body.

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Glomerulonephritis

A disorder characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli, the tiny filtering units in the kidneys.

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Acute Pyelonephritis

A bacterial infection of the kidneys, usually affecting one kidney. Symptoms include pain in the back, painful urination, fever, and cloudy urine. These symptoms often come on suddenly and can get worse quickly.

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Acute Glomerulonephritis

An inflammation of the glomeruli, the filtering units of the kidneys. This condition can develop suddenly or over time, leading to swelling, high blood pressure, and reduced urine output.

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Chronic Pyelonephritis

A long-term inflammation of the kidneys that can lead to kidney damage. It is often caused by repeated bacterial infections or other factors. Symptoms may be similar to acute pyelonephritis, but they are usually less severe and may come and go.

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Chronic Glomerulonephritis

A long-term inflammation of the kidney's filtering units (glomeruli), leading to decreased kidney function. It can be caused by various factors, including autoimmune diseases and chronic infections.

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Chronic Tubulointerstitial Nephritis

An inflammatory condition affecting the tubules of the kidney, which are responsible for reabsorbing essential substances from urine. This can lead to altered urine composition and kidney dysfunction.

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Diuretics

Diuretics are medications that increase urine production by the kidneys, helping to lower blood pressure and reduce fluid retention. They are often prescribed for conditions such as hypertension and heart failure.

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β-blockers

β-blockers are a class of drugs that block the effects of adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine), leading to a decrease in heart rate, blood pressure, and contractility.

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ACE inhibitors

ACE inhibitors are a type of medication that inhibits the enzyme angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), preventing the formation of angiotensin II, a powerful vasoconstrictor. This leads to lower blood pressure and reduced risk of heart failure.

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Calcium antagonists

Calcium antagonists block calcium channels in heart muscle and blood vessel walls, preventing the influx of calcium and leading to relaxation of blood vessels and a decrease in heart rate.

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Angiotensin receptor antagonists

Angiotensin receptor antagonists (ARBs) are medications that block the action of angiotensin II by binding to its receptors on blood vessels, leading to relaxation and lowering of blood pressure.

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UTI Agent

A common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is the presence of bacteria, particularly Escherichia coli (E. coli), which can enter the urinary tract and cause inflammation and infection.

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Kidney Topography

The kidneys are located in the retroperitoneal space, specifically in the lumbar region, on either side of the vertebral column, behind the parietal peritoneum.

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INR Range for Warfarin

A normal INR (International Normalized Ratio) range for a patient taking warfarin following mitral valve replacement is typically between 2.0 and 3.0. This range helps ensure adequate blood thinning to prevent blood clots without increasing the risk of bleeding.

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FEV1/FVC < 70%

A measure of airflow limitation during spirometry, defined by a ratio of forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) to forced vital capacity (FVC) less than 70%.

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Bronchial Asthma

A respiratory condition characterized by recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and coughing, often triggered by allergens, irritants, or exercise.

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Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

A chronic respiratory disease characterized by airflow obstruction and limitation, often due to smoking.

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Acute Bronchitis

An inflammation of the bronchi, the airways that carry air to the lungs.

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Nosocomial Pneumonia

A type of pneumonia that develops in a hospitalized patient who was previously healthy.

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Community-Acquired Pneumonia

A type of pneumonia that is acquired outside of a healthcare setting, usually from the community.

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Cough

A common symptom of respiratory illnesses, characterized by a forceful expulsion of air from the lungs.

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Legionella

A bacterial infection that can cause severe pneumonia, particularly in older adults and those with weakened immune systems.

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Study Notes

PRASHNA 1

  • Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD): The main symptom is heartburn.
  • Chronic Gastritis: Common causes include Helicobacter pylori.
  • Cholestasis Syndrome: Characteristic lab finding: increased alkaline phosphatase.

PRASHNA 2

  • Chronic Gastritis: Common causes include Yersinia, Chlamydia, Streptococcus, Staphylococci, Helicobacteria.

PRASHNA 3

  • Cholestasis Syndrome: Laboratory changes characteristic of cholestasis syndrome include increased alkaline phosphatase.

PRASHNA 4

  • Gallbladder Inflammation (Cholecystitis): Leading factors in acute or chronic inflammation include stagnation of bile, chronic hepatitis, chronic pancreatitis and high fat diet.

PRASHNA 1 (page 2)

  • Possible Diagnosis: IHD, progressive angina, Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), Helicobacter pylori-associated chronic gastritis, Peptic ulcer disease of duodenum.

PRASHNA 2 (page 2)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Chronic autoimmune gastritis

PRASHNA 3 (page 2)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Chronic autoimmune gastritis

PRASHNA 4 (page 2)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Stomach ulcer

PRASHNA 5 (page 3)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Chronic gastritis, Chronic pancreatitis, Chronic cholecystitis, Biliary dyskinesia, Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

PRASHNA 6 (page 3)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

PRASHNA 7 (page 3)

  • Diagnosis of Exception: Irritable Bowel Syndrome

PRASHNA 8 (page 3)

  • Clinical Syndrome: Sideropenic

PRASHNA 9 (page 4)

  • Constipation-causing Medications: Some antibiotics, iron preparations, preparations of bile acids and magnesium sulfate.

PRASHNA 10 (page 4)

  • Irigoscopy Contraindications: Conditions like anal pain, acute anal fissures, stool disorders (constipation, diarrhea) or suspected rectal/sigmoid colon disease.

PRASHNA 11 (page 4)

  • Irritable Bowel Syndrome Symptoms: Possible symptoms include abdominal pain, bloating, feeling of incomplete defecation, etc.

PRASHNA 12 (page 4)

  • Differential Diagnosis of IBS and Chronic Pancreatitis: Important factors include steatorrhea, creatorrhea, amylorrhea, positive fecal occult blood test.

PRASHNA 13 (page 4)

  • Functional Diarrhea Symptoms: Common findings in this condition include anemia, leucocyturia (leukocytes in urine) and elevation of transaminases.

PRASHNA 14 (page 5)

  • Functional Diarrhea Frequency: Defecation frequency is often more than 5 times a day, sometimes more than 10 or 15 times.

PRASHNA 15 (page 5)

  • Optimal IBS Constipation Treatment in Elderly: Smecta, Dufalac and Magnesia sulfate are some of the drugs that may be considered in this context.

PRASHNA 16 (page 5)

  • Differential Diagnosis of IBS and Hemorrhoidal Dilation: Significant criterion is presence of blood in the stool at the end of defecation.

PRASHNA 17 (page 5)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Chronic pancreatitis

PRASHNA 18 (page 6)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Chronic cholangitis, exacerbation

PRASHNA 19 (page 6)

  • Diagnostic Method: Ultrasound of the liver and gallbladder is a crucial method for confirming the diagnosis.

PRASHNA 20 (page 6)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Chronic calculous cholecystitis

PRASHNA 21 (page 7)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Chronic cholecystitis

PRASHNA 22 (page 7)

  • Clinical Syndrome to focus on: Treatment would be directed towards Intestinal dyspepsia.

PRASHNA 23 (page 7)

  • Likely Cause of Heartburn in Pregnancy: Increased intra-abdominal pressure.

PRASHNA 24 (page 8)

  • Required Study: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) for diagnosis.

PRASHNA 25 (page 8)

  • Most likely diagnosis: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

PRASHNA 26 (page 8)

  • Suspected Ulcer Factor: Medication may be a factor associated with peptic ulcer development. Autoimmune factors also need to be considered.

PRASHNA 27 (page 8)

  • Diagnosis: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the most likely diagnosis.

PRASHNA 28 (page 9)

  • Diagnosis: Stomach ulcer.
  • Infectious Agent: Helicobacter Pylori

PRASHNA 29 (page 9)

  • Diagnostic Procedure: EGD with targeted biopsy for H. pylori infection

PRASHNA 30 (page 9)

  • Treatment: Eradication therapy for Helicobacter Pylori infection.

PRASHNA 31 (page 9)

  • Peptic Ulcer Complication: Bleeding is the most likely complication described.

PRASHNA 32 (page 10)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Irritable Bowel Syndrome

PRASHNA 33 (page 11)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Secondary biliary cirrhosis
  • Increased Liver Enzymes: The key finding indicating possible complications after cholecystectomy

PRASHNA 34 (page 11)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Chronic cholestatic hepatitis.

PRASHNA 35 (page 12)

  • Diagnosis: Iron deficiency anemia

PRASHNA 36 (page 12)

  • Cause of Iron Deficiency Anemia: Common causes include blood loss (hemorrhoids, helminthic invasion, or other causes of blood loss), various factors including smoking.

PRASHNA 37 (page 12)

  • Syndrome Criteria: Sideropenic syndrome is characterised by the triad of dry skin, brittle nails and hair loss.

PRASHNA 38 (page 12)

  • Possible Anemia Diagnosis: Based on the hemogram, iron deficiency anemia is most likely.

PRASHNA 39 (page 13)

  • Likely Diagnosis: B12 deficiency anemia is most likely and also other types of anemia.

PRASHNA 40 (page 13)

  • Diagnostic Method: Blood tests, including serum iron levels, are important for establishing the diagnosis in this case.

PRASHNA 41 (page 13)

  • Proper Treatment: Intravenous administration of vitamin B12 is usually the route of administration for this type of treatment.

PRASHNA 42 (page 14)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Chronic myeloid leukemia.

PRASHNA 43 (page 14)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

PRASHNA 44 (page 15)

  • Anemia Type: B12-deficiency anemia

PRASHNA 45 (page 15)

  • Myelogram Pattern for Hypoplastic Anemia: The typical myelogram shows bone marrow hypocellularity; decreased cellularity.

PRASHNA 46 (page 15)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Acute leukemia.

PRASHNA 47 (page 15)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Acute lymphatic leukemia

PRASHNA 48 (page 16)

  • Nail Change Associated Anemia: Iron deficiency anemia is a possible cause

PRASHNA 1 (page 16)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
  • Immunological Markers: Positive expression for CD10, and CD19 markers, and negative for clg, and slg.

PRASHNA 2 (page 16)

  • Drug Indication: This applies to both acute myeloid and acute lymphocytic leukemia.

PRASHNA 3 (page 16)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Iron deficiency anemia

PRASHNA 4 (page 17)

  • Most likely diagnosis: Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries.

PRASHNA 5 (page 17)

  • Treatment for IDA in Women: Iron preparations for 6 weeks.

PRASHNA 6 (page 17)

  • Treatment for Acute Leukemia: Removing the cancer cells; usually, an approach to chemotherapy for remission with potential allogeneic bone marrow therapy is used for long-term survival.

PRASHNA 7 (page 17)

  • Diagnosis: B12-deficiency anemia

PRASHNA 8 (page 18)

  • Possible Diagnosis: Acute leukemia.

PRASHNA 9 (page 18)

  • Diagnostic Method: Blood tests and bone marrow aspiration

PRASHNA 10 (page 18)

  • Most Likely Diagnosis: Anemia.

PRASHNA 11 (page 19)

  • Drug for Pregnant Woman with Anemia: Ferrous Sulfate preparations for pregnant women are safe for both the patient and the developing fetus.

PRASHNA 1 (page 20)

  • Biomarker for Atherosclerosis: High triglycerides.

PRASHNA 2 (page 20)

  • Angina Pain Quality: Crushing or squeezing chest pain.

PRASHNA 3 (page 20)

  • Classic Angina Pain Radiation: Left arm is the most common area.

PRASHNA 4 (page 20)

  • Diagnosis: Angina.

PRASHNA 5 (page 20)

  • Disease which increases likelihood of Coronary Artery Disease: Hypothyroidism.

PRASHNA 6 (page 20)

  • Disease often associated with Dyslipidemia: Hypothyroidism

PRASHNA 7 (page 20)

  • Indicator of Resorption-Necrosis Sybdrome: Hypercoagulation.

PRASHNA 8 (page 21)

  • Myocardial Infarction Cause: Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries or blockage of the coronary arteries.

PRASHNA 9 (page 21)

  • Diagnosis: Stable Angina Pectoris.

PRASHNA 10 (page 21)

  • ECG Change in Coronary Artery Disease: ST segment depression in multiple leads.

PRASHNA 11 (page 22)

  • Risk Factor for IHD: Smoking is a significant risk factor.

PRASHNA 12 (page 22)

  • ECG finding in acute myocardial infarction: Q-wave and ST segment elevation.

PRASHNA 13 (page 22)

  • Diagnosis: Angina pectoris of exertion or stable angina.

PRASHNA 14 (page 22)

  • ECG Changes Unfavorable to Coronary Artery Disease: ST segment depression in several leads is an ECG finding that's not an optimal sign.

PRASHNA 15 (page 23)

  • Unfavorable ECG Change: P wave broadening is associated with poorer prognosis.

PRASHNA 16 (page 23)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Coronary artery disease.

PRASHNA 17 (page 23)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Possible causes of chest pain include myocardial infarction and also angina pectoris

PRASHNA 18 (page 24)

Likely Diagnosis: Angina Pectoris

PRASHNA 19 (page 24)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Myocardial infarction

PRASHNA 20(page 25)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Atrial fibrillation is evident

PRASHNA 21 (page 25)

  • Rhythm Disruption: Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

PRASHNA 22 (page 25)

  • ECG Interpretation: Sinus bradycardia is suspected.

PRASHNA 23 (page 26)

  • ECG finding: Atrial fibrillation.

PRASHNA 24 (page 26)

  • ECG finding: Atrioventricular block of degree III

PRASHNA 25 (page 26)

  • ECG finding: Atrioventricular block of degree II Mobitz type 1

PRASHNA 26 (page 27)

  • ECG finding: Atrioventricular block of degree II Mobitz type 1

PRASHNA 27 (page 27)

  • ECG finding: Incomplete right bundle branch block

PRASHNA 28 (page 27)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Atrial flutter, or atrial fibrillation

PRASHNA 29 (page 28)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Possible causes of chest pain, include myocardial infarction and also angina pectoris

PRASHNA 30 (page 28)

  • Arrhythmia: Atrial fibrillation.

PRASHNA 31 (page 28)

  • Complication: Arrhythmic shock.

PRASHNA 32 (page 28)

  • Likely heart failure stage: Stage II-B

PRASHNA 1 (page 29)

  • Likely Diagnosis: There is a possible need for spirometry to analyze lung function.

PRASHNA 2 (page 29)

  • Valvular Defect: Aortic insufficiency.

PRASHNA 3 (page 29)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Angina Pectoris.

PRASHNA 4 (page 29)

  • ECG Finding in Exercise Testing: Single ventricular extrasystoles are a potential concern in this context.

PRASHNA 5 (page 29)

PRASHNA 6 (page 30)

  • Risk Factor: Smoking.

PRASHNA 7 (page 30)

  • Physiological change in Resorption-Necrosis syndrome: Hypercoagulation.

PRASHNA 8 (page 30)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Angina.

PRASHNA 9 (page 31)

  • Hypotensive Drug Classification: Beta-blockers.

PRASHNA 10 (page 31)

  • Contraindicated Drug: Beta-blockers are contra-indicated in some situations relating to COPD.

PRASHNA 11 (page 31)

  • MOST Appropriate Drug: ACE inhibitors are a preferred drug in certain contexts to treat hypertension in pregnancy

PRASHNA 12 (page 32)

  • Treatment: Diuretics

PRASHNA 13 (page 32)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Hypertension

PRASHNA 14 (page 32)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Atrial fibrillation.

PRASHNA 15 (page 32)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Atrial flutter

PRASHNA 16 (page 33)

  • Drug Group: Diuretics.

PRASHNA 17 (page 33)

  • Treatment: ACE inhibitors are the most appropriate choice.

PRASHNA 18 (page 33)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Secondary Biliary Cirrhosis.

PRASHNA 19 (page 34)

  • Likely Recommendation: L-Thyroxine.

PRASHNA 20 (page 34)

  • Likely Drug Group: Beta-blockers.

PRASHNA 21 (page 34)

  • Likely Therapy: Discontinuing the medication is the correct strategy.

PRASHNA 22 (page 34)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Hypothyroidism

PRASHNA 1 (page 35)

  • Diagnosis method: Electrocardiogram or EKG testing

PRASHNA 2 (page 35)

  • Diagnosis: Possible causes of chest pain include myocardial infarction and also angina pectoris

PRASHNA 3 (page 35)

  • Diagnosis: Angina Pectoris

PRASHNA 4 (page 36)

  • ECG finding in exercise testing: Single ventricular extrasystoles

PRASHNA 1 (page 38)

  • Diagnosis: Most likely cause is Complete heart block or complete atrioventricular block.

PRASHNA 2 (page 38)

  • Urine Infection Agent: Klebsiella is most likely.

PRASHNA 3 (page 38)

  • Kidney Infection Route: Urinogenic is the most common route of kidney infection.

PRASHNA 4 (page 39)

  • Clinical Syndrome: Acute renal failure.

PRASHNA 5 (page 39)

  • Possible complication associated with kidney stones: Urinary tract infection.

PRASHNA 6 (page 40)

  • Cause of Vesicouretral reflux: Chronic pyelonephritis could often cause this.

PRASHNA 7 (page 40)

  • Nephrotic Syndrome Presentation: Nephrotic syndrome is primarily characterized by edema, proteinuria, and hematuria.

PRASHNA 8 (page 40)

  • Edematous Syndrome Mechanism: The main mechanism in this context relates to reduction in oncotic pressure.

PRASHNA 9 (page 40)

  • Urinary Tract Infection Syndrome: Dysuric syndrome could be the best answer.

PRASHNA 10 (page 41)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Acute glomerulonephritis.

PRASHNA 11 (page 41)

  • Diagnostic Method: Urine culture.

PRASHNA 12 (page 41)

  • GFR for CKD Stage 3B: 30-44 ml/min is the characteristic GFR level.

PRASHNA 13 (page 41)

  • Neophrotic Syndrome Symptom for Adolescents: Severe swelling, pallor, and hypoalbuminemia are characteristic for adolescents suffering from nephrotic syndrome.

PRASHNA 1 (page 42)

  • Possible Cause of Symptoms: The most likely problem is acute glomerulonehpritis.

PRASHNA 2 (page 42)

  • Typical Disease: Chronic glomerulonephritis is mostly possible.

PRASHNA 3 (page 42)

  • Urine Analysis Findings: The most likely diagnosis is acute pyelonephritis

PRASHNA 4 (page 42)

  • Antibacterial Treatment: Gentamicin

PRASHNA 5 (page 42)

  • Anti-relapse Drugs: In this context, there isn't one particular drug that is most common in regards to anti-relapse for urinary tract infections.

PRASHNA 6 (page 43)

  • Follow-up Appointment Frequency for Nephrotic Syndrome: 1 year.

PRASHNA 7 (page 43)

  • Anemia in CKD: Hyporegenerative anemia is most common in Chronic kidney disease.

PRASHNA 8 (page 43)

  • Dispensary Observation Period after Pregnancy: 1 year, 2 years, 3 years, 5 years are all possible.

PRASHNA 9 (page 43)

  • Treatment: Antibacterial therapy could be the most appropriate choice in this situation.

PRASHNA 10 (page 44)

  • Diagnosis: Acute pyelonephritis

PRASHNA 11 (page 44)

  • Urine Analysis: Acute pyelonephritis could be the most appropriate answer.

PRASHNA 12 (page 44)

  • Likely Diagnosis: Chronic glomerulonephritis, nephrotic form of exacerbation stage IV is a strong possibility in this case.

PRASHNA 1 (page 45)

  • Airway Obstruction Confirmation: Spirography

PRASHNA 2 (page 45)

  • Selective B2 Adrenergic Stimulants: Fenoterol, is a selective B2-adrenergic stimulant

PRASHNA 3 (page 45)

  • Side Effects of Inhaled Glucocorticosteroids: Oral candidiasis

PRASHNA 4 (page 45)

  • Airflow Rate Device: Peak flow meter.

PRASHNA 1 (page 46)

  • Uncontrolled Asthma Symptoms: Continued daytime symptoms are a potential issue.

PRASHNA 2 (page 46)

  • COPD Classification: The degree of obstruction and the number of exacerbations are needed to correctly classify COPD.

PRASHNA 3 (page 46)

  • COPD Classification: Again, the degree of obstruction and the number of exacerbations are vital for the correct COPD classification.

PRASHNA 4 (page 47)

  • COPD Classification: The classification will depend on the degree of obstruction and the number of exacerbations.

PRASHNA 5 (page 47)

  • Diagnostic Criteria: FEV1/FVC ratio.

PRASHNA 6 (page 47)

  • Useful Investigation Method: Spirometry.

PRASHNA 7 (page 47)

  • Bronchial Obstruction Cause: Bronchial mucosa edema.

PRASHNA 8 (page 47)

PRASHNA 9 (page 48)

  • Diagnosis criteria: Obstruction and exacerbations are essential components in diagnosis.

PRASHNA 10 (page 48)

  • Criteria for COPD: The number of hospitalisations needed is a relevant factor in this context.

PRASHNA 11 (page 48)

  • Diagnosis: Community-acquired pneumonia

PRASHNA 12 (page 49)

  • Complication: Severe acute respiratory virus infection.

PRASHNA 13 (page 49)

  • Syndrome Cause: Bronchial asthma, or maybe Community-acquired pneumonia.

PRASHNA 14 (page 49)

  • Treatment for Respiratory Failure Grade III: Oxygen therapy, and/or specific drugs are essential.

PRASHNA 15 (page 49)

  • FEV1 value: FEV1 value below 30%

PRASHNA 16 (page 49)

  • COPD assessment information: Frequency of exacerbations over the past year is relevant.

PRASHNA 17 (page 50)

  • Pathophysiological Symptom: Often, crepitations are associated with inflammation (or other processes).

PRASHNA 18 (page 50)

  • Symptom Cause: Lobar pneumonia is the most likely diagnosis.

PRASHNA 19 (page 50)

  • Most dangerous complication of community-acquired pneumonia: Infectious-toxic shock is life-threatening.

PRASHNA 20 (page 50)

  • Treatment for atypical pneumonia: Antibiotics are important.

PRASHNA 1 (page 51)

  • Purpose of Short-acting Beta-2 Agonists for Asthma: Relieving attacks and acute bronchoconstriction.

PRASHNA 2 (page 51)

  • Asthma Treatment: A combination of inhaled corticosteroid and long-acting beta-2-agonist is needed, along with other factors.

PRASHNA 3 (page 51)

  • Basic COPD Therapy: Inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting bronchodilators are often used.

PRASHNA 4 (page 51)

  • Basic COPD Therapy: Inhaled corticosteroid/long-acting beta-agonist combination therapy.

PRASHNA 5 (page 51)

  • Diagnosis: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

PRASHNA 6 (page 52)

  • Diagnosis: Likely a chronic respiratory disease such as bronchitis or bronchiolitis

PRASHNA 7 (page 52)

  • Treatment: Inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting beta-2-agonists.

PRASHNA 8 (page 52)

  • Diagnosis: Acute Bronchitis or bronchial obstruction

PRASHNA 9 (page 53)

  • Infectious Agent: Pneumococcus is a likely cause.

PRASHNA 10 (page 53)

  • Diagnosis: Bronchial asthma.

PRASHNA 11 (page 53)

  • Infectious Agent: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a significant concern.

PRASHNA 12 (page 53)

  • Diagnosis: Bronchial asthma

PRASHNA 13 (page 54)

  • Drug Choice: Inhaled glucocorticosteroids are often recommended, and in some cases a combination therapy is needed.

PRASHNA 14 (page 54)

  • Treatment: Inhaled glucocorticosteroids are often recommended.

PRASHNA 15 (page 54)

  • Diagnosis: Status asthmaticus - severity of bronchial obstruction.

PRASHNA 16 (page 55)

  • Diagnostic Method: Pulmonary function tests such as spirometry are most informative.

PRASHNA 17 (page 55)

  • Treatment: Inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting bronchodilators are highly likely in this situation.

PRASHNA 18 (page 55)

  • Diagnosis: Bronchial asthma is most likely to be the cause.

PRASHNA 19 (page 56)

  • Infection: Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

PRASHNA 20 (page 56)

  • Diagnosis: Persistent mild or moderate bronchial asthma.

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Test your knowledge on various gastrointestinal disorders such as GERD, chronic gastritis, cholestasis syndrome, and cholecystitis. Each question focuses on symptoms, causes, and laboratory findings associated with these conditions. Challenge your understanding of gastrointestinal health and disease!

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