Exam 1: Case Studies & Pulmonary Embolism
51 Questions
0 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

In an exam consisting of 50 multiple-choice questions, including fill-in-the-blank and two case study questions, what is the weight of each case study question if the exam is worth 60 points?

  • Each case study is worth 5 points.
  • Each case study is worth 12 points.
  • Each case study is worth 3 points.
  • Each case study is worth 6 points. (correct)

What type of question formats are included in Exam 1?

  • Essay questions only.
  • Multiple choice questions only.
  • True/False questions only.
  • Multiple choice, select all that apply, and fill in the blank questions. (correct)

You are preparing for Exam 1. Which of the following is most important to study, according to the information provided?

  • Historical timelines of nursing.
  • Theories of psychology.
  • Nursing diagnoses for each condition. (correct)
  • Dosage calculations.

If a student fails to study nursing diagnosis for each condition, according to the text, which type of questions will the student likely miss?

<p>The case study questions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the total point value of the two case study questions on Exam 1?

<p>12 points (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia. Which pre-existing condition, if present, would be the LEAST likely risk factor for a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

<p>Hypotension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test is MOST definitive for confirming the diagnosis?

<p>Pulmonary angiography (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being assessed for a potential pulmonary embolism (PE). Which clinical manifestation would MOST strongly suggest that the DVT has progressed to a PE?

<p>Sudden onset of dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). Initial arterial blood gas (ABG) results show respiratory alkalosis. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of this ABG result in the context of PE?

<p>Hyperventilation due to anxiety and hypoxemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which medication, if taken by the patient, would require special consideration prior to the procedure?

<p>Metformin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of Virchow's triad BEST explains the increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a post-operative patient who is immobile?

<p>Venous stasis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a large pulmonary embolism is experiencing significant hypoxemia despite supplemental oxygen. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is MOST directly responsible for this hypoxemia?

<p>Ventilation-perfusion mismatch (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the assessment of a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism, the nurse notes the patient is restless, anxious, and reports a feeling of impending doom. What is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?

<p>Inadequate perfusion to the brain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are both heparin and warfarin typically administered at the start of treatment for a pulmonary embolism?

<p>Heparin works immediately to prevent further clot formation, while warfarin takes a few days to reach a therapeutic level. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on a warfarin regimen for a PE has a prosthetic heart valve. What is the target INR range for this patient?

<p>2.5-3.5 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action for anticoagulant medications like heparin and warfarin in treating pulmonary embolism?

<p>Preventing the growth of existing clots and formation of new ones. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving thrombolytic therapy for a massive pulmonary embolism suddenly develops oozing from their IV site and a drop in blood pressure. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?

<p>Applying pressure to the IV site and notifying the physician. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter in a patient with a pulmonary embolism?

<p>To catch clots from the lower extremities, preventing them from traveling to the lungs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a PE is started on a heparin drip. Which lab value is MOST important for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin?

<p>aPTT (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known PE is on bed rest. Which nursing intervention is MOST important to prevent complications associated with immobility?

<p>Encouraging frequent position changes, range-of-motion exercises, and ambulation as tolerated. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What potential finding would cause the MOST concern when monitoring vital signs of a patient diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism?

<p>Decreasing blood pressure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being discharged on warfarin after being treated for a pulmonary embolism. Which dietary instruction is MOST important to include in their discharge teaching?

<p>Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chest trauma requires a chest tube. What is the primary purpose of a chest tube?

<p>To drain air or fluid from the pleural space. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with decreased level of consciousness, pale, cool skin, and poor pulses. Which type of shock is MOST likely if the patient's history includes a recent pulmonary embolism?

<p>Obstructive shock (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following assessment findings would be LEAST consistent with obstructive shock?

<p>Bounding peripheral pulses (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with obstructive shock secondary to cardiac tamponade is being prepared for definitive treatment. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

<p>Pericardiocentesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with neurogenic shock following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following physiological responses contributes MOST significantly to the decreased cardiac output seen in this type of shock?

<p>Decreased peripheral vascular resistance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following vital sign patterns would be MOST indicative of neurogenic shock?

<p>Hypotension and bradycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in neurogenic shock is receiving a vasoactive infusion. What is the PRIMARY goal of this treatment?

<p>Decrease vasodilation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST important initial nursing intervention for a patient suspected of having obstructive shock?

<p>Administering supplemental oxygen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing hypovolemic shock is hyperventilating. Which acid-base imbalance is most likely to develop as a direct result of this hyperventilation?

<p>Respiratory alkalosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In hypovolemic shock from acute blood loss, what is the primary reason for the body activating the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS)?

<p>To increase blood pressure and restore fluid volume. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a tension pneumothorax is exhibiting signs of obstructive shock. What is the underlying mechanism by which the pneumothorax is causing this type of shock?

<p>Mechanical obstruction of venous return to the heart (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory finding would be MOST helpful in assessing the severity of impaired tissue perfusion in a patient with obstructive shock?

<p>Arterial blood gas (ABG) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hypovolemic shock is receiving fluid resuscitation. Which assessment finding would indicate that the fluid resuscitation is having a positive effect?

<p>Increased urine output and improved level of consciousness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in hypovolemic shock has cool, clammy skin despite receiving oxygen therapy. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?

<p>Blood is being shunted away from the skin to vital organs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason CVP is not a reliable indicator in obstructive shock?

<p>It varies depending on the underlying cause of the obstruction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might Lactated Ringer's (LR) solution be used cautiously in patients with liver conditions who are in hypovolemic shock?

<p>LR is metabolized by the liver, and impaired liver function can affect its conversion to bicarbonate, potentially leading to acidosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in hypovolemic shock is ordered to receive a rapid infusion of intravenous fluids. What nursing intervention is most important during this intervention?

<p>Monitoring the patient for signs of fluid overload, such as pulmonary edema. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing hypovolemic shock secondary to a gastrointestinal bleed is restless and confused. What is the most likely cause of this altered mental status?

<p>Decreased cerebral perfusion and oxygen delivery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory value is most indicative of the severity of hypoperfusion in a patient with hypovolemic shock?

<p>Lactate level (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing anaphylactic shock exhibits a sudden drop in blood pressure. Which physiological mechanism is the MOST direct cause of this hemodynamic change?

<p>Widespread venous dilation causing decreased venous return. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in anaphylactic shock presents with stridor and severe shortness of breath. What is the MOST appropriate initial nursing intervention?

<p>Immediately administer intramuscular epinephrine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the progressive stage of hypovolemic shock, what is the significance of observing hypotension, tachycardia, and weak pulses?

<p>They indicate that the compensatory mechanisms are failing and the shock is worsening. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the priority nursing action when a patient is suspected of experiencing hypovolemic shock?

<p>Initiating fluid resuscitation with intravenous fluids. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known bee sting allergy is stung and begins to develop urticaria, wheezing, and hypotension. After administering intramuscular epinephrine, what is the NEXT MOST important nursing action?

<p>Prepare for possible intubation to secure the airway. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for administering antihistamines and steroids during anaphylactic shock?

<p>To prevent further histamine release and reduce inflammation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hemodynamic parameter is MOST indicative of distributive shock, such as anaphylaxis?

<p>Decreased systemic vascular resistance (SVR). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient being treated for anaphylactic shock shows improvement in wheezing and urticaria but remains hypotensive. Which of the following interventions should the nurse consider FIRST?

<p>Increase the rate of intravenous fluid administration. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When teaching a patient about EpiPen administration following an anaphylactic reaction, which instruction is MOST important to emphasize?

<p>Always seek immediate medical attention after using the EpiPen, even if symptoms improve. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient experiencing anaphylaxis, which assessment finding indicates the MOST severe compromise of the patient's airway?

<p>Cyanosis around the lips and nail beds. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Nursing Assessment

A focused assessment to identify potential or actual health problems and risks.

Nursing Diagnosis

A clinical judgment about individual, family, or community responses to actual or potential health problems/life processes.

Patient Outcomes

Measurable statements of expected patient behavior or health status.

Nursing Interventions

Actions performed by the nurse to achieve patient outcomes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Evaluation (Nursing)

Ongoing process of evaluating patient progress toward goals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

DVT Risk Factors

Conditions that increase the risk of developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Virchow's Triad

Venous stasis, vessel wall damage, and hypercoagulability.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

A blood clot that lodges in the pulmonary artery, obstructing blood flow to the lungs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

V/Q Mismatch in PE

Ventilation is normal, but perfusion (blood flow) is reduced or absent.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PE Clinical Manifestations

Dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, tachycardia, hemoptysis, cough, anxiety

Signup and view all the flashcards

PE Diagnostics

ECG, CXR, CT scan w/ contrast, VQ scan, pulmonary angiography, LE doppler

Signup and view all the flashcards

D-dimer

Elevated levels indicate that the body is breaking down a clot.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ABG Changes in PE

Starts as respiratory alkalosis, then progresses to metabolic acidosis due to hypoxemia and anaerobic metabolism.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hypovolemic Shock

Shock due to acute loss of blood or fluid volume.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Symptoms of Hypovolemic Shock

Restlessness, confusion, decreased urine output, pale/cool skin, weak pulses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Causes of Hypovolemic Shock

Acute blood loss (trauma, GI bleed) or rapid fluid loss (vomiting, diarrhea, burns).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Treatment for Hypovolemic Shock

Optimize oxygenation, fluid resuscitation (NS or LR), treat underlying cause.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nursing Assessment for Hypovolemic Shock

Monitor neurological status, vital signs, hemodynamic readings and urine output.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Key Nursing Actions for Hypovolemic Shock

Prepare for intubation and establish IV access.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Key Teaching Points for Hypovolemic Shock

Cause of hypovolemia and plan of treatment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Evaluating Outcomes of Hypovolemic Shock Treatment

BP, filling pressures, venous O2 saturation, LOC, urine output, lactate level.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Key Labs to Monitor in Hypovolemic Shock

ABGs, venous oxygen saturation, hemoglobin/hematocrit, metabolic profile, lactate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hyperglycemia in hypovolemic shock

Increased cortisol/stress response.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anticoagulants

Prevents clot growth and new clot formation, but does not dissolve existing clots.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Thrombolytics

Medications like tPA, alteplase, and streptokinase that dissolve blood clots.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Catheter-Directed Thrombolysis (CDT)

Procedure using a catheter to deliver thrombolytic drugs directly to a large PE or submassive PE.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Embolectomy

Surgical removal of a blood clot, often used if thrombolytics are contraindicated.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IVC Filter

A filter placed in the inferior vena cava to catch clots from the lower extremities, preventing them from traveling to the lungs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Therapeutic aPTT on Heparin

40-90 seconds, or 1.5-2.5 times the normal range, when the patient is on a heparin drip.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Target INR for Warfarin

2.0-3.0, or 2.5-3.5 with a heart valve.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nursing Actions for PE

Elevate the head of the bed to improve breathing, administer IV fluids to support blood volume, give prescribed meds, and watch for bleeding.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dietary Considerations for PE

Cardiac diet (low salt, low fat) and avoiding excess vitamin K.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pulmonary Embolism Assessment

Airway maintenance, oxygenation, vital signs, chest pain, lab values (ABGs, lactic acid, aPTT, PT/INR), and urine output.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obstructive Shock

Mechanical barrier to ventricular filling or emptying, leading to decreased cardiac output and impaired tissue perfusion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obstructive Shock Symptoms

Decreased LOC, poor pulses, pale/cool skin, chest pain, nausea/vomiting, shortness of breath.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obstructive Shock Causes

Acute PE, cardiac tamponade, tension pneumothorax impairing ventricular filling or emptying.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obstructive Shock Treatment

Treat the underlying cause, supplemental oxygen, and vasoactive infusions to support blood pressure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obstructive Shock Assessment Findings

Decreased cardiac output and impaired tissue perfusion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obstructive Shock Nursing Actions

Administer oxygen, prepare for intubation, give medications, and prepare for definitive treatment of the underlying cause.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obstructive Shock Teaching

Causes of PE/DVT and anticoagulation therapy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obstructive Shock Outcomes

Adequate blood pressure, cardiac output, and tissue perfusion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Obstructive Shock Labs

ABGs and venous oxygen levels to assess oxygenation and tissue perfusion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Neurogenic Shock (Distributive)

Sympathetic nervous system disruption causing decreased vascular tone, increased vascular volume, decreased venous return, and bradycardia.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hemodynamic Findings in Distributive Shock

Decreased systemic vascular resistance and low central venous pressure (CVP).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anaphylaxis Pathophysiology

A severe, immediate hypersensitivity reaction mediated by histamine release.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anaphylaxis Symptoms

Shortness of breath, wheezing, stridor, cyanosis, confusion, and urticaria (hives).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anaphylaxis Treatment

Removal of the trigger, intramuscular epinephrine, airway management, antihistamines and steroids.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anaphylaxis Assessment Findings

Stridor, shortness of breath, decreased oxygen saturation, hypotension, tachycardia, increased respiratory rate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anaphylaxis Nursing Actions

Remove trigger, administer IM epinephrine, maintain oxygenation, establish IV access, administer medications as ordered.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anaphylaxis Patient Teaching

Avoidance of triggers and proper EpiPen administration.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anaphylaxis Outcome Evaluation

Resolution of wheezing, shortness of breath, and skin reactions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

  • Exam one contains 50 multiple choice questions including "select all that apply," fill in the blank, plus two case studies (6 points each), totaling 60 points.
  • Knowing nursing diagnoses for each condition is important

PE (Pulmonary Embolism)

  • Risk factors include the presence of DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis)
  • Risk factors for DVT include obesity, smoking, chronic heart disease, A-fib, fracture, hip or knee replacement, major surgery/trauma, spinal cord injury, history of previous VTE, malignancy, estrogen use, age > 50, pregnancy
  • Virchow's triad is a major DVT risk factor including venous stasis (PVD, immobility), vessel wall damage (diabetes, HTN, high cholesterol), hypercoagulability or blood disorder
  • Causes/Patho involves blood clot lodge in pulmonary artery (PE) or air, tumor, amniotic fluid, fat
  • V/Q mismatch results in ventilation that is good, but gas exchange isn't occurring leading to no perfusion
  • This causes the heart to work extra hard leading to R sided HF
  • As R side expands, it pushes on L side, which can't fill, leading to L sided HF
  • Clinical Manifestations include dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachypnea

PE Continued

  • Other Clinical Manifestations include tachycardia, hemoptysis, cough, accessory muscle use, anxiety/restlessness, feelings of doom due to not enough perfusion to the brain
  • Diagnostics involve imaging studies and laboratory studies
  • Imaging studies include ECG (to r/o MI), CXR (to r/o other causes of resp distress), CT scan with contrast (to identify PE) and holding metformin with contrast, a VQ scan to visualize PE if CT isn't available (> 0.8), pulmonary angiography most definitive test (Cath lab), LE doppler to id DVTs
  • Laboratory studies include the D-dimer indicating if fibrin is elevated in blood d/t body trying to break down a clot, ABGS which starts as respiratory alkalosis, and eventually progresses to metabolic acidosis
  • Pharmacological treatments include anticoagulants, which don't dissolve clot, but rather prevents growth of clot and new ones from forming. These include heparin drip, and warfarin.
  • Heparin drip uses aPTT, and must be between 40-90 seconds or 1.5-2.5 x normal range
  • Warfarin uses INR, and must be between 2.0-3.0 with heart valve = 2.5-3.5
  • Two meds are used at the start because Warfarin takes a few days to reach therapeutic dose so give heparin in the meantime
  • Thrombolytics include tPA, Alteplase, Streptokinase
  • A Catheter directed thrombolysis (CDT) used for large PE or submassive.
  • Surgical management includes embolectomy with a catheter, surgical most common if thrombolytics are contraindicated
  • An inferior vena cava filter catches clots from lower extremities while still allowing blood flow to prevent clot from traveling up

Nursing Management and How to Prevent Complication

  • Nursing Management includes assessment involving airway, oxygenation, frequent vital signs where BP might be elevated, chest pain, lab values (ABGS, lactic acid, aPTT, PT/INR), urine output, < 0.5 ml/kg/hr sign of shock and < 30 ml/hr is never a good sign (Kidneys not being perfused)
  • Actions include:
    • Elevate head of bed
    • Administer IV fluids to thin blood a little (monitor for HF)
    • Administer Thrombolytics, and Anticoagulants (maybe also digoxin or pressors)
    • Institute bleeding precautions
    • Prepare for intubation and resuscitation with intubation tray and crash cart ready
  • Prevention of complications involves:
    • Disease process/lifestyle modifications and medications
    • Avoiding vitamin K and bleeding precautions
    • Diet must be cardiac and avoid vitamin K
  • Remember the therapeutic range of PTT if on heparin drip and goal INR for Warfarin (aPTT).

Chest Trauma

  • The purpose of a chest tube is to remove fluid from the pleural space
  • If a chest tube comes out: Petroleum gauze → then sterile gauze → then tegaderm (leave one side open)
  • Tension pneumothorax is when air or blood collection in pleural space, with a tracheal deviation (cardinal sign), leading to a medical emergency because organs pushing on heart can lead to pressure on heart and PEA arrest. Treat with a chest tube.
  • Cardiac tamponade means the heart cannot adequately fill or contract because of the compression of the ventricles, with hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and distended neck veins (Beck's triad), causing PEA arrest, and is treated by a Pericardiocentesis
  • Signs and symptoms of chest wall contusion are tachypnea, tachycardia, shortness of breath, decreased oxygenation, decreased level of consciousness, decreased/absent lung sounds, Asymmetrical chest excursion

Respiratory Failure/ARDS

  • Signs and Symptoms of respiratory failure include hypercapnia (headache, confusion, decreased LOC, can appear to be pink), and hypoxemia (changes in respiratory rate, heart rate, blood pressure, appear blue, and symptoms that tend to worsen as there is less cerebral perfusion, anxiety, restlessness, confusion).
  • Signs/symptoms of ARDS include tachypnea, tachycardia, refractory hypoxemia (Low O2 despite oxygen delivery), sudden SOB (within 12-48 hours of lung injury), labored and fast breathing, coughing, tiredness, dizziness, headaches, cyanosis
  • Management/Treatment/Complications of ARDS:
    • Mechanical ventilation (Low tidal volume d/t scarring of lungs, High PEEP- positive end expiratory pressure)
    • High-flow nasal cannula, ECMO (takes blood out, oxygenates blood, puts it back in), Prone positioning (16 hours prone, 8 hours supine, Recruit alveoli), and Medications are Antibiotics (after culture is done), Neuromuscular blockade (Train of 4, paralyzing medications, analgesia, anesthesia, Promote vent synchrony), Hydration (Thin secretions), Nutrition (Tube feedings)
  • Ventilator Therapy: understand FiO2 (Fraction of inspired O2, Normally 21% FiO2 on room air), Peep being Positive pressure applied at the end of expiration of ventilator breaths (Usual setting 5 cm H2O where the higher, the sicker), Tidal Volume (Volume of delivered with each ventilator breath; 6-8ml/kg or 500 ml), Pressure Support (Positive pressure used to augment patient's inspiratory pressure; usual setting 5-10 cm H2O)
  • The goal of medications for patient on ventilator therapy is Sedation (Drips: propofol, precedex, versed; IVP: fentanyl, versed, dilaudid with orders needed to titrate based on RASS Score) and VAP prevention (Famotidine, CHG PO; Famotidine to prevent stress induced stomach ulcers)

Sepsis/MODS

  • Pathophysiology: Deregulated host response to infection with Excessive release of proinflammatory cytokines (Vasodilation, Decreased vasomotor tone, Increased capillary permeability lack of return of blood flow to the heart)
  • Manifestations: Early stage/"warm" phase has tachycardia, bounding pulses, fever, whereas the Late stage/cold phase has cool, pale skin, weak, thready pulses, tachycardia, and hypotension
  • Labs to monitor: ABGS, and Venous oxygen saturation
    • ABGS will show Respiratory alkalosis with progression to metabolic acidosis as sepsis gets worse
  • Treatment Review of Bundle of Care involving a 1 hour period upon arrival to complete.
  • Treatment may not be completed in 1 hour, but should begin immediately with Antibiotics (Administered within 1 hour that Cultures should be done before are administered)
  • Labs to monitor: CBC, coagulation factors, CMP, ABGS with Fluid resuscitation as a priority, Vasopressors, Corticosteroid therapy for conflicting evidence because it is an immunosuppressant (varies by hospitals), then ongoing monitoring
  • Complications of septic shock:
    • DIC: Disseminated intravascular coagulation; treated by Correcting the cause and blood transfusions; includes; Accelerated clotting within blood vessels → elevated consumption of platelets, which leads to Uncontrollable bleeding.
    • MODS: Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome and Stress ulcers
  • Nursing management/interventions:
    • Assess for Neurological status, skin color and temperature, bleeding (Stool, urine, gums → signs of DIC)
    • Vital signs with a Fevers → then progression to hypothermia and Tachycardia
    • Lab test includes: ABGs, venous 02 sat, Metabolic profile with ABGs and Usually respiratory alkalosis with progression to metabolic acidosis
  • Actions include meticulous hand washing, aseptic technique, oxygenation, preparing for intubation, administering antibiotics, starting with broad spectrum and then switching to more specific when cultures come back, Fluid replacement, Vasoactive support , and Mouth care
  • Teachings include cause of sepsis, and Teach women how to wipe properly, Handwashing, and Allow family visitation. In evaluating care outcome of Satisfactory BP, Satisfactory cardiac output and, and Tissue perfusion patients.

Shock

  • MODS occurs in Respiratory failure / distress then Renal failure, then Liver dysfunction, then GI dysfunction
  • Having 3 or more dysfunctions occurs in 80%-90% mortality rate. With cardio and neuro it is 100% mortality.
  • Initial Shock:
    • is Hypoxia due to decreased oxygen delivery (DO2) to cells, the clinical manifestions shows subtle heart rate changes and Decreased cardiac output
  • Compensatory
    • Neural compensation: increased and decreased heart rate
    • Endocrine compensation: vasoconstriction
    • Chemical compensation
  • Manifestations:
    • Tachycardia and Tachypnea
    • Low but normal BP with narrow pulse pressure (normal is 40)
  • Progressive
    • Has decreased urine output
    • Failure of compensatory mechanisms to maintain adequate blood pressure and volume
  • Nursing management/interventions include assessment: Neurological status, Vital signs, Hemodynamic readings with actions of LR fluids
  • Labs will monitor O2, saturation, H& H (Hemoglobin and hematocrit), and Lactate

Types of Shock

  • Hypovolemic Shock: Caused from decreased vascular system and Acute loss of volume (blood of fluid)
    • Decreased venous return, decreased tissue perfusion causes kidney to RAAS
    • Caused from Restlessness or confusion dt. lowered O2, Weak pulses, and Delayed cap refill
    • Manifestations are from traumas (bleeds) burns, and diarrhea -Treatment option is NS or LR
  • Cardiogenic Shock:
    • Increased compensatory mechanisms (increases workload and myocardial oxygen demand)
      • Manifestations: nausea/vomiting, Decreased cardiac output, and output and LOC. -Kidneys go first ( creatinine indicates dysfunction)
    • Impaired oxygenation perfusion and not pink and warm
    • Pulmonary pressure and VO2 stat will be down
  • Obstructive Shock
    • Has a mechanical barrier or ventricular filling
    • Includes Acute PE
    • Nursing management/interventions Decrease in output/perfusion
    • Vital signs show hypotension
    • Diminished the lung and heart sounds
    • Labs to monitor for O2 in Venous
    • Includes Neurogenic and anaphylactic shock
    • Patho-Decreased vascular tone. Causes cervical spinal injury Distributive Shock - Anaphylaxis
  • Causes of upper T5 (Spinal shock)
    • Manifestations included, warm and hyperthermia -Sympathetic nervous system and Decreased vascular tone
    • Nursing management/interventions, and oxygenation
    • Monitor for a low CVP and output with vital signs

Hemodynamics

  • Pulmonary Catheter. -Pressures are pulmonary artery
    • Obtraining inflation with the balloon with the syringe to measure Cardiac output during Thermodilution
  • Catheter is placed with Central Line to for Measure RA pressure from system from circulation
  • Arterial Line can use for infusions, blood draws, trans pacemaker.
  • Zero infusion, check if central, PaOp if high and abnormal to perfusion
  • Placed IJ, check the placement for an Air embolism when removing. Then apply a hold pressure.
  • Myocardial Infarction -Atherosclerosis causing decreased perfusion. -Progresses along the coronary system and Angina . -Diagnostics:
    • Lab work with troponin (best diagnosis) to muscle but could anywhere to Elevate in hours and days
    • EKG = GOLD standard
    • 12 lead indicates where the issues the are
  • Treatment/Intervention for chest pain =remove clots with Medications, Increase blood and lower workload by monitoring.
  • Antiplatelets/ Antithrombitics used for ASA or heparin and Percutaneous Coronary bybass (CABG/icu ) for assessment (heart tones) and with medications (monitor function) and interventions
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Review signs, Weak, Weak, altered or decreased function. - Decreased lung function
  • Medications like Beta and calcium

EKGs

  • One small box is 0.04 seconds
  • Intervals and normal ranges (QT intervals: 0.36 to .44 with Small box number.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

NURS 422 Exam 1 Study Guide PDF

Description

Exam 1 contains 50 multiple-choice questions, fill-in-the-blank, and two case studies. It covers pulmonary embolism including risk factors, diagnosis, and nursing diagnosis. The exam is worth 60 points.

More Like This

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser