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Questions and Answers
What is the recommended range for INR maintenance in a patient taking warfarin after mitral valve prosthetics?
What is the recommended range for INR maintenance in a patient taking warfarin after mitral valve prosthetics?
Which medication is most likely responsible for causing potassium levels to rise to 6.4 mmol/l in a patient undergoing treatment for hypertension and heart disease?
Which medication is most likely responsible for causing potassium levels to rise to 6.4 mmol/l in a patient undergoing treatment for hypertension and heart disease?
Given the symptoms of tightening in the heart and a rapid heart rate with a specific ECG pattern, what is the most likely rhythm disturbance present?
Given the symptoms of tightening in the heart and a rapid heart rate with a specific ECG pattern, what is the most likely rhythm disturbance present?
For a 60-year-old patient with hypertension and ischemic heart disease experiencing shortness of breath and palpitations, which treatment is most indicated?
For a 60-year-old patient with hypertension and ischemic heart disease experiencing shortness of breath and palpitations, which treatment is most indicated?
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In a 57-year-old man with severe shortness of breath and complete dissociation between P-waves and QRS complexes, what is the most suitable treatment tactic?
In a 57-year-old man with severe shortness of breath and complete dissociation between P-waves and QRS complexes, what is the most suitable treatment tactic?
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Which organism is most likely to be associated with urinary tract infections?
Which organism is most likely to be associated with urinary tract infections?
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What would be considered a dangerous level for INR that should be avoided in patients on warfarin therapy?
What would be considered a dangerous level for INR that should be avoided in patients on warfarin therapy?
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What class of medication is useful for treating hypertension and preventing arrhythmias in patients with a history of heart disease?
What class of medication is useful for treating hypertension and preventing arrhythmias in patients with a history of heart disease?
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What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with dull pains in the right lumbar region, painful urination, and cloudy urine after being sick for about a year?
What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with dull pains in the right lumbar region, painful urination, and cloudy urine after being sick for about a year?
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Which laboratory finding is most specific for nephrolithiasis?
Which laboratory finding is most specific for nephrolithiasis?
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In a patient with hypertension, general weakness, and proteinuria, which condition is most likely based on the presented symptoms?
In a patient with hypertension, general weakness, and proteinuria, which condition is most likely based on the presented symptoms?
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Which drug is recommended for anti-relapse treatment?
Which drug is recommended for anti-relapse treatment?
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What finding in urine analysis is characteristic of acute pyelonephritis?
What finding in urine analysis is characteristic of acute pyelonephritis?
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What is the most likely route of infection into the kidneys?
What is the most likely route of infection into the kidneys?
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Which syndrome is likely to be the leading diagnosis in Patient M. based on the presented symptoms?
Which syndrome is likely to be the leading diagnosis in Patient M. based on the presented symptoms?
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For which condition is the development of nephrotic syndrome most characteristic?
For which condition is the development of nephrotic syndrome most characteristic?
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What is the primary indicator found in a patient with severe airflow limitation during spirography?
What is the primary indicator found in a patient with severe airflow limitation during spirography?
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Which immunological indicator is specific for differentiating lupus nephritis?
Which immunological indicator is specific for differentiating lupus nephritis?
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What complication is most commonly associated with urolithiasis?
What complication is most commonly associated with urolithiasis?
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Which symptom is evaluated in the COPD assessment test?
Which symptom is evaluated in the COPD assessment test?
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Based on the symptoms presented, what is the most likely preliminary diagnosis for the 35-year-old female patient?
Based on the symptoms presented, what is the most likely preliminary diagnosis for the 35-year-old female patient?
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What is the most probable cause of the urinary tract condition in the 18-year-old man?
What is the most probable cause of the urinary tract condition in the 18-year-old man?
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What is the most likely pathogen causing pneumonia in a patient taking methotrexate after a viral infection?
What is the most likely pathogen causing pneumonia in a patient taking methotrexate after a viral infection?
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Which of the following blood pressure readings indicates hypertension in Patient M.?
Which of the following blood pressure readings indicates hypertension in Patient M.?
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Which laboratory finding is indicative of nephrotic syndrome in the urine analysis?
Which laboratory finding is indicative of nephrotic syndrome in the urine analysis?
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Which condition is most directly associated with bronchial obstruction?
Which condition is most directly associated with bronchial obstruction?
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In a patient with a history of bronchial asthma, which factor is crucial for managing respiratory failure of grade III?
In a patient with a history of bronchial asthma, which factor is crucial for managing respiratory failure of grade III?
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Which symptom is most commonly associated with acute bronchitis?
Which symptom is most commonly associated with acute bronchitis?
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Which condition can lead to symptoms of dyspnea, cough with scant sputum, and a fear of deterioration?
Which condition can lead to symptoms of dyspnea, cough with scant sputum, and a fear of deterioration?
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What is the most appropriate diagnosis for a 45-year-old man presenting with weakness, pallor, and specific blood findings indicating leukemia?
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for a 45-year-old man presenting with weakness, pallor, and specific blood findings indicating leukemia?
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A 53-year-old man presents with splenomegaly and an abnormal blood profile. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 53-year-old man presents with splenomegaly and an abnormal blood profile. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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What preliminary diagnosis is most likely for a 65-year-old patient with lymphadenopathy and leukocytosis with absolute lymphocytosis?
What preliminary diagnosis is most likely for a 65-year-old patient with lymphadenopathy and leukocytosis with absolute lymphocytosis?
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What type of anemia is characterized by hyperchromia and megaloblastic type of hematopoiesis?
What type of anemia is characterized by hyperchromia and megaloblastic type of hematopoiesis?
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In a patient with hypoplastic anemia, what is the most typical finding on a myelogram?
In a patient with hypoplastic anemia, what is the most typical finding on a myelogram?
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A 55-year-old woman with leukocytosis and lymphocytosis in her hemogram. What disease do these changes most commonly indicate?
A 55-year-old woman with leukocytosis and lymphocytosis in her hemogram. What disease do these changes most commonly indicate?
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What is the most characteristic feature of acute myeloblastic leukemia in the context of a 45-year-old patient?
What is the most characteristic feature of acute myeloblastic leukemia in the context of a 45-year-old patient?
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In what condition would you expect to see both lymphocyte infiltration and a negative Heddelson reaction?
In what condition would you expect to see both lymphocyte infiltration and a negative Heddelson reaction?
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Which type of atrioventricular block is characterized by progressively longer PR intervals until a QRS complex is dropped?
Which type of atrioventricular block is characterized by progressively longer PR intervals until a QRS complex is dropped?
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What is the most probable cause of tachyarrhythmia followed by bradycardia in a 75-year-old patient with coronary artery disease?
What is the most probable cause of tachyarrhythmia followed by bradycardia in a 75-year-old patient with coronary artery disease?
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In a patient with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute, fusing T waves with R waves, which arrhythmia is likely observed?
In a patient with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute, fusing T waves with R waves, which arrhythmia is likely observed?
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What type of arrhythmia could be reversed by carotid sinus massage, leading to palpitations of 160 beats per minute?
What type of arrhythmia could be reversed by carotid sinus massage, leading to palpitations of 160 beats per minute?
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Which type of block is indicated by a broadened QRS complex exceeding 0.12 seconds in patients with deformed complexes in leads V1-V2?
Which type of block is indicated by a broadened QRS complex exceeding 0.12 seconds in patients with deformed complexes in leads V1-V2?
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What condition corresponds with symptoms such as palpitations and increased heart boundaries in a 25-year-old patient with CRHD?
What condition corresponds with symptoms such as palpitations and increased heart boundaries in a 25-year-old patient with CRHD?
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What is the main characteristic feature on the ECG that suggests a complete block of the left bundle branch?
What is the main characteristic feature on the ECG that suggests a complete block of the left bundle branch?
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In a patient with angina and symptoms of heart problems, what clinical feature might suggest a malfunctioning sinus node?
In a patient with angina and symptoms of heart problems, what clinical feature might suggest a malfunctioning sinus node?
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Study Notes
PRASHNA 1
- Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD): The main symptom is heartburn.
- Chronic Gastritis: Common causes include Helicobacter pylori.
- Cholestasis Syndrome: Characteristic lab finding: increased alkaline phosphatase.
PRASHNA 2
- Chronic Gastritis: Common causes include Yersinia, Chlamydia, Streptococcus, Staphylococci, Helicobacteria.
PRASHNA 3
- Cholestasis Syndrome: Laboratory changes characteristic of cholestasis syndrome include increased alkaline phosphatase.
PRASHNA 4
- Gallbladder Inflammation (Cholecystitis): Leading factors in acute or chronic inflammation include stagnation of bile, chronic hepatitis, chronic pancreatitis and high fat diet.
PRASHNA 1 (page 2)
- Possible Diagnosis: IHD, progressive angina, Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), Helicobacter pylori-associated chronic gastritis, Peptic ulcer disease of duodenum.
PRASHNA 2 (page 2)
- Possible Diagnosis: Chronic autoimmune gastritis
PRASHNA 3 (page 2)
- Possible Diagnosis: Chronic autoimmune gastritis
PRASHNA 4 (page 2)
- Possible Diagnosis: Stomach ulcer
PRASHNA 5 (page 3)
- Possible Diagnosis: Chronic gastritis, Chronic pancreatitis, Chronic cholecystitis, Biliary dyskinesia, Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
PRASHNA 6 (page 3)
- Possible Diagnosis: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
PRASHNA 7 (page 3)
- Diagnosis of Exception: Irritable Bowel Syndrome
PRASHNA 8 (page 3)
- Clinical Syndrome: Sideropenic
PRASHNA 9 (page 4)
- Constipation-causing Medications: Some antibiotics, iron preparations, preparations of bile acids and magnesium sulfate.
PRASHNA 10 (page 4)
- Irigoscopy Contraindications: Conditions like anal pain, acute anal fissures, stool disorders (constipation, diarrhea) or suspected rectal/sigmoid colon disease.
PRASHNA 11 (page 4)
- Irritable Bowel Syndrome Symptoms: Possible symptoms include abdominal pain, bloating, feeling of incomplete defecation, etc.
PRASHNA 12 (page 4)
- Differential Diagnosis of IBS and Chronic Pancreatitis: Important factors include steatorrhea, creatorrhea, amylorrhea, positive fecal occult blood test.
PRASHNA 13 (page 4)
- Functional Diarrhea Symptoms: Common findings in this condition include anemia, leucocyturia (leukocytes in urine) and elevation of transaminases.
PRASHNA 14 (page 5)
- Functional Diarrhea Frequency: Defecation frequency is often more than 5 times a day, sometimes more than 10 or 15 times.
PRASHNA 15 (page 5)
- Optimal IBS Constipation Treatment in Elderly: Smecta, Dufalac and Magnesia sulfate are some of the drugs that may be considered in this context.
PRASHNA 16 (page 5)
- Differential Diagnosis of IBS and Hemorrhoidal Dilation: Significant criterion is presence of blood in the stool at the end of defecation.
PRASHNA 17 (page 5)
- Possible Diagnosis: Chronic pancreatitis
PRASHNA 18 (page 6)
- Possible Diagnosis: Chronic cholangitis, exacerbation
PRASHNA 19 (page 6)
- Diagnostic Method: Ultrasound of the liver and gallbladder is a crucial method for confirming the diagnosis.
PRASHNA 20 (page 6)
- Possible Diagnosis: Chronic calculous cholecystitis
PRASHNA 21 (page 7)
- Possible Diagnosis: Chronic cholecystitis
PRASHNA 22 (page 7)
- Clinical Syndrome to focus on: Treatment would be directed towards Intestinal dyspepsia.
PRASHNA 23 (page 7)
- Likely Cause of Heartburn in Pregnancy: Increased intra-abdominal pressure.
PRASHNA 24 (page 8)
- Required Study: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) for diagnosis.
PRASHNA 25 (page 8)
- Most likely diagnosis: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
PRASHNA 26 (page 8)
- Suspected Ulcer Factor: Medication may be a factor associated with peptic ulcer development. Autoimmune factors also need to be considered.
PRASHNA 27 (page 8)
- Diagnosis: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the most likely diagnosis.
PRASHNA 28 (page 9)
- Diagnosis: Stomach ulcer.
- Infectious Agent: Helicobacter Pylori
PRASHNA 29 (page 9)
- Diagnostic Procedure: EGD with targeted biopsy for H. pylori infection
PRASHNA 30 (page 9)
- Treatment: Eradication therapy for Helicobacter Pylori infection.
PRASHNA 31 (page 9)
- Peptic Ulcer Complication: Bleeding is the most likely complication described.
PRASHNA 32 (page 10)
- Likely Diagnosis: Irritable Bowel Syndrome
PRASHNA 33 (page 11)
- Likely Diagnosis: Secondary biliary cirrhosis
- Increased Liver Enzymes: The key finding indicating possible complications after cholecystectomy
PRASHNA 34 (page 11)
- Likely Diagnosis: Chronic cholestatic hepatitis.
PRASHNA 35 (page 12)
- Diagnosis: Iron deficiency anemia
PRASHNA 36 (page 12)
- Cause of Iron Deficiency Anemia: Common causes include blood loss (hemorrhoids, helminthic invasion, or other causes of blood loss), various factors including smoking.
PRASHNA 37 (page 12)
- Syndrome Criteria: Sideropenic syndrome is characterised by the triad of dry skin, brittle nails and hair loss.
PRASHNA 38 (page 12)
- Possible Anemia Diagnosis: Based on the hemogram, iron deficiency anemia is most likely.
PRASHNA 39 (page 13)
- Likely Diagnosis: B12 deficiency anemia is most likely and also other types of anemia.
PRASHNA 40 (page 13)
- Diagnostic Method: Blood tests, including serum iron levels, are important for establishing the diagnosis in this case.
PRASHNA 41 (page 13)
- Proper Treatment: Intravenous administration of vitamin B12 is usually the route of administration for this type of treatment.
PRASHNA 42 (page 14)
- Possible Diagnosis: Chronic myeloid leukemia.
PRASHNA 43 (page 14)
- Likely Diagnosis: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
PRASHNA 44 (page 15)
- Anemia Type: B12-deficiency anemia
PRASHNA 45 (page 15)
- Myelogram Pattern for Hypoplastic Anemia: The typical myelogram shows bone marrow hypocellularity; decreased cellularity.
PRASHNA 46 (page 15)
- Possible Diagnosis: Acute leukemia.
PRASHNA 47 (page 15)
- Possible Diagnosis: Acute lymphatic leukemia
PRASHNA 48 (page 16)
- Nail Change Associated Anemia: Iron deficiency anemia is a possible cause
PRASHNA 1 (page 16)
- Likely Diagnosis: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
- Immunological Markers: Positive expression for CD10, and CD19 markers, and negative for clg, and slg.
PRASHNA 2 (page 16)
- Drug Indication: This applies to both acute myeloid and acute lymphocytic leukemia.
PRASHNA 3 (page 16)
- Likely Diagnosis: Iron deficiency anemia
PRASHNA 4 (page 17)
- Most likely diagnosis: Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries.
PRASHNA 5 (page 17)
- Treatment for IDA in Women: Iron preparations for 6 weeks.
PRASHNA 6 (page 17)
- Treatment for Acute Leukemia: Removing the cancer cells; usually, an approach to chemotherapy for remission with potential allogeneic bone marrow therapy is used for long-term survival.
PRASHNA 7 (page 17)
- Diagnosis: B12-deficiency anemia
PRASHNA 8 (page 18)
- Possible Diagnosis: Acute leukemia.
PRASHNA 9 (page 18)
- Diagnostic Method: Blood tests and bone marrow aspiration
PRASHNA 10 (page 18)
- Most Likely Diagnosis: Anemia.
PRASHNA 11 (page 19)
- Drug for Pregnant Woman with Anemia: Ferrous Sulfate preparations for pregnant women are safe for both the patient and the developing fetus.
PRASHNA 1 (page 20)
- Biomarker for Atherosclerosis: High triglycerides.
PRASHNA 2 (page 20)
- Angina Pain Quality: Crushing or squeezing chest pain.
PRASHNA 3 (page 20)
- Classic Angina Pain Radiation: Left arm is the most common area.
PRASHNA 4 (page 20)
- Diagnosis: Angina.
PRASHNA 5 (page 20)
- Disease which increases likelihood of Coronary Artery Disease: Hypothyroidism.
PRASHNA 6 (page 20)
- Disease often associated with Dyslipidemia: Hypothyroidism
PRASHNA 7 (page 20)
- Indicator of Resorption-Necrosis Sybdrome: Hypercoagulation.
PRASHNA 8 (page 21)
- Myocardial Infarction Cause: Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries or blockage of the coronary arteries.
PRASHNA 9 (page 21)
- Diagnosis: Stable Angina Pectoris.
PRASHNA 10 (page 21)
- ECG Change in Coronary Artery Disease: ST segment depression in multiple leads.
PRASHNA 11 (page 22)
- Risk Factor for IHD: Smoking is a significant risk factor.
PRASHNA 12 (page 22)
- ECG finding in acute myocardial infarction: Q-wave and ST segment elevation.
PRASHNA 13 (page 22)
- Diagnosis: Angina pectoris of exertion or stable angina.
PRASHNA 14 (page 22)
- ECG Changes Unfavorable to Coronary Artery Disease: ST segment depression in several leads is an ECG finding that's not an optimal sign.
PRASHNA 15 (page 23)
- Unfavorable ECG Change: P wave broadening is associated with poorer prognosis.
PRASHNA 16 (page 23)
- Likely Diagnosis: Coronary artery disease.
PRASHNA 17 (page 23)
- Likely Diagnosis: Possible causes of chest pain include myocardial infarction and also angina pectoris
PRASHNA 18 (page 24)
Likely Diagnosis: Angina Pectoris
PRASHNA 19 (page 24)
- Likely Diagnosis: Myocardial infarction
PRASHNA 20(page 25)
- Likely Diagnosis: Atrial fibrillation is evident
PRASHNA 21 (page 25)
- Rhythm Disruption: Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
PRASHNA 22 (page 25)
- ECG Interpretation: Sinus bradycardia is suspected.
PRASHNA 23 (page 26)
- ECG finding: Atrial fibrillation.
PRASHNA 24 (page 26)
- ECG finding: Atrioventricular block of degree III
PRASHNA 25 (page 26)
- ECG finding: Atrioventricular block of degree II Mobitz type 1
PRASHNA 26 (page 27)
- ECG finding: Atrioventricular block of degree II Mobitz type 1
PRASHNA 27 (page 27)
- ECG finding: Incomplete right bundle branch block
PRASHNA 28 (page 27)
- Likely Diagnosis: Atrial flutter, or atrial fibrillation
PRASHNA 29 (page 28)
- Likely Diagnosis: Possible causes of chest pain, include myocardial infarction and also angina pectoris
PRASHNA 30 (page 28)
- Arrhythmia: Atrial fibrillation.
PRASHNA 31 (page 28)
- Complication: Arrhythmic shock.
PRASHNA 32 (page 28)
- Likely heart failure stage: Stage II-B
PRASHNA 1 (page 29)
- Likely Diagnosis: There is a possible need for spirometry to analyze lung function.
PRASHNA 2 (page 29)
- Valvular Defect: Aortic insufficiency.
PRASHNA 3 (page 29)
- Likely Diagnosis: Angina Pectoris.
PRASHNA 4 (page 29)
- ECG Finding in Exercise Testing: Single ventricular extrasystoles are a potential concern in this context.
PRASHNA 5 (page 29)
PRASHNA 6 (page 30)
- Risk Factor: Smoking.
PRASHNA 7 (page 30)
- Physiological change in Resorption-Necrosis syndrome: Hypercoagulation.
PRASHNA 8 (page 30)
- Likely Diagnosis: Angina.
PRASHNA 9 (page 31)
- Hypotensive Drug Classification: Beta-blockers.
PRASHNA 10 (page 31)
- Contraindicated Drug: Beta-blockers are contra-indicated in some situations relating to COPD.
PRASHNA 11 (page 31)
- MOST Appropriate Drug: ACE inhibitors are a preferred drug in certain contexts to treat hypertension in pregnancy
PRASHNA 12 (page 32)
- Treatment: Diuretics
PRASHNA 13 (page 32)
- Likely Diagnosis: Hypertension
PRASHNA 14 (page 32)
- Likely Diagnosis: Atrial fibrillation.
PRASHNA 15 (page 32)
- Likely Diagnosis: Atrial flutter
PRASHNA 16 (page 33)
- Drug Group: Diuretics.
PRASHNA 17 (page 33)
- Treatment: ACE inhibitors are the most appropriate choice.
PRASHNA 18 (page 33)
- Likely Diagnosis: Secondary Biliary Cirrhosis.
PRASHNA 19 (page 34)
- Likely Recommendation: L-Thyroxine.
PRASHNA 20 (page 34)
- Likely Drug Group: Beta-blockers.
PRASHNA 21 (page 34)
- Likely Therapy: Discontinuing the medication is the correct strategy.
PRASHNA 22 (page 34)
- Likely Diagnosis: Hypothyroidism
PRASHNA 1 (page 35)
- Diagnosis method: Electrocardiogram or EKG testing
PRASHNA 2 (page 35)
- Diagnosis: Possible causes of chest pain include myocardial infarction and also angina pectoris
PRASHNA 3 (page 35)
- Diagnosis: Angina Pectoris
PRASHNA 4 (page 36)
- ECG finding in exercise testing: Single ventricular extrasystoles
PRASHNA 1 (page 38)
- Diagnosis: Most likely cause is Complete heart block or complete atrioventricular block.
PRASHNA 2 (page 38)
- Urine Infection Agent: Klebsiella is most likely.
PRASHNA 3 (page 38)
- Kidney Infection Route: Urinogenic is the most common route of kidney infection.
PRASHNA 4 (page 39)
- Clinical Syndrome: Acute renal failure.
PRASHNA 5 (page 39)
- Possible complication associated with kidney stones: Urinary tract infection.
PRASHNA 6 (page 40)
- Cause of Vesicouretral reflux: Chronic pyelonephritis could often cause this.
PRASHNA 7 (page 40)
- Nephrotic Syndrome Presentation: Nephrotic syndrome is primarily characterized by edema, proteinuria, and hematuria.
PRASHNA 8 (page 40)
- Edematous Syndrome Mechanism: The main mechanism in this context relates to reduction in oncotic pressure.
PRASHNA 9 (page 40)
- Urinary Tract Infection Syndrome: Dysuric syndrome could be the best answer.
PRASHNA 10 (page 41)
- Likely Diagnosis: Acute glomerulonephritis.
PRASHNA 11 (page 41)
- Diagnostic Method: Urine culture.
PRASHNA 12 (page 41)
- GFR for CKD Stage 3B: 30-44 ml/min is the characteristic GFR level.
PRASHNA 13 (page 41)
- Neophrotic Syndrome Symptom for Adolescents: Severe swelling, pallor, and hypoalbuminemia are characteristic for adolescents suffering from nephrotic syndrome.
PRASHNA 1 (page 42)
- Possible Cause of Symptoms: The most likely problem is acute glomerulonehpritis.
PRASHNA 2 (page 42)
- Typical Disease: Chronic glomerulonephritis is mostly possible.
PRASHNA 3 (page 42)
- Urine Analysis Findings: The most likely diagnosis is acute pyelonephritis
PRASHNA 4 (page 42)
- Antibacterial Treatment: Gentamicin
PRASHNA 5 (page 42)
- Anti-relapse Drugs: In this context, there isn't one particular drug that is most common in regards to anti-relapse for urinary tract infections.
PRASHNA 6 (page 43)
- Follow-up Appointment Frequency for Nephrotic Syndrome: 1 year.
PRASHNA 7 (page 43)
- Anemia in CKD: Hyporegenerative anemia is most common in Chronic kidney disease.
PRASHNA 8 (page 43)
- Dispensary Observation Period after Pregnancy: 1 year, 2 years, 3 years, 5 years are all possible.
PRASHNA 9 (page 43)
- Treatment: Antibacterial therapy could be the most appropriate choice in this situation.
PRASHNA 10 (page 44)
- Diagnosis: Acute pyelonephritis
PRASHNA 11 (page 44)
- Urine Analysis: Acute pyelonephritis could be the most appropriate answer.
PRASHNA 12 (page 44)
- Likely Diagnosis: Chronic glomerulonephritis, nephrotic form of exacerbation stage IV is a strong possibility in this case.
PRASHNA 1 (page 45)
- Airway Obstruction Confirmation: Spirography
PRASHNA 2 (page 45)
- Selective B2 Adrenergic Stimulants: Fenoterol, is a selective B2-adrenergic stimulant
PRASHNA 3 (page 45)
- Side Effects of Inhaled Glucocorticosteroids: Oral candidiasis
PRASHNA 4 (page 45)
- Airflow Rate Device: Peak flow meter.
PRASHNA 1 (page 46)
- Uncontrolled Asthma Symptoms: Continued daytime symptoms are a potential issue.
PRASHNA 2 (page 46)
- COPD Classification: The degree of obstruction and the number of exacerbations are needed to correctly classify COPD.
PRASHNA 3 (page 46)
- COPD Classification: Again, the degree of obstruction and the number of exacerbations are vital for the correct COPD classification.
PRASHNA 4 (page 47)
- COPD Classification: The classification will depend on the degree of obstruction and the number of exacerbations.
PRASHNA 5 (page 47)
- Diagnostic Criteria: FEV1/FVC ratio.
PRASHNA 6 (page 47)
- Useful Investigation Method: Spirometry.
PRASHNA 7 (page 47)
- Bronchial Obstruction Cause: Bronchial mucosa edema.
PRASHNA 8 (page 47)
PRASHNA 9 (page 48)
- Diagnosis criteria: Obstruction and exacerbations are essential components in diagnosis.
PRASHNA 10 (page 48)
- Criteria for COPD: The number of hospitalisations needed is a relevant factor in this context.
PRASHNA 11 (page 48)
- Diagnosis: Community-acquired pneumonia
PRASHNA 12 (page 49)
- Complication: Severe acute respiratory virus infection.
PRASHNA 13 (page 49)
- Syndrome Cause: Bronchial asthma, or maybe Community-acquired pneumonia.
PRASHNA 14 (page 49)
- Treatment for Respiratory Failure Grade III: Oxygen therapy, and/or specific drugs are essential.
PRASHNA 15 (page 49)
- FEV1 value: FEV1 value below 30%
PRASHNA 16 (page 49)
- COPD assessment information: Frequency of exacerbations over the past year is relevant.
PRASHNA 17 (page 50)
- Pathophysiological Symptom: Often, crepitations are associated with inflammation (or other processes).
PRASHNA 18 (page 50)
- Symptom Cause: Lobar pneumonia is the most likely diagnosis.
PRASHNA 19 (page 50)
- Most dangerous complication of community-acquired pneumonia: Infectious-toxic shock is life-threatening.
PRASHNA 20 (page 50)
- Treatment for atypical pneumonia: Antibiotics are important.
PRASHNA 1 (page 51)
- Purpose of Short-acting Beta-2 Agonists for Asthma: Relieving attacks and acute bronchoconstriction.
PRASHNA 2 (page 51)
- Asthma Treatment: A combination of inhaled corticosteroid and long-acting beta-2-agonist is needed, along with other factors.
PRASHNA 3 (page 51)
- Basic COPD Therapy: Inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting bronchodilators are often used.
PRASHNA 4 (page 51)
- Basic COPD Therapy: Inhaled corticosteroid/long-acting beta-agonist combination therapy.
PRASHNA 5 (page 51)
- Diagnosis: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
PRASHNA 6 (page 52)
- Diagnosis: Likely a chronic respiratory disease such as bronchitis or bronchiolitis
PRASHNA 7 (page 52)
- Treatment: Inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting beta-2-agonists.
PRASHNA 8 (page 52)
- Diagnosis: Acute Bronchitis or bronchial obstruction
PRASHNA 9 (page 53)
- Infectious Agent: Pneumococcus is a likely cause.
PRASHNA 10 (page 53)
- Diagnosis: Bronchial asthma.
PRASHNA 11 (page 53)
- Infectious Agent: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a significant concern.
PRASHNA 12 (page 53)
- Diagnosis: Bronchial asthma
PRASHNA 13 (page 54)
- Drug Choice: Inhaled glucocorticosteroids are often recommended, and in some cases a combination therapy is needed.
PRASHNA 14 (page 54)
- Treatment: Inhaled glucocorticosteroids are often recommended.
PRASHNA 15 (page 54)
- Diagnosis: Status asthmaticus - severity of bronchial obstruction.
PRASHNA 16 (page 55)
- Diagnostic Method: Pulmonary function tests such as spirometry are most informative.
PRASHNA 17 (page 55)
- Treatment: Inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting bronchodilators are highly likely in this situation.
PRASHNA 18 (page 55)
- Diagnosis: Bronchial asthma is most likely to be the cause.
PRASHNA 19 (page 56)
- Infection: Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
PRASHNA 20 (page 56)
- Diagnosis: Persistent mild or moderate bronchial asthma.
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Test your knowledge on various gastrointestinal disorders such as GERD, chronic gastritis, cholestasis syndrome, and cholecystitis. Each question focuses on symptoms, causes, and laboratory findings associated with these conditions. Challenge your understanding of gastrointestinal health and disease!
