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In an exam consisting of 50 multiple-choice questions, including fill-in-the-blank and two case study questions, what is the weight of each case study question if the exam is worth 60 points?
In an exam consisting of 50 multiple-choice questions, including fill-in-the-blank and two case study questions, what is the weight of each case study question if the exam is worth 60 points?
- Each case study is worth 5 points.
- Each case study is worth 12 points.
- Each case study is worth 3 points.
- Each case study is worth 6 points. (correct)
What type of question formats are included in Exam 1?
What type of question formats are included in Exam 1?
- Essay questions only.
- Multiple choice questions only.
- True/False questions only.
- Multiple choice, select all that apply, and fill in the blank questions. (correct)
You are preparing for Exam 1. Which of the following is most important to study, according to the information provided?
You are preparing for Exam 1. Which of the following is most important to study, according to the information provided?
- Historical timelines of nursing.
- Theories of psychology.
- Nursing diagnoses for each condition. (correct)
- Dosage calculations.
If a student fails to study nursing diagnosis for each condition, according to the text, which type of questions will the student likely miss?
If a student fails to study nursing diagnosis for each condition, according to the text, which type of questions will the student likely miss?
What is the total point value of the two case study questions on Exam 1?
What is the total point value of the two case study questions on Exam 1?
A patient presents with dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia. Which pre-existing condition, if present, would be the LEAST likely risk factor for a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
A patient presents with dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia. Which pre-existing condition, if present, would be the LEAST likely risk factor for a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
A patient is suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test is MOST definitive for confirming the diagnosis?
A patient is suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test is MOST definitive for confirming the diagnosis?
A patient with a known history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being assessed for a potential pulmonary embolism (PE). Which clinical manifestation would MOST strongly suggest that the DVT has progressed to a PE?
A patient with a known history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being assessed for a potential pulmonary embolism (PE). Which clinical manifestation would MOST strongly suggest that the DVT has progressed to a PE?
A patient is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). Initial arterial blood gas (ABG) results show respiratory alkalosis. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of this ABG result in the context of PE?
A patient is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). Initial arterial blood gas (ABG) results show respiratory alkalosis. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of this ABG result in the context of PE?
A patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which medication, if taken by the patient, would require special consideration prior to the procedure?
A patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which medication, if taken by the patient, would require special consideration prior to the procedure?
Which component of Virchow's triad BEST explains the increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a post-operative patient who is immobile?
Which component of Virchow's triad BEST explains the increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a post-operative patient who is immobile?
A patient with a large pulmonary embolism is experiencing significant hypoxemia despite supplemental oxygen. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is MOST directly responsible for this hypoxemia?
A patient with a large pulmonary embolism is experiencing significant hypoxemia despite supplemental oxygen. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is MOST directly responsible for this hypoxemia?
During the assessment of a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism, the nurse notes the patient is restless, anxious, and reports a feeling of impending doom. What is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?
During the assessment of a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism, the nurse notes the patient is restless, anxious, and reports a feeling of impending doom. What is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?
Why are both heparin and warfarin typically administered at the start of treatment for a pulmonary embolism?
Why are both heparin and warfarin typically administered at the start of treatment for a pulmonary embolism?
A patient on a warfarin regimen for a PE has a prosthetic heart valve. What is the target INR range for this patient?
A patient on a warfarin regimen for a PE has a prosthetic heart valve. What is the target INR range for this patient?
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action for anticoagulant medications like heparin and warfarin in treating pulmonary embolism?
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action for anticoagulant medications like heparin and warfarin in treating pulmonary embolism?
A patient receiving thrombolytic therapy for a massive pulmonary embolism suddenly develops oozing from their IV site and a drop in blood pressure. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?
A patient receiving thrombolytic therapy for a massive pulmonary embolism suddenly develops oozing from their IV site and a drop in blood pressure. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?
What is the primary purpose of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter in a patient with a pulmonary embolism?
What is the primary purpose of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter in a patient with a pulmonary embolism?
A patient with a PE is started on a heparin drip. Which lab value is MOST important for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin?
A patient with a PE is started on a heparin drip. Which lab value is MOST important for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin?
A patient with a known PE is on bed rest. Which nursing intervention is MOST important to prevent complications associated with immobility?
A patient with a known PE is on bed rest. Which nursing intervention is MOST important to prevent complications associated with immobility?
What potential finding would cause the MOST concern when monitoring vital signs of a patient diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism?
What potential finding would cause the MOST concern when monitoring vital signs of a patient diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism?
A patient is being discharged on warfarin after being treated for a pulmonary embolism. Which dietary instruction is MOST important to include in their discharge teaching?
A patient is being discharged on warfarin after being treated for a pulmonary embolism. Which dietary instruction is MOST important to include in their discharge teaching?
A patient with chest trauma requires a chest tube. What is the primary purpose of a chest tube?
A patient with chest trauma requires a chest tube. What is the primary purpose of a chest tube?
A patient presents with decreased level of consciousness, pale, cool skin, and poor pulses. Which type of shock is MOST likely if the patient's history includes a recent pulmonary embolism?
A patient presents with decreased level of consciousness, pale, cool skin, and poor pulses. Which type of shock is MOST likely if the patient's history includes a recent pulmonary embolism?
Which of the following assessment findings would be LEAST consistent with obstructive shock?
Which of the following assessment findings would be LEAST consistent with obstructive shock?
A patient with obstructive shock secondary to cardiac tamponade is being prepared for definitive treatment. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A patient with obstructive shock secondary to cardiac tamponade is being prepared for definitive treatment. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A patient is diagnosed with neurogenic shock following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following physiological responses contributes MOST significantly to the decreased cardiac output seen in this type of shock?
A patient is diagnosed with neurogenic shock following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following physiological responses contributes MOST significantly to the decreased cardiac output seen in this type of shock?
Which of the following vital sign patterns would be MOST indicative of neurogenic shock?
Which of the following vital sign patterns would be MOST indicative of neurogenic shock?
A patient in neurogenic shock is receiving a vasoactive infusion. What is the PRIMARY goal of this treatment?
A patient in neurogenic shock is receiving a vasoactive infusion. What is the PRIMARY goal of this treatment?
Which of the following is the MOST important initial nursing intervention for a patient suspected of having obstructive shock?
Which of the following is the MOST important initial nursing intervention for a patient suspected of having obstructive shock?
A patient experiencing hypovolemic shock is hyperventilating. Which acid-base imbalance is most likely to develop as a direct result of this hyperventilation?
A patient experiencing hypovolemic shock is hyperventilating. Which acid-base imbalance is most likely to develop as a direct result of this hyperventilation?
In hypovolemic shock from acute blood loss, what is the primary reason for the body activating the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS)?
In hypovolemic shock from acute blood loss, what is the primary reason for the body activating the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS)?
A patient with a tension pneumothorax is exhibiting signs of obstructive shock. What is the underlying mechanism by which the pneumothorax is causing this type of shock?
A patient with a tension pneumothorax is exhibiting signs of obstructive shock. What is the underlying mechanism by which the pneumothorax is causing this type of shock?
Which laboratory finding would be MOST helpful in assessing the severity of impaired tissue perfusion in a patient with obstructive shock?
Which laboratory finding would be MOST helpful in assessing the severity of impaired tissue perfusion in a patient with obstructive shock?
A patient with hypovolemic shock is receiving fluid resuscitation. Which assessment finding would indicate that the fluid resuscitation is having a positive effect?
A patient with hypovolemic shock is receiving fluid resuscitation. Which assessment finding would indicate that the fluid resuscitation is having a positive effect?
A patient in hypovolemic shock has cool, clammy skin despite receiving oxygen therapy. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
A patient in hypovolemic shock has cool, clammy skin despite receiving oxygen therapy. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
What is the primary reason CVP is not a reliable indicator in obstructive shock?
What is the primary reason CVP is not a reliable indicator in obstructive shock?
Why might Lactated Ringer's (LR) solution be used cautiously in patients with liver conditions who are in hypovolemic shock?
Why might Lactated Ringer's (LR) solution be used cautiously in patients with liver conditions who are in hypovolemic shock?
A patient in hypovolemic shock is ordered to receive a rapid infusion of intravenous fluids. What nursing intervention is most important during this intervention?
A patient in hypovolemic shock is ordered to receive a rapid infusion of intravenous fluids. What nursing intervention is most important during this intervention?
A patient experiencing hypovolemic shock secondary to a gastrointestinal bleed is restless and confused. What is the most likely cause of this altered mental status?
A patient experiencing hypovolemic shock secondary to a gastrointestinal bleed is restless and confused. What is the most likely cause of this altered mental status?
Which laboratory value is most indicative of the severity of hypoperfusion in a patient with hypovolemic shock?
Which laboratory value is most indicative of the severity of hypoperfusion in a patient with hypovolemic shock?
A patient experiencing anaphylactic shock exhibits a sudden drop in blood pressure. Which physiological mechanism is the MOST direct cause of this hemodynamic change?
A patient experiencing anaphylactic shock exhibits a sudden drop in blood pressure. Which physiological mechanism is the MOST direct cause of this hemodynamic change?
A patient in anaphylactic shock presents with stridor and severe shortness of breath. What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?
A patient in anaphylactic shock presents with stridor and severe shortness of breath. What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?
In the progressive stage of hypovolemic shock, what is the significance of observing hypotension, tachycardia, and weak pulses?
In the progressive stage of hypovolemic shock, what is the significance of observing hypotension, tachycardia, and weak pulses?
What is the priority nursing action when a patient is suspected of experiencing hypovolemic shock?
What is the priority nursing action when a patient is suspected of experiencing hypovolemic shock?
A patient with a known bee sting allergy is stung and begins to develop urticaria, wheezing, and hypotension. After administering intramuscular epinephrine, what is the NEXT MOST important nursing action?
A patient with a known bee sting allergy is stung and begins to develop urticaria, wheezing, and hypotension. After administering intramuscular epinephrine, what is the NEXT MOST important nursing action?
What is the rationale for administering antihistamines and steroids during anaphylactic shock?
What is the rationale for administering antihistamines and steroids during anaphylactic shock?
Which hemodynamic parameter is MOST indicative of distributive shock, such as anaphylaxis?
Which hemodynamic parameter is MOST indicative of distributive shock, such as anaphylaxis?
A patient being treated for anaphylactic shock shows improvement in wheezing and urticaria but remains hypotensive. Which of the following interventions should the nurse consider FIRST?
A patient being treated for anaphylactic shock shows improvement in wheezing and urticaria but remains hypotensive. Which of the following interventions should the nurse consider FIRST?
When teaching a patient about EpiPen administration following an anaphylactic reaction, which instruction is MOST important to emphasize?
When teaching a patient about EpiPen administration following an anaphylactic reaction, which instruction is MOST important to emphasize?
In a patient experiencing anaphylaxis, which assessment finding indicates the MOST severe compromise of the patient's airway?
In a patient experiencing anaphylaxis, which assessment finding indicates the MOST severe compromise of the patient's airway?
Flashcards
Nursing Assessment
Nursing Assessment
A focused assessment to identify potential or actual health problems and risks.
Nursing Diagnosis
Nursing Diagnosis
A clinical judgment about individual, family, or community responses to actual or potential health problems/life processes.
Patient Outcomes
Patient Outcomes
Measurable statements of expected patient behavior or health status.
Nursing Interventions
Nursing Interventions
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Evaluation (Nursing)
Evaluation (Nursing)
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DVT Risk Factors
DVT Risk Factors
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Virchow's Triad
Virchow's Triad
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Pulmonary Embolism (PE)
Pulmonary Embolism (PE)
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V/Q Mismatch in PE
V/Q Mismatch in PE
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PE Clinical Manifestations
PE Clinical Manifestations
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PE Diagnostics
PE Diagnostics
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D-dimer
D-dimer
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ABG Changes in PE
ABG Changes in PE
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Hypovolemic Shock
Hypovolemic Shock
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Symptoms of Hypovolemic Shock
Symptoms of Hypovolemic Shock
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Causes of Hypovolemic Shock
Causes of Hypovolemic Shock
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Treatment for Hypovolemic Shock
Treatment for Hypovolemic Shock
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Nursing Assessment for Hypovolemic Shock
Nursing Assessment for Hypovolemic Shock
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Key Nursing Actions for Hypovolemic Shock
Key Nursing Actions for Hypovolemic Shock
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Key Teaching Points for Hypovolemic Shock
Key Teaching Points for Hypovolemic Shock
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Evaluating Outcomes of Hypovolemic Shock Treatment
Evaluating Outcomes of Hypovolemic Shock Treatment
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Key Labs to Monitor in Hypovolemic Shock
Key Labs to Monitor in Hypovolemic Shock
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Hyperglycemia in hypovolemic shock
Hyperglycemia in hypovolemic shock
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Anticoagulants
Anticoagulants
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Thrombolytics
Thrombolytics
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Catheter-Directed Thrombolysis (CDT)
Catheter-Directed Thrombolysis (CDT)
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Embolectomy
Embolectomy
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IVC Filter
IVC Filter
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Therapeutic aPTT on Heparin
Therapeutic aPTT on Heparin
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Target INR for Warfarin
Target INR for Warfarin
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Nursing Actions for PE
Nursing Actions for PE
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Dietary Considerations for PE
Dietary Considerations for PE
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Pulmonary Embolism Assessment
Pulmonary Embolism Assessment
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Obstructive Shock
Obstructive Shock
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Obstructive Shock Symptoms
Obstructive Shock Symptoms
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Obstructive Shock Causes
Obstructive Shock Causes
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Obstructive Shock Treatment
Obstructive Shock Treatment
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Obstructive Shock Assessment Findings
Obstructive Shock Assessment Findings
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Obstructive Shock Nursing Actions
Obstructive Shock Nursing Actions
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Obstructive Shock Teaching
Obstructive Shock Teaching
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Obstructive Shock Outcomes
Obstructive Shock Outcomes
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Obstructive Shock Labs
Obstructive Shock Labs
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Neurogenic Shock (Distributive)
Neurogenic Shock (Distributive)
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Hemodynamic Findings in Distributive Shock
Hemodynamic Findings in Distributive Shock
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Anaphylaxis Pathophysiology
Anaphylaxis Pathophysiology
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Anaphylaxis Symptoms
Anaphylaxis Symptoms
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Anaphylaxis Treatment
Anaphylaxis Treatment
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Anaphylaxis Assessment Findings
Anaphylaxis Assessment Findings
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Anaphylaxis Nursing Actions
Anaphylaxis Nursing Actions
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Anaphylaxis Patient Teaching
Anaphylaxis Patient Teaching
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Anaphylaxis Outcome Evaluation
Anaphylaxis Outcome Evaluation
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Study Notes
- Exam one contains 50 multiple choice questions including "select all that apply," fill in the blank, plus two case studies (6 points each), totaling 60 points.
- Knowing nursing diagnoses for each condition is important
PE (Pulmonary Embolism)
- Risk factors include the presence of DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis)
- Risk factors for DVT include obesity, smoking, chronic heart disease, A-fib, fracture, hip or knee replacement, major surgery/trauma, spinal cord injury, history of previous VTE, malignancy, estrogen use, age > 50, pregnancy
- Virchow's triad is a major DVT risk factor including venous stasis (PVD, immobility), vessel wall damage (diabetes, HTN, high cholesterol), hypercoagulability or blood disorder
- Causes/Patho involves blood clot lodge in pulmonary artery (PE) or air, tumor, amniotic fluid, fat
- V/Q mismatch results in ventilation that is good, but gas exchange isn't occurring leading to no perfusion
- This causes the heart to work extra hard leading to R sided HF
- As R side expands, it pushes on L side, which can't fill, leading to L sided HF
- Clinical Manifestations include dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachypnea
PE Continued
- Other Clinical Manifestations include tachycardia, hemoptysis, cough, accessory muscle use, anxiety/restlessness, feelings of doom due to not enough perfusion to the brain
- Diagnostics involve imaging studies and laboratory studies
- Imaging studies include ECG (to r/o MI), CXR (to r/o other causes of resp distress), CT scan with contrast (to identify PE) and holding metformin with contrast, a VQ scan to visualize PE if CT isn't available (> 0.8), pulmonary angiography most definitive test (Cath lab), LE doppler to id DVTs
- Laboratory studies include the D-dimer indicating if fibrin is elevated in blood d/t body trying to break down a clot, ABGS which starts as respiratory alkalosis, and eventually progresses to metabolic acidosis
- Pharmacological treatments include anticoagulants, which don't dissolve clot, but rather prevents growth of clot and new ones from forming. These include heparin drip, and warfarin.
- Heparin drip uses aPTT, and must be between 40-90 seconds or 1.5-2.5 x normal range
- Warfarin uses INR, and must be between 2.0-3.0 with heart valve = 2.5-3.5
- Two meds are used at the start because Warfarin takes a few days to reach therapeutic dose so give heparin in the meantime
- Thrombolytics include tPA, Alteplase, Streptokinase
- A Catheter directed thrombolysis (CDT) used for large PE or submassive.
- Surgical management includes embolectomy with a catheter, surgical most common if thrombolytics are contraindicated
- An inferior vena cava filter catches clots from lower extremities while still allowing blood flow to prevent clot from traveling up
Nursing Management and How to Prevent Complication
- Nursing Management includes assessment involving airway, oxygenation, frequent vital signs where BP might be elevated, chest pain, lab values (ABGS, lactic acid, aPTT, PT/INR), urine output, < 0.5 ml/kg/hr sign of shock and < 30 ml/hr is never a good sign (Kidneys not being perfused)
- Actions include:
- Elevate head of bed
- Administer IV fluids to thin blood a little (monitor for HF)
- Administer Thrombolytics, and Anticoagulants (maybe also digoxin or pressors)
- Institute bleeding precautions
- Prepare for intubation and resuscitation with intubation tray and crash cart ready
- Prevention of complications involves:
- Disease process/lifestyle modifications and medications
- Avoiding vitamin K and bleeding precautions
- Diet must be cardiac and avoid vitamin K
- Remember the therapeutic range of PTT if on heparin drip and goal INR for Warfarin (aPTT).
Chest Trauma
- The purpose of a chest tube is to remove fluid from the pleural space
- If a chest tube comes out: Petroleum gauze → then sterile gauze → then tegaderm (leave one side open)
- Tension pneumothorax is when air or blood collection in pleural space, with a tracheal deviation (cardinal sign), leading to a medical emergency because organs pushing on heart can lead to pressure on heart and PEA arrest. Treat with a chest tube.
- Cardiac tamponade means the heart cannot adequately fill or contract because of the compression of the ventricles, with hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and distended neck veins (Beck's triad), causing PEA arrest, and is treated by a Pericardiocentesis
- Signs and symptoms of chest wall contusion are tachypnea, tachycardia, shortness of breath, decreased oxygenation, decreased level of consciousness, decreased/absent lung sounds, Asymmetrical chest excursion
Respiratory Failure/ARDS
- Signs and Symptoms of respiratory failure include hypercapnia (headache, confusion, decreased LOC, can appear to be pink), and hypoxemia (changes in respiratory rate, heart rate, blood pressure, appear blue, and symptoms that tend to worsen as there is less cerebral perfusion, anxiety, restlessness, confusion).
- Signs/symptoms of ARDS include tachypnea, tachycardia, refractory hypoxemia (Low O2 despite oxygen delivery), sudden SOB (within 12-48 hours of lung injury), labored and fast breathing, coughing, tiredness, dizziness, headaches, cyanosis
- Management/Treatment/Complications of ARDS:
- Mechanical ventilation (Low tidal volume d/t scarring of lungs, High PEEP- positive end expiratory pressure)
- High-flow nasal cannula, ECMO (takes blood out, oxygenates blood, puts it back in), Prone positioning (16 hours prone, 8 hours supine, Recruit alveoli), and Medications are Antibiotics (after culture is done), Neuromuscular blockade (Train of 4, paralyzing medications, analgesia, anesthesia, Promote vent synchrony), Hydration (Thin secretions), Nutrition (Tube feedings)
- Ventilator Therapy: understand FiO2 (Fraction of inspired O2, Normally 21% FiO2 on room air), Peep being Positive pressure applied at the end of expiration of ventilator breaths (Usual setting 5 cm H2O where the higher, the sicker), Tidal Volume (Volume of delivered with each ventilator breath; 6-8ml/kg or 500 ml), Pressure Support (Positive pressure used to augment patient's inspiratory pressure; usual setting 5-10 cm H2O)
- The goal of medications for patient on ventilator therapy is Sedation (Drips: propofol, precedex, versed; IVP: fentanyl, versed, dilaudid with orders needed to titrate based on RASS Score) and VAP prevention (Famotidine, CHG PO; Famotidine to prevent stress induced stomach ulcers)
Sepsis/MODS
- Pathophysiology: Deregulated host response to infection with Excessive release of proinflammatory cytokines (Vasodilation, Decreased vasomotor tone, Increased capillary permeability lack of return of blood flow to the heart)
- Manifestations: Early stage/"warm" phase has tachycardia, bounding pulses, fever, whereas the Late stage/cold phase has cool, pale skin, weak, thready pulses, tachycardia, and hypotension
- Labs to monitor: ABGS, and Venous oxygen saturation
- ABGS will show Respiratory alkalosis with progression to metabolic acidosis as sepsis gets worse
- Treatment Review of Bundle of Care involving a 1 hour period upon arrival to complete.
- Treatment may not be completed in 1 hour, but should begin immediately with Antibiotics (Administered within 1 hour that Cultures should be done before are administered)
- Labs to monitor: CBC, coagulation factors, CMP, ABGS with Fluid resuscitation as a priority, Vasopressors, Corticosteroid therapy for conflicting evidence because it is an immunosuppressant (varies by hospitals), then ongoing monitoring
- Complications of septic shock:
- DIC: Disseminated intravascular coagulation; treated by Correcting the cause and blood transfusions; includes; Accelerated clotting within blood vessels → elevated consumption of platelets, which leads to Uncontrollable bleeding.
- MODS: Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome and Stress ulcers
- Nursing management/interventions:
- Assess for Neurological status, skin color and temperature, bleeding (Stool, urine, gums → signs of DIC)
- Vital signs with a Fevers → then progression to hypothermia and Tachycardia
- Lab test includes: ABGs, venous 02 sat, Metabolic profile with ABGs and Usually respiratory alkalosis with progression to metabolic acidosis
- Actions include meticulous hand washing, aseptic technique, oxygenation, preparing for intubation, administering antibiotics, starting with broad spectrum and then switching to more specific when cultures come back, Fluid replacement, Vasoactive support , and Mouth care
- Teachings include cause of sepsis, and Teach women how to wipe properly, Handwashing, and Allow family visitation. In evaluating care outcome of Satisfactory BP, Satisfactory cardiac output and, and Tissue perfusion patients.
Shock
- MODS occurs in Respiratory failure / distress then Renal failure, then Liver dysfunction, then GI dysfunction
- Having 3 or more dysfunctions occurs in 80%-90% mortality rate. With cardio and neuro it is 100% mortality.
- Initial Shock:
- is Hypoxia due to decreased oxygen delivery (DO2) to cells, the clinical manifestions shows subtle heart rate changes and Decreased cardiac output
- Compensatory
- Neural compensation: increased and decreased heart rate
- Endocrine compensation: vasoconstriction
- Chemical compensation
- Manifestations:
- Tachycardia and Tachypnea
- Low but normal BP with narrow pulse pressure (normal is 40)
- Progressive
- Has decreased urine output
- Failure of compensatory mechanisms to maintain adequate blood pressure and volume
- Nursing management/interventions include assessment: Neurological status, Vital signs, Hemodynamic readings with actions of LR fluids
- Labs will monitor O2, saturation, H& H (Hemoglobin and hematocrit), and Lactate
Types of Shock
- Hypovolemic Shock: Caused from decreased vascular system and Acute loss of volume (blood of fluid)
- Decreased venous return, decreased tissue perfusion causes kidney to RAAS
- Caused from Restlessness or confusion dt. lowered O2, Weak pulses, and Delayed cap refill
- Manifestations are from traumas (bleeds) burns, and diarrhea -Treatment option is NS or LR
- Cardiogenic Shock:
- Increased compensatory mechanisms (increases workload and myocardial oxygen demand)
- Manifestations: nausea/vomiting, Decreased cardiac output, and output and LOC. -Kidneys go first ( creatinine indicates dysfunction)
- Impaired oxygenation perfusion and not pink and warm
- Pulmonary pressure and VO2 stat will be down
- Increased compensatory mechanisms (increases workload and myocardial oxygen demand)
- Obstructive Shock
- Has a mechanical barrier or ventricular filling
- Includes Acute PE
- Nursing management/interventions Decrease in output/perfusion
- Vital signs show hypotension
- Diminished the lung and heart sounds
- Labs to monitor for O2 in Venous
- Includes Neurogenic and anaphylactic shock
- Patho-Decreased vascular tone. Causes cervical spinal injury Distributive Shock - Anaphylaxis
- Causes of upper T5 (Spinal shock)
- Manifestations included, warm and hyperthermia -Sympathetic nervous system and Decreased vascular tone
- Nursing management/interventions, and oxygenation
- Monitor for a low CVP and output with vital signs
Hemodynamics
- Pulmonary Catheter.
-Pressures are pulmonary artery
- Obtraining inflation with the balloon with the syringe to measure Cardiac output during Thermodilution
- Catheter is placed with Central Line to for Measure RA pressure from system from circulation
- Arterial Line can use for infusions, blood draws, trans pacemaker.
- Zero infusion, check if central, PaOp if high and abnormal to perfusion
- Placed IJ, check the placement for an Air embolism when removing. Then apply a hold pressure.
- Myocardial Infarction
-Atherosclerosis causing decreased perfusion.
-Progresses along the coronary system and Angina
. -Diagnostics:
- Lab work with troponin (best diagnosis) to muscle but could anywhere to Elevate in hours and days
- EKG = GOLD standard
- 12 lead indicates where the issues the are
- Treatment/Intervention for chest pain =remove clots with Medications, Increase blood and lower workload by monitoring.
- Antiplatelets/ Antithrombitics used for ASA or heparin and Percutaneous Coronary bybass (CABG/icu ) for assessment (heart tones) and with medications (monitor function) and interventions
- Cardiomyopathy
- Review signs, Weak, Weak, altered or decreased function. - Decreased lung function
- Medications like Beta and calcium
EKGs
- One small box is 0.04 seconds
- Intervals and normal ranges (QT intervals: 0.36 to .44 with Small box number.
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Description
Exam 1 contains 50 multiple-choice questions, fill-in-the-blank, and two case studies. It covers pulmonary embolism including risk factors, diagnosis, and nursing diagnosis. The exam is worth 60 points.