Eukaryotes
129 Questions
0 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What is the diameter of the nuclear pore in its resting state?

  • 9 nm (correct)
  • 5 nm
  • 15 nm
  • 12 nm
  • What is a primary function of the nucleolus within the nucleus?

  • Synthesis of DNA
  • Transportation of mRNA
  • Transcription and processing of rRNA (correct)
  • Modification of proteins
  • Which component is crucial for the translation of mRNA into an amino acid sequence?

  • mRNA
  • tRNA (correct)
  • ribosomal proteins
  • rRNA
  • What distinguishes rough endoplasmic reticulum from smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

    <p>Presence of ribosomes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the nuclear localization sequence play in relation to nuclear pores?

    <p>It facilitates the transport of proteins into the nucleus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about ribosomes attached to the rough ER is accurate?

    <p>They translate secretory and membrane proteins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to ribosomal subunits after their assembly in the nucleolus?

    <p>They get exported to the cytoplasm. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

    <p>It acts as the site for protein synthesis and processing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the function of nuclear pores?

    <p>They facilitate communication between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) in the cell?

    <p>To facilitate the assembly of proteins during translation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes post-translational modifications?

    <p>They modify proteins after their synthesis to alter their function. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) in eukaryotic cells?

    <p>To synthesize and process proteins and lipids. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the nuclear localization sequence?

    <p>It is essential for the import of larger molecules into the nucleus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which of the following processes is mRNA involved during gene expression?

    <p>Both transcription and translation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best characterizes the 'fluid mosaic' model of the plasma membrane?

    <p>It allows lateral movement of phospholipids and proteins. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the role of transcription factors?

    <p>They regulate the transcription of specific genes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the plasma membrane in eukaryotic cells?

    <p>Maintains concentration gradients of ions across the cell membrane. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following organelles is primarily responsible for ribosomal RNA processing?

    <p>Nucleus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the key functions of the endoplasmic reticulum in eukaryotic cells?

    <p>Protein synthesis and lipid metabolism. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure within the nuclear envelope assists in regulating the transport of molecules in and out of the nucleus?

    <p>Nuclear pore complex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Post-translational modifications happen primarily in which cellular organelle?

    <p>Endoplasmic reticulum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do ribosomes contribute to cellular function?

    <p>By synthesizing proteins from amino acids. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a key characteristic of eukaryotic cells?

    <p>They possess a defined nucleus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism is involved in the selective permeability of the plasma membrane?

    <p>Both active transport and passive diffusion. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the total number of chromosomes in a human somatic cell?

    <p>46 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary process by which mitosis contributes to cellular function?

    <p>Asexual reproduction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the product of meiosis?

    <p>Four haploid daughter cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of chromosomal structure, what does the term 'nucleosome' refer to?

    <p>DNA wound around histone proteins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of identifying homologous chromosomes in a karyotype?

    <p>They originate from different parents. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the genetic material in cells?

    <p>Each chromosome contains many genes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term '2n' represent in terms of chromosome count?

    <p>Total number of chromosomes in diploid cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is the understanding of meiosis important in genetics?

    <p>It helps in understanding inheritance patterns. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of BRCA1 in relation to the cell cycle?

    <p>Repairing double-strand breaks in DNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle?

    <p>Chromosomes are duplicated (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phase of mitosis involves the breakdown of the nuclear envelope?

    <p>Prometaphase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the presence of mutated BRCA1/2 affect DNA repair processes?

    <p>Utilizes an error-prone DNA repair process (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of cytokinesis following the mitotic phase?

    <p>Separation into two individual daughter cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the role of the cell cycle restriction point?

    <p>It determines progression towards the G0 phase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which stage of interphase involves the cell making proteins in preparation for division?

    <p>G2 phase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of NADH in the electron transport chain?

    <p>To donate electrons to the electron transport chain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many ATP molecules are generated from one molecule of NADH during cellular respiration?

    <p>2.5 ATP (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does ATP Synthase play in cellular respiration?

    <p>It catalyzes the reaction converting ADP to ATP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary consequence of the proton motive force generated during the electron transport chain?

    <p>It is used to convert ADP to ATP (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In addition to ATP production, what happens to the energy harvested in earlier stages of respiration in brown adipocytes?

    <p>It is released as heat (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mobile electron carrier is involved in the electron transport chain?

    <p>Coenzyme Q (B), Cytochrome C (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of phosphorylation occurs during the ATP synthesis process in the electron transport chain?

    <p>Oxidative phosphorylation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is produced as a byproduct when oxygen is reduced in the electron transport chain?

    <p>Water (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in cellular processes?

    <p>Transfer of chemical energy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is ATP regenerated from ADP in the cell?

    <p>Through substrate level phosphorylation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mechanism describes the formation of ATP by directly adding a phosphate group from a substrate?

    <p>Substrate level phosphorylation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of the hydrolysis of ATP?

    <p>Release of energy, ADP, and inorganic phosphate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'OIL RIG' represent in the context of oxidation and reduction reactions?

    <p>Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction Is Gain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of bioenergetics, what does 'exergonic' refer to?

    <p>Reactions that release energy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does NADH play in cellular respiration?

    <p>It acts as an electron donor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of a substrate being converted from a higher to a lower energy product?

    <p>Release of energy used to form ATP (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the product formed when pyruvate undergoes reduction in anaerobic conditions?

    <p>Lactate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the citric acid cycle, which molecule is produced from the oxidation of acetyl CoA?

    <p>Citrate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many NADH molecules are generated per complete turn of the citric acid cycle?

    <p>3 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does oxidative phosphorylation primarily occur within the cell?

    <p>Inner mitochondrial membrane (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism is primarily used to generate ATP in the citric acid cycle?

    <p>Substrate-level phosphorylation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process involves the transfer of electrons and is crucial for generating reduced coenzymes?

    <p>Oxidation-reduction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the function of NAD+ in cellular respiration?

    <p>It is reduced to NADH. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of chemiosmosis in energy transfer during oxidative phosphorylation?

    <p>It creates a proton gradient. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the Poly A tail added during post-transcriptional modifications?

    <p>To enhance the stability and export of RNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required to open the double-stranded DNA template for transcription?

    <p>RNA polymerase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which codon is recognized as the start codon during the translation process?

    <p>AUG (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of transcription factors in the process of gene regulation?

    <p>To bind to promoters and initiate transcription (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is the genetic code described as 'degenerate'?

    <p>Because different codons can specify the same amino acid (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process involves the removal of introns and joining of exons in the RNA transcript?

    <p>Splicing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of RNA polymerase during transcription?

    <p>To create an RNA strand from a DNA template (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what way can alternative splicing contribute to protein diversity?

    <p>By allowing different exons to be combined in various ways (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of post-translational modifications?

    <p>To modify the structure and function of proteins after synthesis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which stage does the ribosome initially bind to the mRNA?

    <p>Initiation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dictates the order of amino acids in a polypeptide chain during translation?

    <p>Mature mRNA transcript (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the impact of a frameshift mutation on the protein produced?

    <p>It produces a completely different protein due to shifting the reading frame (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does tRNA play during the process of translation?

    <p>It recognizes codons and brings the corresponding amino acids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of mutation may not affect the phenotype of an organism?

    <p>Silent mutation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What modification occurs during glycosylation?

    <p>Attachment of carbohydrate groups (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of a nonsense mutation?

    <p>A truncated protein that is usually nonfunctional (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the function of RNA polymerase during transcription?

    <p>It unwinds the DNA double helix to expose bases for transcription. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do transcription factors play in the transcription process?

    <p>They determine which genes are expressed in a particular cell. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do codons in mRNA relate to the genetic code?

    <p>Codons consist of three nucleotides and specify amino acids. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes post-transcriptional modifications?

    <p>They involve the addition of a poly-A tail and splicing of introns. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During translation, what is the primary role of transfer RNA (tRNA)?

    <p>To bring amino acids to the ribosomes for protein assembly. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately defines the coding strand of DNA?

    <p>It has the same sequence as the final RNA transcript except for the base uracil. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor influences the rate of transcription in cells?

    <p>The concentration of transcription factors and mRNA levels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during the initial stage of transcription?

    <p>The DNA double helix is unwound and the coding strand is exposed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Principle of Segregation state about alleles during gamete production?

    <p>Each gamete carries only one allele from each gene pair. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes polygenic inheritance?

    <p>It involves multiple genes affecting a single trait. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can Punnett squares be useful in genetics?

    <p>They predict the probability of offspring inheriting particular genotypes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between monogenic and polygenic conditions?

    <p>Monogenic conditions involve traits affected by one gene, whereas polygenic conditions involve multiple genes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best represents X-linked inheritance?

    <p>Males are more likely to express X-linked disorders than females. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the inheritance of a trait governed by multiple alleles, how are the possible genotypes determined?

    <p>Through combinations of alleles from multiple genes that contribute to the trait. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is common in traits that have a polygenic inheritance pattern?

    <p>The effects of individual genes are additive in determining the phenotype. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do alleles play in determining the phenotype of an organism?

    <p>Their expression can be masked by other alleles leading to recessive traits. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What outcome is expected when a homozygous recessive organism is used in a test cross with an individual expressing a dominant phenotype?

    <p>All offspring will show the dominant phenotype. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes polygenic inheritance?

    <p>It means multiple genes contribute to a single phenotype. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of monogenic conditions, which of the following is an example of an autosomal dominant disorder?

    <p>Huntington's disease (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines X-linked inheritance in terms of genetic expression in different sexes?

    <p>Males only have one X chromosome, making them more susceptible to X-linked diseases. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which principle explains how alleles of one gene segregate independently of another gene during gamete formation?

    <p>Principle of Independent Assortment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions results from mutations in a single gene?

    <p>Cystic fibrosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best explains the genetic outcome from a Punnett square involving a heterozygous individual and a homozygous recessive individual?

    <p>Half of the offspring will exhibit the dominant phenotype. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does polygenic inheritance typically influence physical traits?

    <p>It results in a continuous range of phenotypic variations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the inheritance pattern of Cystic Fibrosis?

    <p>It requires mutant alleles from both parents to manifest. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes how Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is inherited?

    <p>It follows an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does phenylketonuria impact the metabolism of phenylalanine?

    <p>Phenylalanine is converted into toxic phenylketone due to a deficiency. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the primary effects of increased CAG repeats in specific genes?

    <p>It decreases protein stability and function. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the role of personalised medicine in treating genetic disorders?

    <p>It customizes therapies based on individual genetic profiles. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do enhancers play in gene regulation?

    <p>They alter the rate of transcription by binding to transcription factors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about steroid hormones is true?

    <p>They alter gene expression by binding to intracellular receptors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the TATA box in gene transcription?

    <p>To serve as a binding site for RNA polymerase. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does aldosterone play in the body?

    <p>Enhances Na+ retention in the kidney (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do repressor transcription factors contribute to gene regulation?

    <p>They decrease transcription by binding to specific regions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the movement of sodium and water in the renal system?

    <p>Sodium movement determines water movement in the kidneys. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What determines the specific combination of transcription factors needed to activate a gene?

    <p>The requirements of combinatorial regulation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism is primarily involved in sodium reabsorption in the nephron?

    <p>Facilitated diffusion through ENaC and Na+/K+-ATPase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which category of steroid hormones includes cortisol?

    <p>Glucocorticoids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does increased blood volume due to aldosterone have on tissue fluid formation?

    <p>It increases pressure driving the formation of tissue fluid. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do gene targets play in the action of aldosterone?

    <p>They promote transcription of ENaC and Na+/K+-ATPase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of basal transcription factors?

    <p>They facilitate the binding of RNA polymerase to the TATA box. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary consequence of the action of steroid hormones on target cells?

    <p>Altered gene expression over hours to days. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are transcription factors primarily responsible for in the cell?

    <p>Regulating the rate of transcription (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of a transcription factor binds to specific DNA sequences?

    <p>DNA Binding Domain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of the basal transcription machinery?

    <p>To initiate transcription of DNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do transcription factors affect gene expression in response to environmental factors?

    <p>They can upregulate or downregulate transcription levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do steroid hormones play within biological systems?

    <p>They regulate gene expression and influence cellular activity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect would a mutation in a transcription factor typically have on a cell?

    <p>It could disrupt normal gene regulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the function of transactivation domains in transcription factors?

    <p>They interact with proteins that enhance transcription (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of eukaryotes, what are common diseases associated with transcription factor dysfunction?

    <p>Cancers and metabolic conditions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flashcards

    Nuclear Pore Diameter

    The size of a nuclear pore in its resting state is 9 nanometers.

    Nuclear Pore Interaction

    Nuclear localization sequences cause a change in the nuclear pore's shape, widening it.

    Nucleolus Location

    The nucleolus is located inside the nucleus, without a membrane.

    Nucleolus Function

    The nucleolus produces ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and assembles ribosomal subunits.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Ribosome Function

    Ribosomes translate mRNA into amino acid sequences to form proteins.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    tRNA Function

    Transfer RNA (tRNA) helps select the correct amino acid for protein synthesis.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Rough ER Ribosomes

    Ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) synthesize proteins destined for secretion or the membrane.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) Function

    The ER is a network of tubules and vesicles where proteins are processed and moved to the Golgi.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Phospholipid Structure

    Phospholipids have a hydrophilic (water-loving) head and hydrophobic (water-fearing) tails, which form a lipid bilayer.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Lipid Bilayer

    A double layer of phospholipids that forms the foundation of cell membranes.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Fluid Mosaic Model

    The model of cell membranes, describing the movement of phospholipids and proteins.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Nuclear Membrane

    The double membrane surrounding the nucleus; it regulates what enters and exits the nucleus.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    mRNA (messenger RNA)

    A copy of a gene's instructions; it carries the message from DNA (inside the nucleus) to the ribosomes (in the cytoplasm).

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Transcription

    The process of copying a gene's sequence into mRNA.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Translation

    The process of assembling a protein using the information in mRNA.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Protein Function

    Proteins carry out the cell's functions; they are made from instructions from DNA.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Plasma Membrane Structure

    The outer boundary of a eukaryotic cell, composed of phospholipids, proteins, and cholesterol, creating a selectively permeable barrier.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Plasma Membrane Function

    The plasma membrane controls the passage of molecules, maintains internal environments, and facilitates various cellular processes.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Eukaryotic Cell Organelles

    Specialized structures within eukaryotic cells that perform specific functions.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Nucleus

    The organelle that contains the cell's genetic material (DNA).

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Cytosol

    The jelly-like substance within a cell containing the organelles.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Selective Permeability

    The ability of a membrane to allow some molecules to pass through while preventing others.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Concentration Gradients

    Differences in the concentration of a substance across a space. Important for cell function.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Membrane-Bound Organelles

    Cellular compartments enclosed by membranes.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Genome

    The complete set of genetic material within an organism's cells.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Chromosomes

    Condensed structures made up of DNA and proteins that carry genetic information.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Genes

    Segments of DNA that code for specific proteins or RNA molecules.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Mitosis

    A type of cell division that produces two daughter cells genetically identical to the parent cell.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Meiosis

    A type of cell division that produces four daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Karyotype

    An organized arrangement of chromosomes from a cell, used to identify chromosomal abnormalities.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Diploid

    A cell containing two sets of chromosomes, one from each parent.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Cell Cycle

    The series of events that a cell goes through from its formation to its division into two daughter cells.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Cytokinesis

    The division of the cell's cytoplasm, following mitosis, resulting in two individual cells.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Interphase

    The stage of the cell cycle where the cell grows and replicates its genetic material, preceding mitosis.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    G1 Phase

    The first stage of interphase, where the cell grows and duplicates its organelles.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    S Phase

    The stage of interphase where DNA is replicated.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    G2 Phase

    The final phase of interphase, where the cell makes proteins needed for cell division.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Prophase

    The first stage of mitosis where chromosomes condense and the spindle begins to form.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Prometaphase

    The stage of mitosis where the nuclear envelope breaks down and microtubules attach to kinetochores on the chromosomes.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Electron Transport Chain (ETC)

    A series of protein complexes embedded in the mitochondrial membrane, responsible for transferring electrons from donors to acceptors, generating a proton gradient that drives ATP production.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Proton Motive Force

    The electrochemical gradient created by the pumping of protons (H+) across the mitochondrial membrane during ETC, which stores potential energy used to drive ATP synthesis.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Chemiosmosis

    The process where the energy stored in the proton gradient across the mitochondrial membrane is used to drive the synthesis of ATP by ATP Synthase.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    ATP Synthase

    An enzyme complex embedded in the mitochondrial membrane responsible for using the proton motive force to generate ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    What happens to all the energy harvested in the earlier stages of respiration?

    The energy harvested in glycolysis, the link reaction, and the Krebs cycle (in the form of electrons carried by NADH and FADH2) is used to create a proton gradient in the ETC, which drives ATP synthesis via chemiosmosis.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Brown Adipocytes

    Specialized fat cells containing 'Uncoupling Protein 1' (UCP1), which disrupts the proton gradient, preventing the efficient production of ATP and releasing heat.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Uncoupling Protein 1 (UCP1)

    A protein found in brown adipocytes that acts as a 'proton channel', allowing protons to pass through the mitochondrial membrane without generating ATP, leading to heat production

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    How does NADH contribute to ATP production?

    NADH delivers electrons to the ETC, contributing to the building of the proton gradient that ultimately powers ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    OIL RIG

    A mnemonic used to remember the difference between oxidation and reduction reactions. OIL RIG stands for Oxidation Is Loss (of electrons), Reduction Is Gain (of electrons).

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    ATP

    Adenosine triphosphate, a nucleotide that serves as the primary energy currency of cells.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Exergonic Reaction

    A chemical reaction that releases energy into the surroundings, often involving the breaking of chemical bonds.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Endergonic Reaction

    A chemical reaction that requires energy from the surroundings to proceed.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Phosphoanhydride Bond

    A high-energy chemical bond found in ATP, which releases energy when broken.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Hydrolysis of ATP

    The breakdown of ATP using water to release energy and produce ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi).

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Substrate Level Phosphorylation

    A way of making ATP where a phosphate group is directly transferred from a high-energy molecule (substrate) to ADP.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    How does the cell regenerate ATP?

    The cell regenerates ATP by using energy released from exergonic reactions to add a phosphate group back to ADP.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Glycolysis: What happens to pyruvate under anaerobic conditions?

    In the absence of oxygen, pyruvate from glycolysis is converted to lactate. This process regenerates NAD+ for further glycolysis.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Citric Acid Cycle: Where does it occur?

    The citric acid cycle takes place within the mitochondrial matrix, a compartment inside the mitochondria.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Citric Acid Cycle: What happens to pyruvate?

    Pyruvate is first converted to Acetyl-CoA, which enters the citric acid cycle. This cycle involves a series of reactions that oxidize Acetyl-CoA, generating energy carriers and releasing CO2.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Energy Carriers: How are they generated in the Citric Acid Cycle?

    The citric acid cycle produces NADH and FADH2 by reducing NAD+ and FAD. These molecules store energy from the oxidation of Acetyl-CoA.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Citric Acid Cycle: What are the products?

    For each turn of the citric acid cycle, the following energy carriers are produced: 3 NADH, 1 FADH2 and 1 ATP.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Oxidative Phosphorylation: Where does it occur?

    Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the inner mitochondrial membrane, a highly folded structure within mitochondria.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Oxidative Phosphorylation: What's the electron transport chain?

    The electron transport chain consists of protein complexes embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane, which transfer electrons from NADH and FADH2, releasing energy.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Oxidative Phosphorylation: Where does the energy come from?

    The energy used in oxidative phosphorylation comes from the electrons carried by NADH and FADH2, ultimately derived from the breakdown of food molecules.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Chemiosmosis: How does ATP get made?

    Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane. The potential energy generated drives ATP synthase to create ATP.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Housekeeping Genes

    Genes continuously expressed for essential cellular processes, like basic functions.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Cell-Type Specific Genes

    Genes expressed only in certain cell types, like T cell receptor gene in T lymphocytes.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    RNA Stability

    RNA is less stable than DNA, making it a good target for regulating gene expression.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Transcription Factors

    Proteins that bind to DNA and regulate transcription, controlling gene expression.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    TATA Box

    A DNA sequence upstream of a gene, where basal transcription factors bind to initiate transcription.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Enhancer Region

    A DNA sequence that can be located far from a gene, but influences its transcription rate by binding transcription factors.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Poly A Tail

    A sequence of adenine nucleotides added to the end of an RNA transcript for stability and export.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Alternative Splicing

    The process of producing different protein isoforms from the same RNA transcript by splicing out different combinations of exons.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Stop Codons

    Three-base sequences in mRNA that signal the end of protein synthesis. They do not code for any amino acid.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Codon Recognition

    The process where a tRNA molecule with a complementary anticodon binds to a specific codon on mRNA, ensuring the correct amino acid is added to the polypeptide chain.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    What is a frameshift mutation?

    A mutation that inserts or deletes one or two nucleotides, causing the reading frame of the mRNA to shift. This misaligns codons, leading to incorrect amino acid sequences in the protein.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Point Mutation: Missense

    A point mutation that results in a single amino acid change in the protein. This can sometimes alter the protein's function.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Point Mutation: Nonsense

    A point mutation that changes a codon for an amino acid into a stop codon, prematurely terminating protein synthesis. This often results in a non-functional protein.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Post-translational Modifications

    Changes that occur to a protein after it has been synthesized, affecting its structure, function, location, and interactions. These modifications can include glycosylation, lipidation, phosphorylation, methylation, and acetylation.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Mutations and Disease

    Mutations, particularly those leading to incorrect protein function, can underlie various genetic diseases.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    What is a silent mutation?

    A point mutation that changes a base in the DNA sequence but does not alter the amino acid sequence of the protein. This is because the genetic code has redundancy, allowing for multiple codons to specify the same amino acid.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    RNA polymerase

    An enzyme responsible for building mRNA from 5' to 3' end using a DNA template. It reads the DNA and assembles the matching RNA sequence.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Template strand

    The DNA strand used as a template for making the RNA transcript. The RNA sequence is complementary to the template strand.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Coding strand

    The DNA strand that matches the mRNA sequence (with T replaced by U). It's not directly used for transcription but provides the gene's sequence.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Rate of Transcription

    The speed at which transcription occurs. This determines how much of a specific protein is made, influencing the cell's activity.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Regulation of Transcription

    The control of transcription rate, deciding which genes are expressed and how much. It's like choosing which recipes to use and how many portions to make.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Gene Expression

    The process of translating genetic information into functional proteins. It includes transcription and translation, ultimately leading to a protein product.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    mRNA levels

    The amount of mRNA in a cell reflects the activity of a specific gene. More mRNA means more protein will be produced from that gene.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Test Cross

    A breeding experiment to determine the genotype of an individual with a dominant phenotype. It involves crossing the individual with a homozygous recessive individual.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Principle of Independent Assortment

    The inheritance of alleles for one gene is independent of other genes, meaning that different combinations of traits are possible in offspring.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    X-linked Inheritance

    Genes located on the X chromosome are inherited differently in males and females, as males have only one X chromosome.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Polygenic Inheritance

    Multiple genes contribute to a single trait, leading to a wide range of phenotypic variation.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Monogenic Inheritance

    Inheritance of a trait determined by a single gene, resulting in distinct phenotypes.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Autosomal Dominant

    A disease where a single copy of a mutated gene on a non-sex chromosome is sufficient to cause the disease.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Autosomal Recessive

    A disease where two copies of a mutated gene on a non-sex chromosome are needed for the disease to manifest.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Huntington's Disease

    A neurodegenerative disorder caused by an autosomal dominant mutation, characterized by involuntary movements (chorea) and cognitive decline.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Inheritance

    The process of passing genetic traits from parents to offspring.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Phenotype

    The observable characteristics of an organism, influenced by the genotype.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Alleles

    Alternative forms of a gene, located at the same position on homologous chromosomes.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Homozygous

    Having two identical alleles for a specific gene.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Heterozygous

    Having two different alleles for specific gene.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Principle of Segregation

    During gamete formation, each allele of a pair separates into different gametes, ensuring each offspring gets one allele from each parent.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Principle of Dominance

    One allele (dominant) masks the expression of another (recessive) allele for a particular trait.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Trinucleotide repeat expansion

    A type of mutation where a three-nucleotide sequence is repeated abnormally many times in a gene. This can lead to an overproduction of a protein, often causing disease.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Cystic Fibrosis

    An autosomal recessive genetic disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, which encodes a protein responsible for transporting chloride ions across cell membranes. This leads to thick mucus buildup in organs like the lungs and pancreas.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Mini-guts

    Organoids, small three-dimensional models of intestinal tissue, grown in a lab. They can be used to predict how a patient will respond to different drugs.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Phenylketonuria (PKU)

    An autosomal recessive genetic disorder where the body cannot break down the amino acid phenylalanine, leading to a buildup of phenylketone in the blood, causing neurological damage. It's treated by a special diet.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

    A progressive muscle-weakening disorder caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene, located on the X chromosome, leading to muscle degeneration. It mostly affects males.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Basal Transcription Machinery

    A group of proteins that bind to a promoter region of DNA and help RNA polymerase initiate transcription.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    What do transcription factors that alter the rate of transcription do?

    They control the speed of transcription, turning genes up or down, or switching them on or off, in response to internal or external cues.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Steroid Hormones

    Lipid-based hormones that bind to intracellular receptors, triggering specific cellular responses.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Why are Transcription Factors important to the cell?

    They play a critical role in regulating gene expression, ensuring that the right proteins are produced at the right time and in the right amount.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    What is the function of steroid hormones in biological systems?

    They regulate a wide range of physiological processes, including growth, development, metabolism, and reproduction.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Why is the study of transcription factors and steroid hormones important in Pharmacology?

    Understanding their mechanisms can lead to developing targeted therapies for diseases related to gene expression and hormonal imbalances.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    How do transcription factors and steroid hormones contribute to drug development and pharmacological research?

    They offer insights into the molecular mechanisms of drug action, allowing us to design drugs that specifically target these processes.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    What is aldosterone's role?

    Aldosterone is a hormone that acts on the kidneys to increase sodium and water retention, leading to higher blood volume and pressure.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    How does aldosterone affect gene expression?

    Aldosterone influences gene expression in the kidney by activating certain genes involved in sodium and water reabsorption. It binds to specific DNA regions (response elements) to stimulate transcription of these genes.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Why are transcription factors important?

    Transcription factors are proteins that control gene expression by binding to specific DNA sequences, regulating how efficiently genes are transcribed into RNA. They act like control dials that influence gene activity.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    What are steroid hormones?

    Steroid hormones, like estrogen and testosterone, are lipid-based hormones that regulate various physiological processes. They work by binding to receptors inside cells, triggering gene expression changes.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    What is hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

    HRT uses synthetic versions of hormones, like estrogen or testosterone, to alleviate symptoms related to hormonal changes or deficiencies. It's used for post-menopausal women or those with hormone imbalances.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Combinatorial Regulation

    When multiple transcription factors work together to control a single gene's expression, creating a complex regulatory network.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Promoter

    A specific DNA sequence upstream of a gene where transcription factors bind to initiate transcription. It's like a starting signal for RNA polymerase.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    What effects do steroid hormones have?

    Steroid hormones affect their target tissues by binding to specific receptors inside the cell, which then act as transcription factors, altering gene expression.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    What question are we really asking in this context?

    We're seeking to identify the genes specifically activated by steroid hormone receptors in a given situation.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Aldosterone

    A mineralocorticoid steroid hormone that regulates electrolyte balance and blood pressure.

    Signup and view all the flashcards

    Study Notes

    Eukaryotic Cell Structures

    • Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles and non-membrane-bound organelles.
    • Key organelles include: nucleus, nucleolus, plasma membrane, cytosol, lysosome, proteasome, ribosome, peroxisome, mitochondrion, Golgi, endoplasmic reticulum, and cytoskeleton.

    Learning Outcomes

    • Students should be able to identify and describe the main structures of membrane-bound and non-membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotic cells.
    • Students should be able to explain the functions of these organelles.

    Why This Topic is Relevant

    • Understanding how to target specific properties of one cell type over another.
    • Targeting drugs to specific organelles (increased efficacy, reduced side effects).
    • Targeting functions of parasite organelles to combat infection, while sparing host cells.

    General Features of Eukaryotic Cells

    • Many organelles and structures are shared among different cell types.
    • Cells adapt to survive in diverse physiological conditions.
    • Changes to cellular machinery allow processes to be targeted pharmacologically.

    Plasma Membrane (1)

    • Defines the cell surface, acting as a boundary.
    • Impermeable to large molecules.
    • Selectively permeable to small molecules.
    • Allows differences between internal (cytosol) and external (extracellular fluid) environments.

    Plasma Membrane (2)

    • Maintains biochemical constraints for biological activity (e.g., glycolysis).
    • Maintains concentration gradients of ions across the membrane (e.g., nerve firing, muscle contraction, insulin release).

    Plasma Membrane (3)

    • Composed of phospholipids, proteins, and cholesterol.
    • Phospholipids are amphipathic (having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts).
    • Form a lipid bilayer.
    • Exhibits "fluid mosaic" model with phospholipid and protein movement.

    Plasma Membrane (4)

    • Studded with proteins (e.g., ion channels, receptors, transporters).
    • Allows cells to receive signals and transport molecules.

    A Quick Recap (1)

    • Proteins carry out cellular functions, resulting from gene expression and made outside the nucleus in ribosomes.
    • Protein information is encoded in DNA, which is contained within the nucleus for protection.

    A Quick Recap (2)

    • When a gene is expressed, a disposable mRNA copy of DNA is created (transcription).
    • The mRNA is exported to the cytoplasm to associate with ribosomes, where protein assembly occurs (translation).
    • In eukaryotic cells, transcription and translation are spatially and temporally separated.

    Nucleus

    • Keeps the chromosomal DNA safe.
    • Composed of two lipid bilayers (the nuclear envelope) with pores.
    • The pores allow communication with the cytoplasm and regulate movement of molecules.
    • Larger molecules require a nuclear localization sequence for transport.

    Nucleus - Movement Through Membrane

    • mRNA and ribosomal subunits move from the nucleus to the cytoplasm to support translation.
    • Other molecules such as histones, DNA/RNA polymerases, and transcription factors also move through the membrane.
    • Nucleotides, ions, and signal molecules are also transported across.

    Nuclear Pore

    • Pores have a diameter of 9nm in their resting state
    • Interactions with nuclear localization sequences cause conformational changes and pore dilation.

    Nucleolus

    • Located inside the nucleus, it does not have a membrane.
    • Contains condensed chromatin with genes for ribosomal RNA (rRNA).
    • Site of rRNA transcription and processing.
    • Assembles ribosomal subunits (rRNA + ribosomal protein).
    • Ribosomal subunits are exported to the cytoplasm.

    Ribosome

    • Site of protein translation.
    • Converts mRNA codons into amino acid sequences.
    • tRNA acts as an adaptor molecule to select the correct amino acid.
    • Free ribosomes and ribosomes associated with endoplasmic reticulum exist.

    Ribosome (Secretion of Proteins)

    • Secretory proteins and membrane proteins are initially assembled by ribosomes connected to the rough endoplasmic reticulum (rough ER).
    • These proteins are then transported via vesicles to the Golgi apparatus for further processing.

    Endoplasmic Reticulum

    • Network of interconnected tubules and vesicles continuous with the nuclear membrane.
    • Rough ER: Associated with ribosomes, involved in protein synthesis, secretion, and modification of secreted and transmembrane proteins, with post-translational modification.
    • Smooth ER: Involved in lipid and steroid synthesis, carbohydrate metabolism, calcium storage, and is particularly well-developed in muscle cells (as sarcoplasmic reticulum).

    Golgi Apparatus

    • Part of the endomembrane system.
    • Physically separates and performs advanced post-translational modification (e.g., adding sugars).
    • Communicates with other parts of the cell through vesicles moving to other organelles.

    Vesicular Structures

    • Lysosomes are membrane-bound vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes (general destruction).
    • They are responsible for cellular breakdown
    • Peroxisomes are also membrane-bound vesicles that are involved in beta-oxidation of fatty acids and in the synthesis of cholesterol, bile acids, steroid hormones, and transcription factors in some types of cells.

    Proteasome

    • Large protein complex not membrane-bound.
    • Involved in protein degradation, targeting misfolded or excess proteins within the cell.
    • The degradation process involves a ubiquitin tag.

    Mitochondria

    • Important energy source (ATP) through glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, but mostly in mitochondria.
    • Crucial for muscle contraction.

    Cytoskeleton

    • Protein structure that provides support and structure to the cell.
    • Dynamic system involved in cell shape changes, vesicle movement, and the cell cycle.

    Summary

    • These cellular features are common to most eukaryotic cells.
    • Students need to be able to identify and describe the main structures.
    • Students need to explain the function of the organelles using basic terms.

    Studying That Suits You

    Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

    Quiz Team

    Description

    Explore the fascinating world of eukaryotic cells and their diverse organelles. This quiz will test your knowledge on both membrane-bound and non-membrane-bound organelles, their structures, and functions. Understand the importance of these organelles in targeting drugs and combating infections.

    More Like This

    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Browser